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Biology Final Review 2023

Total questions: 184

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The whiplike tail on some bacteria that help them move
a)
Nucleoid
b)
Pili
c)
Flagella
d)
Cilia
2.
Which statement about bacteria is true?
a)
All bacteria are prokaryotes
b)
All bacteria are eukaryotes
c)
All bacteria are autotrophs
d)
All bacteria are heterotrophs
3.
Bacteria cells share which of the following organelles in common with plant and animal cells?
a)
cell membrane, RER
b)
cell wall, mitochondria
c)
nucleus, ribosomes
d)
ribosomes, cytoplasm
4.
Bacteria have a cell membrane
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Some do, some don't
d)
Only in certain temperature conditions
5.
Which of the following IS found in a bacteria cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)

DNA

c)
Mitochondria
d)
RER
6.
Bacteria cells have all of the following EXCEPT which?
a)
mitochondria
b)
genetic material
c)
cell membrane
d)
ribosomes
7.
True or False:Bacteria cells have more organelles than plant and animal cells
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Trick question- it depends on the type of bacteria
8.

Another word for microbe is

a)

gross stuff

b)

cells

c)

microscopic organism

d)

hair

9.

Bacteria divides into two identical cells through the process of....

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

binary fission

c)

spore production

10.

What do we call an environment free of bacteria?

a)

infected

b)

empty

c)

sterile

d)

clean

11.
What type of organism can be found in extreme environments such as hot springs?
a)
viruses
b)
archaea 
c)
eukaryotes
d)
None of these
12.

The three possible methods of genetic recombination are... (Honors)

a)

Transformation, translation, conjugation

b)

Conjugation, transformation, transduction

c)

Transduction, transformation, translation

d)

Reflection, translation, conjugation

13.

Antibiotics only work against what organisms ?

a)

viruses

b)

bacteria

c)

prions

14.
What is the first step of the virus reproduction cycle?
a)
The viruses genetic material (DNA) starts to take over the functions of the cell
b)
The host cell bursts open, releasing the new viruses
c)
The virus injects its genetic material into the cell
d)
A virus attaches to the surface of a host cell
15.
What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...
a)

have DNA

b)
have chloroplasts
c)
use glucose for cellular respiration
d)
have endoplasmic reticulum
16.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
17.

What is in the center of the virus?

a)

Nucleic Acids (RNA or DNA)

b)

Nucleus

c)

Capsid

d)

Glycoproteins (surface markers)

18.

Protects the genome of a virus. Made out of protein.

a)

Capsid

b)

Nucleus

c)

Glycoproteins (surface markers)

d)

Nucleic Acids (DNA or RNA)

19.
Which statement regarding viruses is true?
a)
a virus can only reproduce inside of a living cell
b)
viruses do not contain DNA
c)
viruses are unicellular
d)
viruses are generally larger than cells
20.
Which best describes the basic structure of a virus?
a)
nucleic acid strand surrounded by a protein coat
b)
a tail surrounded by a protein coat
c)
a tail surrounded by a carbohydrate coat
d)
nucleic acid strand surrounded by a carbohydrate coat
21.

Which of the following processes brings about an exchange of genetic information between two live bacterial cells?

a)
binary fission
b)
mutulaism
c)
conjugation
d)
replication
22.
Transduction occurs when ________________.
a)
None of these.
b)
a virus injects DNA into the bacterium.
c)
a plasmid is transferred from one bacteria to another.
d)
bacteria take up DNA from the environment.
23.

Transformation occurs when ________________.

a)

None of these.

b)

a virus injects DNA into the bacterium.

c)

a plasmid is transferred from one bacteria to another.

d)

bacteria take up DNA from the environment.

24.

Which type of microbe is the smallest?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Fungi

d)

Protists

25.
The bacteria that causes bubonic plague is transmitted to human by fleas. Which term BEST describes the role of the fleas in transmitting bubonic plague?
a)
vector
b)
air
c)
decomposer
d)
pathogen
26.

