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CLA-3 Comprehension III CSE-B

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the maximum length of a UTP cable?

a)

1km

b)

100m

c)

50m

d)

Unlimted

2.

TCP/IP is used to...

a)

make sure that web pages are transmitted and displayed correctly

b)

upload and download files from one computer to another

c)

split data into packets and make sure they get sent to the receiver.

d)

ensure that the internet is working.

3.

What does LAN stand for?

a)

Local Area Network

b)

Line Area Network

c)

Local Around Network

d)

Listed Area Network

4.

If there is a problem with the ... then people on the network will be unable to access their files.

a)

Internet server

b)

File server

c)

Mail server

d)

Database server

5.

Which of the following would normally be used to connect networks across different continents?

a)

Fibre optic cables

b)

Microwave links

c)

Wi-Fi

6.

The internet is owned by...

a)

no one

b)

the USA

c)

NATO

d)

the government

7.

What type of topology is this?

a)

Ring

b)

Full Mesh

c)

Partial Mesh

d)

Line

8.

What type of multiplexing?

a)

FDM

b)

FM

c)

WDM

d)

TDM

9.

What type of multiplexing?

a)

FDM

b)

WDM

c)

AM

d)

TDM

10.

•Multiple beams of light at different frequency

•Carried by optical fiber

•A form of FDM

a)

TDM

b)

FDM

c)

WDM

d)

FM

11.

The main purpose of the twisting cable in Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable is _______

a)

to reduce cost

b)

to ensure easy handling during working with those cable

c)

to help user in determining the correct colour codes of the cables

d)

to reduce Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)

12.

What is the purpose of cladding in an optical fiber?

a)

Covert the electric current pulse to light pulse.

b)

To keep the light reflecting in core instead of being refracted until its destination.

c)

Preserve fiber strength, absorb shock and provide extra fiber protection.

d)

Convert the received light pulses back to pulses of electrical current.

13.

In microwave transmission system, circular waveguide is used for

a)

Efficiency reasons

b)

Ease of manufacture

c)

Rotating section applications

d)

Greater bandwidth

14.

Identify the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise that twisted pair cable.

a)

Inner conductor

b)

Diameter of cable

c)

Outer conductor

d)

Insulating material

15.
Which of the following technologies requires a logical connection between the sending and receiving devices?
a)
Circuit switching
b)
Virtual-circuit packet switching
c)
Message switching
d)
High-density circuit switching
16.
The packets in _______________________
are independently sent, meaning that they can take different paths through the network to reach their intended destination
a)
Virtual-circuit packet switching
b)
Datagram packet switching:
c)
Circuit Switching
d)
Frame switching
17.

1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

a)

Packet switched

b)

Circuit switched

c)

Bit switched

d)

Line switched

18.

In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet.

a)

circuit switching

b)

datagram switching

c)

frame switching

d)

none of the above

19.

A multiplexer__________several transmission streams while a demultiplexer__________________them

a)

combines ; separates

b)

compressed; decompressed

c)

encrypts; decrypts

d)

separates; combines

20.

What is the most frequently used communications protocol?

a)

IPv4

b)

IPv6

c)

IPv8

d)

IPv10

21.

What class is this IP address? 10.10.10.0

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

22.

Which class of network addresses is used by government, ISPs and large universities.

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

23.

What is the default subnet mask for a Class A ip address?

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

24.

Oversees global IP address allocation and internet numbers.

a)

VLSM

b)

CIDR

c)

IANA

d)

ISP

25.

Use a default subnet mask...

a)

Classless IP Addresses

b)

Classful IP Addresses

c)

VLSM

d)

CIDR

26.

Process of dividing a large network into smaller networks...

a)

Supernetting

b)

CIDR

c)

Classful IP Addressing

d)

Subnetting

27.

Standards used to create unique identifiers for networks and host devices.

a)

Supernetting

b)

Subnetting

c)

Network ID

d)

CIDR

28.

Special server configured to pass out IP addresses and other IP configuration information to network clients. These ensure that each client is assigned a unique IP address.

a)

DNS

b)

Active Directory

c)

DCHP

d)

DHCP

29.

