WorksheetsST CH19
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 2hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The dermis and epidermis are components of which body system?
a)
cardiovascular
b)
integumentary
c)
musculoskeletal
d)
respiratory
2.
Which epidermal stratum is present only on the palms of hands and soles of feet?
a)
basale
b)
corneum
c)
granulosum
d)
lucidum
3.
Which epidermal stratum is the outermost layer?
a)
basale
b)
corneum
c)
granulosum
d)
lucidum
4.
Which of the following are oil-producing glands?
a)
apocrine
b)
ceruminous
c)
merocrine
d)
sebaceous
5.
What is the name of the oil that is secreted from glands in the skin?
a)
sebum
b)
septum
c)
sputum
d)
stratum
6.
Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax?
a)
apocrine
b)
ceruminous
c)
merocrine
d)
sebaceous
7.
How many degree classifications of skin burns are there?
a)
two
b)
three
c)
four
d)
five
8.
In which degree of skin burn does the tissue appear as pearly white or charred and will likely require debridement of eschar?
a)
first
b)
second
c)
third
d)
fourth
9.
Split-thickness skin grafts are used to cover which type of burned tissue?
a)
erythematous first-degree burns
b)
denuded areas of third-degree burns
c)
blistered superficial second-degree burns
d)
charred necrotic tissue in fourth-degree burns
10.
The rule of nines is used in burn patients to estimate:
a)
body surface area burned
b)
depth of tissue destruction
c)
length of estimated healing time
d)
protocols for burn dressing changes
11.
What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting?
a)
debridement
b)
defacement
c)
degradation
d)
dessication
12.
Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae?
a)
apocrine
b)
ceruminous
c)
merocrine
d)
sebaceous
13.
What does a mesh graft device do?
a)
It attaches a skin graft to the donor site.
b)
It expands the size of the skin graft.
c)
It slices a split thickness of donor skin.
d)
It smoothes the skin graft to prevent bunching up.
14.
Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?
a)
Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.
b)
Donor site is prepped last and considered contaminated.
c)
Recipient site is prepped first and considered contaminated.
d)
Recipient site is prepped last and considered clean.
15.
Any of the following may be used topically for hemostasis of the STSG donor site EXCEPT:
a)
epinephrine
b)
mineral oil
c)
phenylephrine
d)
thrombin
16.
Relaxation and hypertrophy of the eyelid skin is also known as:
a)
arthrodesis
b)
cheiloschisis
c)
dermachalasis
d)
micrognathia
17.
Cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following?
a)
breast prolapse
b)
cleft lip and palate
c)
conjoined fingers
d)
drooping and baggy eyelids
18.
Which term describes the palmar surface of the hand?
a)
dorsal
b)
radial
c)
volar
d)
ulnar
19.
Which term describes the thumb side of the hand?
a)
dorsal
b)
radial
c)
volar
d)
ulnar
20.
Which anatomical area is a TRAM flap used to reconstruct?
a)
breast
b)
hand
c)
lip
d)
palate
21.
For which procedure would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution?
a)
abdominoplasty
b)
liposuction
c)
mastopexy
d)
syndactyly release
22.
What is the term for webbed digits of the hand or foot?
a)
contracture
b)
dermachalasis
c)
polydactyly
d)
syndactyly
23.
Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the:
a)
breasts
b)
cheeks
c)
eyes
d)
nares
24.
Which procedure is performed for dermachalasis?
a)
abdominoplasty
b)
blepharoplasty
c)
mentoplasty
d)
otoplasty
25.
Which cosmetic procedure is performed for micrognathia?
a)
abdominoplasty
b)
blepharoplasty
c)
mentoplasty
d)
otoplasty
26.
The mandibular symphysis is better known as the:
a)
chin
b)
lower lip
c)
upper lip
d)
nasal septum
27.
The pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the:
a)
ear
b)
eye
c)
hand
d)
nose
28.
For which procedure would the surgical technologist possibly need a second setup for obtaining a costal cartilage graft?
a)
cleft lip repair
b)
otoplasty for microtia
c)
TRAM flap reconstruction
d)
fasciectomy for Dupuytren’s contracture
29.
