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Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cell theory was first proposed in 1838. Evidence obtained through additional scientific investigations resulted in the current cell theory. Which statement describes a component of the original cell theory that was removed because of the new scientific knowledge?

a)

All living things are made of cells.

b)

All cells come from other preexisting cells.

c)

Cells form through spontaneous generation.

d)

Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.

2.

Which invention from the 17th century allowed for the development of modern cell theory?

a)

X-rays

b)

computers

c)

the light microscope

d)

the scanning electron microscope

3.

There are some similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Which of the following structures is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

lysosome

b)

mitochondrion

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

4.

Cells need to bring in molecules to carry out cellular processes. Often, this requires moving the molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient. How do these molecules get into the cell?

a)

passive transport by diffusion

b)

active transport using ATP

c)

passive transport by osmosis

d)

phagocytosis

5.

Which type(s) of cells have genetic material that is contained in a nucleus?

a)

bacteria

b)

only animal cells

c)

protists

d)

both plant and animal cells

6.

Which cell structure is correctly paired with its primary function?

a)

ribosome - protein synthesis

b)

mitochondrion - movement

c)

vacuole - cell division

d)

nucleus - storage of nutrients

7.

Which choice describes DNA after replication has taken place?

a)

one molecule with two original strands and one molecule with two new strands

b)

two molecules, each with one original and one new strand

c)

two molecules, each with two new strands

d)

two molecules, each with two old strands

8.

At what point in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur and why?

a)

before a cell divides, to provide each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions

b)

before a cell divides, to ensure that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells

c)

during cell division, to ensure that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells

d)

after a cell divides, to provide each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions

9.

Four different segments of a DNA molecule are represented below.

There is an error in the DNA in which molecule?

a)

segment 1 only

b)

segment 3 only

c)

segment 2 and 3

d)

segment 2 and 4

10.

The sequence of DNA below is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment?

5' ATCAGCGCTGGC 3'

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

11.

Which of the following would most likely cause a mutation?

a)

the placement of ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum

b)

the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA

c)

the movement of transfer RNA out of the nucleus

d)

the release of messenger RNA from DNA

12.

During transcription the DNA base sequence is transcribed into a complimentary mRNA sequence. A codon table like the one shown below lists the amino acids coded for by particular triads of mRNA bases. A segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which one nucleotide has been changed. The original sequence was ACG and the new sequence is ACA. Use the codon table to determine whether or not this mutation will cause a change in the phenotype of the organism.

a)

yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because a new amino acid will be coded for.

b)

yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because any change in the DNA sequence will cause a change in phenotype.

c)

Even though the DNA sequence changed, the sequence still codes for the same amino acid, so no change in phenotype will occur.

d)

It is impossible to determine if a change in phenotype will occur using only the DNA sequence.

13.

Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes and event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis?

a)

two stages of cell division

b)

replication of cellular genetic material

c)

daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell

d)

four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell

14.

Which of the following phrases best describes cancer?

a)

absence of cyclins in the DNA

b)

multiple gene mutations on a chromosome of DNA

c)

uncontrolled cell growth caused by mutations in genes that control the cell cycle

d)

presence of genetic defects caused by hereditary disorders

15.

Which of the following best describes meiosis?

a)

It is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement.

b)

It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of organisms.

c)

It happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord.

d)

It is the first stage of mitosis.

16.

As food travels through the digestive system, it is exposed to a variety of pH levels. The stomach has a pH of 2 due to the presence of hydrochloride acid (HCl), and the small intestine has a pH ranging from 7 to 9. HCl converts pepsinogen into pepsin, an enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach. Which of the following most likely happens to pepsin as it enters the small intestine?

a)

It becomes inactive.

b)

It begins to replicate.

c)

It's shape changes to engulf large proteins.

d)

It's activity increases to digest more proteins.

17.

Fats, oils and cholesterol are all types of what?

a)

cell membranes

b)

hormones

c)

lipids

d)

fatty acids

18.

RNA and DNA are which type of macromolecules?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

19.

What will most likely happen if an appropriate enzyme is added to a chemical reaction?

a)

The reaction rate will increase

b)

The equilibrium of the reaction will be maintained.

c)

The reaction rate will decrease.

d)

The reaction will stop.