Addressing means that IP configuration information is manually configured on each host.

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

IPv6

d)

Static

30.
Which protocol is responsible for sending/receiving packets over the internet?
a)
Http
b)
Ftp
c)
TCP/IP
d)
IMAP
31.
What hardware device routes packets around the computers in your home and to/from the internet?
a)
Network interface card
b)
Repeater
c)
Router
d)
Bridge
32.
One advantage of dynamic routing is that
a)
information about networks is automatically shared
b)
no router configuration is required
c)
Cisco will configure your router for you
d)
it uses less bandwidth than static routing
33.
When RIP sends a routing advertisement,
a)
it adds 1 to the cost of a route
b)
it adds 10 to the cost of a route
c)
it makes no changes to the cost of a route
d)
it sets the cost of a route to zero
34.
'Distance' in Distance Vector means
a)
the cost to reach a network
b)
the distance in km to reach a network
c)
the location where a network is
d)
the distance to the router in the server room
35.
Discontiguous networks occur when
a)
a classful protocol doesn't know the right size of networks
b)
a classless protocol is used
c)
RIPv2 is used
d)
OSPF is used
36.
Which networks should you advertise in RIP?
a)
all directly connected networks
b)
only the LAN networks
c)
only the WAN links
d)
only the biggest network
37.

With which network type will OSPF establish router adjacencies but not perform the DR/BDR election process?

a)

Point-to-point

b)

Backbone area 0

c)

Broadcast multi-access

d)

Non-broadcast multi-access

38.

Which of the following are true regarding OSPF areas?

  1. You must have separate loopback interfaces configured in each area.
  2. 2. The numbers you can assign an area go up to 65,535.
  3. The backbone area is also called area 0.
  4. If your design is hierarchical, then you don't need multiple areas.
  5. All areas must connect to area 0.
a)

1 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

3 and 4 only

d)

3, 4 and 5

39.

Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0?

  1. router eigrp 10
  2. router ospf 10
  3. network 10.0.0.0
  4. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0
  5. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
a)

1 and 4

b)

2, 4, and 5

c)

2 and 5

d)

3 and 4

40.

OSPF is a hierarchical routing protocol that logically divides the network into subdomains referred to as _____

a)

Broadcast Domain

b)

VLAN

c)

Areas

d)

Loopbacks

41.

The analysis phase ____________________

a)

Determines what the program will do

b)

Determines how the program will work

c)

Determines whether or not the program works

d)

Adds new features to the delivered program

42.

The Rational Unified Process model __________

a)

Completes each phase fully before advancing to the next phase

b)

Iterates through the phases to develop prototypes with increasing functionality

c)

Focuses on best practices and is informally structured

d)

Begins the next phase before the current phase is completed

e)

Responds quickly to change and has short, daily status meetings

43.

The Agile Development model __________

a)

Completes each phase fully before advancing to the next phase

b)

Iterates through the phases to develop prototypes with increasing functionality

c)

Focuses on best practices and is informally structured

d)

Begins the next phase before the current phase is completed

e)

Responds quickly to change and has short, daily status meetings

44.

Which of the following is not a software development process model

a)

Waterfall model

b)

Risk Identification model

c)

Spiral model

d)

Non of the above

45.

Software engineering involves quality measures to improve the quality of the software

a)

False

b)

True

c)

Can't say

d)

Non of the above

46.

The reason for software bugs and failures is due to

a)

Software companies

b)

Software Developers

c)

Both Software companies and Developers

d)

Software

47.

Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?

a)

Build & Fix Model

b)

Prototyping Model

c)

RAD Model

d)

Waterfall Model

48.

Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

a)

Doesn’t work well for smaller projects

b)

High amount of risk analysis

c)

Strong approval and documentation control

d)

Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

49.

The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?

a)

SDD

b)

SRS

c)

DDD

d)

SRD

50.

COCOMO stands for

a)

Constructive cost model

b)

Comprehensive cost model

c)

Constructive cost estimation model

d)

Complete cost estimation model

51.

Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?

a)

Software Macroscopic schedule

b)

Software Project scheduling

c)

Software Detailed schedule

d)

None of the mentioned

52.

Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?

a)

Change management

b)

Version management

c)

System building

d)

Release management

53.

The testing in which code is checked

a)

Black box testing

b)

White box testing

c)

Red box testing

d)

Green box testing

54.

The process of evaluating work-products (not the actual final product) of a development phase to determine whether they meet the specified requirements for that phase. This statement refers to:

a)

Validation

b)

Verification

55.
Identify the common stages of software development life cycles (SDLCs).
a)
Analysis, Design, Development, Testing, Implementation, Evaluation and Maintenance.
b)
Analysis, Design, Development, Testing, , Evaluation and Maintenance.
c)
Analysis, Design, , Testing, Implementation, Evaluation and Maintenance.
d)
, Design, Development, Testing, Implementation, Evaluation and Maintenance.
e)
Analysis, Design, Development, Testing, Implementation, Evaluation.
56.

Which requirements are related to system attributes such as reliability and response time.

a)

Non-functional requirements

b)

Functional Requirements

c)

Domain Requirements

d)

Software Requirements

57.

What is the process of analyzing, documenting, tracking, prioritizing and agreeing on the requirement and controlling the communication to relevant stakeholders?

a)

Requirement Management

b)

Requirement Elicitation

c)

Requirement Analysis

d)

Requirement verification

58.

Which level of DFD is also known as Context Diagram.

a)

0-Level

b)

1-Level

c)

2-Level

d)

3-Level

59.

Behavioral Model can be represented in which Diagram

a)

Data Flow Diagram

b)

State transition Diagram

c)

None of the above

d)

All of the above

60.

Identify the correct order of the phases involved in Software Prototyping.


A) Developing the initial Prototype

B) Review of the Prototype

C) Basic Requirement Identification

D) Revise and Enhance the Prototype

a)

A-B-C-D

b)

C-A-D-B

c)

C-A-B-D

d)

A-B-D-C

61.

Operational feasibility is for ________________

a)

Organisational level

b)

Unit level

c)

Horizontal level of the company

d)

None of the above

62.
Which of the following is not true:
Characteristics of good testing:
a)
for every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.
b)
-  Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available in teh development life cycle
c)
each test level has specific test objectives
d)
test analysis and development should begin during the corresponding development activity
63.
Which of the following is not a test level
a)
component testing
b)
system testing
c)
client acceptance testing
d)
integration testing
64.
Which tool would you use if a programmer wanted to express algorithm visually?
a)
Flowchart
b)
Pseudocode
c)
Storyboard
d)
Graphical user interface
65.
Which is Deductive Process
a)
Testing
b)
Debugging
c)
Bug
d)
Error
66.
A ________ is the smallest testable piece of software that can be compiled
a)
Unit
b)
Component
c)
Integration
d)
System
67.
___________ loops fall between single and nested loops with respect to test cases
a)
Concatenated
b)
Horrible
c)
Nested
d)
None
68.
The logical function evaluated at a decision is called____________
a)
Decision
b)
Predicate
c)
Path
d)
None
69.
___________ is a graphical representation of a program's control structure
a)
Control Flow Graph
b)
Transaction Flow Graph
c)
Data Flow Graph
d)
None
70.
A _______ is a succession of consecutive links that belongs to same path
a)
length
b)
Path Segment
c)
Node
d)
None
71.

User Acceptance testing is

a)

White box testing

b)

Black box testing

c)

Gray box testing

d)

None of the above

72.

White Box Techniques are also called as:-

a)

Structural Testing

b)

Design-Based Testing

c)

Error Guessing Technique

d)

Experience-Based Techniqu

73.

What is an Equivalence Partition (also known as an Equivalence class)?

a)

A set of test cases for testing classes of objects

b)

An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case

c)

An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case

d)

An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

74.

A Type of Functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to the detection of threats, such as viruses from malicious outsiders.

a)

Security Testing

b)

Recovery Testing

c)

Performance Testing

d)

Functionality Testing

75.

Functional system testing is:

a)

testing that the system functions with other systems

b)

testing that the components that comprise the system function together

c)

testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

d)

testing the system performs functions within specified response times

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