Which type of scissors would most likely be used to trim a full-thickness skin graft (FTSG) to size?
a)
bandage
b)
Jorgenson
c)
reverse Potts
d)
tenotomy
30.
Which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration MOST commonly used for scar revision procedures?
a)
C
b)
H
c)
U
d)
Z
31.
Which type of incision is MOST frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure?
a)
elliptical
b)
oblique
c)
paramedian
d)
Z-shaped
32.
Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by:
a)
malar implants
b)
mastopexy
c)
mentoplasty
d)
marsupialization
33.
In which procedure would the procerus and corrugator muscles be ablated, avulsed, resected, or separated?
a)
augmentation mammoplasty
b)
tumescent liposuction
c)
endoscopic brow lift
d)
mentoplasty
34.
Which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift?
a)
blepharoplasty
b)
cheiloplasty
c)
mentoplasty
d)
rhytidectomy
35.
Which method of anesthesia is preferred for rhytidectomy procedures?
a)
Bier block
b)
epidural
c)
monitored (MAC)
d)
topical
36.
“Cupid’s bow” is reconstructed in which of the following procedures?
a)
cleft lip repair
b)
malar implants
c)
nipple recreation
d)
syndactyly release
37.
For which procedure would the surgeon require a sterile tattoo machine and inks?
a)
cleft lip repair
b)
endoscopic brow lift
c)
nipple reconstruction
d)
reduction mammoplasty
38.
A full-thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re-create which anatomic area?
a)
areola
b)
Cupid’s bow
c)
mammary crease
d)
umbilicus
39.
Crescent, Benelli, and Benelli-lollipop lifts are techniques used during:
a)
mastopexy
b)
rhinoplasty
c)
rhytidectomy
d)
blepharoplasty
40.
Anchor-shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure?
a)
centralization of radial dysplasia
b)
cheiloplasty
c)
mastopexy
d)
rhinoplasty
41.
Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren’s contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?
a)
Derma-carrier
b)
K-wires
c)
lead hand
d)
Senn retractors
42.
Which cranial nerve must NOT be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy?
a)
fifth (V)
b)
sixth (VI)
c)
seventh (VII)
d)
eighth (VIII)
43.
Which position should facial procedure patients maintain postoperatively to minimize edema?
a)
prone
b)
lateral
c)
strict supine
d)
head elevated
44.
When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?
a)
at conception
b)
first trimester
c)
second trimester
d)
third trimester
45.
Which type of suture would MOST likely be used during a cleft lip repair?
a)
fine absorbable
b)
heavy absorbable
c)
fine nonabsorbable
d)
heavy nonabsorbable
46.
Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand?
a)
carpals
b)
metacarpals
c)
phalanges
d)
radii
47.
Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers?
a)
20
b)
30
c)
40
d)
50
48.
Which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?
a)
median
b)
peroneal
c)
radial
d)
ulnar
49.
Which of the following order of steps for replantation of a digit is CORRECT?
a)
tendons, vessels, nerves, then bones
b)
nerves, vessels, bones, then tendons
c)
vessels, tendons, bones, then nerves
d)
bones, tendons, vessels, then nerves
50.
Vessel loops are available in all of the following colors EXCEPT:
a)
green
b)
red
c)
white
d)
yellow
51.
What suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe-to-thumb transfer procedure?
a)
horizontal mattress
b)
figure of eight
c)
purse-string
d)
vertical mattress
52.
Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of joint, eventually resulting in intentional bone fusion?
a)
anastomosis
b)
ankylosis
c)
arthrodesis
d)
arthroplasty
53.
What is the medical term for the congenital deformity commonly called “club hand”?
a)
carpal tunnel syndrome
b)
Dupuytren’s contracture
c)
polydactyly
d)
radial dysplasia
54.
A patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age?
a)
neonate
b)
12 months old
c)
10 years old
d)
21 years or older
55.
Which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is NOT correct?
a)
The condition mainly involves the carpal and metacarpal bones.
b)
The digits of the hands or feet may be involved.
c)
The fifth finger duplications are the most common.
d)
The duplication can be a partial digit or a complete additional digit.
56.