20.

The enzyme lactase will break down the sugar lactose into which of the following components?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

nucleic acids

c)

amino acids

d)

phospholipids

21.

Which statement describes how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interrelated?

a)

Oxygen is produced during cellular respiration and stored during photosynthesis.

b)

Carbon dioxide and water released by cellular respiration are used in photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis releases the energy that is stored during the process of cellular respiration.

d)

Glucose is used during cellular respiration to produce food that is broken down during photosynthesis.

22.

How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis related, in terms of energy?

a)

The energy captured in photosynthesis is used to power cellular respiration.

b)

The energy transformed in cellular respiration is used to power photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis and respiration perform the same task in terms of energy transformation.

d)

Energy is not involved in either photosynthesis or cellular respiration.

23.

In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?

a)

Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.

b)

Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.

c)

Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.

d)

Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.

24.

Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?

a)

Water expands as it freezes.

b)

Water is an excellent solvent.

c)

Water exhibits cohesive behavior.

d)

Water is able to moderate temperature.

25.

Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?

a)

Water is an acid.

b)

Water is a versatile solvent.

c)

Water has a high heat capacity.

d)

Water acts as a buffer.

26.

Water is often called the "universal solvent" because many substances can be dissolved in water. What property of water allows it to be such a versatile solvent?

a)

purity

b)

polarity and cohesion

c)

high heat capacity

d)

expansion upon freezing

27.

If the xylem in a young tree is damaged, which process is first affected?

a)

performing photosynthesis

b)

transporting sugar to the roots

c)

transporting water to the leaves

d)

absorbing water from the soil

28.

A plant species lives in an area with limited sunlight. Which physiological adaptation would be most useful to the plant?

a)

colorful flowers

b)

large leaves

c)

deep roots

d)

thin cuticle

29.

The cambuim is a section of cells in a plant that can become either part of the xylem or phloem, depending on the growth and needs of the plant. If the cambium of a particular plant was damaged, what would be the most likely effect on the plant?

a)

The plant would lose its ability to carry out photosynthesis.

b)

the plant would have uncontrolled growth.

c)

The plant would not experience any change in physiology.

d)

The plant would not be able to transport nutrients and water.

30.

Which structure in the leaf controls the opening and closing of the stoma?

a)

cuticle

b)

epidermis

c)

guard cell

d)

spongy mesophyll

31.

What lobe of the brain is letter B?

a)

temporal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

32.

What lobe of the brain is letter A?

a)

temporal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

33.

The rate at which blood flows through the human body changes in response to many factors. Which statement describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow?

a)

A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.

b)

A low blood pH decreases the rate of diffusion through the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.

c)

The changing of the shape of red blood cells to a crescent shape decreases resistance and lead to a faster blood flow.

d)

The narrowing of blood vessels increases pressure and leads to a faster blood flow.

34.

Which of the following factors would most directly affect blood flow through the circulatory system?

a)

blood pressure

b)

blood sugar

c)

respiratory rate

d)

outside temperature

35.

What causes blood pressure?

a)

cholesterol in the blood

b)

stress that exercise puts on heart muscle

c)

contraction of the ventricles in the heart

d)

removal of oxygen from the blood

36.

What is the body's first line of defense against infection by foreign organisms?

a)

antibodies

b)

lymph nodes

c)

white blood cells

d)

the skin

37.

What is immunity?

a)

The body's ability to produce cells that inactivate foreign cells or substances.

b)

The body's ability to regulate homeostasis through feedback loops.

c)

The body's ability to produce the "fight or flight" response.

d)

The body's ability to use the endocrine system to fight disease.

38.

Although vaccines cannot be used to treat a person who is sick, they can help to prevent infections. Vaccinations tell the body to create "memory cells", which will function later to create antibodies against certain pathogens. When a person is vaccinated, what are they injected with?

a)

antibodies to a disease bacterium

b)

live, inactive viruses

c)

weakened viruses or antigens from the virus

d)

blood from a person who has had the disease

39.