Before closure in augmentation mammoplasty, what is done to verify correct size?
a)
Permanent implants are placed, and the nipple-to-nipple distance is measured for symmetry.
b)
Permanent implants are placed and filled with measured amount of saline to determine volume.
c)
Temporary sizers are placed and filled with measured amounts of saline to determine volume.
d)
Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance.
57.
All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT:
a)
periareolar
b)
subclavicular
c)
axillary crease
d)
inframammary crease
58.
How would a transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous flap be classified?
a)
free-flap graft
b)
pedicle-flap graft
c)
full-thickness skin graft
d)
split-thickness skin graft
59.
Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?
a)
to prevent confusion because multiple surgeons will work simultaneously
b)
to prevent potential for retained foreign objects in the wounds
c)
to prevent overcrowding of the back table with multiple trays
d)
to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both
60.
Which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the graft remains intact?
a)
Doppler probe
b)
manometer
c)
pulse oximeter
d)
stethoscope
61.
Which of the following is NOT a type of liposuction?
a)
electrosurgery
b)
laser
c)
tumescent
d)
ultrasonic
62.
Which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure?
a)
transversus abdominis
b)
rectus abdominis
c)
latissimus dorsi
d)
pectoralis major
63.
Under which muscle is the pocket for breast implant often created for greatest support?
a)
internal oblique
b)
latissimus dorsi
c)
pectoralis major
d)
serratus anterior
64.
Which type of specialized retractor enhances visualization in many breast and abdominoplasty procedures?
a)
Bookwalter
b)
fiber-optic
c)
Greenberg
d)
Weitlaner
65.
Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved?
a)
free flap
b)
full thickness
c)
pedicle flap
d)
split thickness
66.
TRUE or FALSE. Plastic and reconstructive surgeries must be done only after an individual has stopped growing, due to potential changes in anatomy of younger patients.
a)
T
b)
F
67.
TRUE or FALSE. Patients with cleft palates may have difficulty sucking, swallowing, or forming sounds.
a)
T
b)
F
68.
TRUE or FALSE. Incisions made for endoscopic brow lifts and rhytidectomy are often placed within the hairline for camouflage.
a)
T
b)
F
69.
TRUE or FALSE. Abdominoplasty procedures cannot be performed on patients who have undergone cesarean sections, due to excessive adhesions in the lower abdomen.
a)
T
b)
F
70.
TRUE or FALSE. Severed digits should be kept tightly covered and warm to prevent clot formation and necrosis, preventing replantation.
a)
T
b)
F
71.
Type of dressing used for frequent dressing changes and wound assessment; prevents excoriation from tape application and removal
a)
Hypovolemia
b)
Montgomery straps
c)
Heterograft
d)
Caliper
e)
Aesthetic
72.
Severe blood and fluid loss, making it difficult for the heart to pump; post-op complication of aggressive liposuctioning
a)
Caliper
b)
Eschar
c)
Stratum
d)
Heterograft
e)
Hypovolemia
73.
Rapid side-to-side movement used for sharp dissection
a)
Oscillating
b)
Montgomery straps
c)
Stratum
d)
Aesthetic
e)
Caliper
74.
Tissue transplanted from another person or cadaver
a)
Heterograft
b)
Caliper
c)
Eschar
d)
Denuded
e)
Hypovolemia
75.
Distinct individual tissue layer
a)
Stratum
b)
Montgomery straps
c)
Aesthetic
d)
Caliper
76.
Dead tissue that sloughs off of healthy skin
a)
Heterograft
b)
Aesthetic
c)
Eschar
d)
Denuded
e)
Hypovolemia
77.
Excoriated tissue; loss of intact coverings
a)
Montgomery straps
b)
Hypovolemia
c)
Caliper
d)
Denuded
e)
Stratum
78.
Type of procedure performed to improve appearance rather than to strictly treat a pathological condition
a)
Caliper
b)
Aesthetic
c)
Heterograft
d)
Denuded
e)
Hypovolemia
79.
Type of drape designed to encase and cover the hair of the head
a)
Caliper
b)
Montgomery straps
c)
Hypovolemia
d)
Eschar
e)
Turban
80.
Device used to measure distance between two opposite sides
a)
Aesthetic
b)
Stratum
c)
Caliper
d)
Denuded
e)
Montgomery straps
100 %