Many species of bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics because antibiotics have been so widely used. Now, bacteria that used to be killed by antibiotics are more difficult to treat. What is the best way to proceed in dealing with this public health problem?

a)

Antibiotics should no longer be used.

b)

Antibiotics should be made available to anyone without a prescription.

c)

Antibiotics should only be prescribed to people with bacterial infections.

d)

Anti-viral medications should now be used instead of antibiotics.

40.

While genetic engineering has positive benefits, there are also concerns associated with widespread use of genetic engineering in agriculture. If many farmers begin to plant more genetically modified crops that have an increased tolerance to insects, which of the following may result?

a)

an increase in the use of pesticides

b)

a decrease in genetic diversity of the crops

c)

an increase in the contamination of the water supply

d)

a decrease in crop productivity

41.

What kind of genetically modified crops would be most successful in wet-tropical countries that are overcrowded?

a)

crops that are drought- and pest-resistant

b)

high-yield crops that do not need a lot of sunshine

c)

high-yield crops that are pest-resistant

d)

crops that are drought-resistant and need a lot of sunshine

42.

Sperm are created through meiosis in an area of the testes called the seminiferous tubules. Through which structure do the sperm travel to exit the testes?

a)

vas deferens

b)

seminiferous tubules

c)

scrotum

d)

epididymis

43.

Which of the following is true of a zygote?

a)

It forms into a blastocyst

b)

It is an unfertilized egg

c)

It produces haploid male gametophytes

d)

it is a fertilized egg

44.

How does the predator-prey relationship affect a population?

a)

The predators and prey are in competition with each other.

b)

Usually either the predator or the prey will become extinct.

c)

The predator species usually has exponential growth.

d)

The relationship controls the population size of both species.

45.

When an environment has reached its carrying capacity for a certain population, which of the following is true?

a)

Growth and immigration rate is equal to death and emigration rate.

b)

Growth and immigration rate is greater than death and emigration rate.

c)

Growth and immigration rate is less than death and emigration rate.

d)

Growth rate is exponential.

46.

In a process called transpiration, plants get rid of excess water through pores in the leaves called stomata. This excess water is then released into the atmosphere as part of the water cycle. Which of the following terms best describes how the released water enters the atmosphere?

a)

condensation

b)

precipitation

c)

evaporation

d)

capillary action

47.

The framework of organic molecules essential to all organisms is composed mainly of carbon atoms. Which processes are involved in the cycling of carbon within an environment?

a)

photosynthesis and respiration

b)

evaporation and condensation

c)

transcription and translation

d)

diffusion and transpiration

48.

According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?

a)

commensalism

b)

inbreeding

c)

migration

d)

evolution by natural selection

49.

Which statement below most closely explains the link between jaw size and hominid evolution?

a)

The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time.

b)

The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time.

c)

There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.

d)

The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size.

50.

Organisms classified as fungi have unique characteristics. Which of the following characteristics is found only in organisms classified in the kingdom fungi?

a)

single cells without a nucleus

b)

multicellular with chloroplasts

c)

multicellular filaments that absorb nutrients

d)

colonies of single, photosynthetic cells that reproduce asexually

51.

Which kingdoms have photosynthetic organisms?

a)

fungi and plants

b)

fungi and protists

c)

protists and plants

d)

plants and animals

52.

Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?

a)

prokaryotic and aerobic

b)

prokaryotic and anaerobic

c)

eukaryotic and aerobic

d)

eukaryotic and anaerobic

53.

Over time, the climate of an island became drier, which resulted in changes to the populations of various island finch species. Finch populations with a certain beak shape thrived, while those not having that beak shape decreased. Which of the following describes a necessary condition for these changes in the finch populations to occur?

a)

fewer mutations

b)

limited food resources

c)

limited beak variations

d)

overproduction of offspring

54.

Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?

a)

An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully.

b)

A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate.

c)

A community whose members work together utilizing all existing resources and migratory routes.

d)

The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.

55.

Hitchhiker's thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhiker's thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhiker's thumb marries a man who is heterozygous for hitchhiker's thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?

a)

0% Hh: 100% hh

b)

50% Hh: 50% hh

c)

75% Hh: 25% hh

d)

100% Hh: 0% hh