A paleontologist studying whale bones is an example of which type of science?

a)

Observational Science

b)

Historical Science

c)

Mechanical Science

d)

Physical Science

27.

Looking at rock layers to make a timeline is an example of which type of science?

a)

Observational Science

b)

Historical Science

c)

Mechanical Science

d)

Physical Science

28.

Analyzing the migration patterns of geese is an example of which type of science?

a)

Observational Science

b)

Historical Science

c)

Mechanical Science

d)

Physical Science

29.

Conducting a medical trial of COVID19 patients is an example of which type of science?

a)

Observational Science

b)

Historical Science

c)

Mechanical Science

d)

Physical Science

30.

Which of the following types of evolution involve small changes within kinds of animals?

a)

microevolution

b)

macroevolution

c)

midevolution

d)

higherevolution

31.

Moth wing colors changing in a population of western tent moths in response to their environment is an example of which type of evolution?

a)

microevolution

b)

macroevolution

c)

midevolution

d)

higherevolution

32.

The lineage of land mammals to whales is an example of which type of evolution?

a)

microevolution

b)

macroevolution

c)

midevolution

d)

higherevolution

33.

Changes from one kind to another kind over a long period of time refers to which type of evolution?

a)

microevolution

b)

macroevolution

c)

midevolution

d)

higherevolution

34.

Which of the following creationists deny that microevolution takes place?

a)

TE

b)

OEC

c)

YEC

d)

all of the above believe microevolution takes place

35.

Which of the following believe that all of life came from a single-celled organism?

a)

microevolutionist

b)

macroevolutionist

c)

midevolutionist

d)

Young Earth Creationist

36.

Which of the following believe that a global flood occurred?

a)

TE

b)

OEC

c)

YEC

d)

OEC and YEC

37.

Which of the following believe that man was specially created?

a)

TE

b)

OEC

c)

YEC

d)

OEC and YEC

38.

Which of the following believe that macroevolution occurred for plants, animals, AND man?

a)

TE

b)

OEC

c)

YEC

d)

OEC and YEC

39.

Which of the following believe that the earth is around 4 billion years old?

a)

TE

b)

OEC

c)

YEC

d)

OEC and TE

40.

What is the name macroevolutionists give to the man that all humans can trace their lineage to?

a)

chromosomal Adam

b)

mitochondrial Adam

c)

X-Adam

d)

autosomal Adam

41.

What is the name macroevolutionists give to the woman that all humans can trace their lineage to?

a)

chromosomal Eve

b)

mitochondrial Eve

c)

X-Eve

d)

autosomal Eve

42.

What is the history of man's evolution called?

a)

Ape lineage

b)

Hominid lineage

c)

chimpanzee hierarchy

d)

Homo sapien timeline

43.

Which one affects more genes?

a)

Genetic disorder

b)

Chromosomal abnormality

c)

Sickle Cell Disorder

d)

Huntington's Disease

44.

Which chromosomal abnormality involves missing a section of a chromosome?

a)

Deletion

b)

Translocation

c)

Duplication

d)

Inversion

45.

Which chromosomal abnormality describes a piece of a chromosome detaching, flipping, and reattaching?

a)

Deletion

b)

Translocation

c)

Duplication

d)

Inversion

46.

Which chromosomal abnormality describes a piece of a chromosome that has been copied to lengthen the chromosome?

a)

Deletion

b)

Translocation

c)

Duplication

d)

Inversion

47.

Which chromosomal abnormality describes a piece of a chromosome that has broken off and attached to a different chromosome?

a)

Deletion

b)

Translocation

c)

Duplication

d)

Inversion

48.

Which of the following is most likely to increase the occurrence of chromosomal abnormalities?

a)

paternal age

b)

maternal age

c)

age of the child

d)

time of year

49.

Which of the following mean that you have 47 chromosomes?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Trisomy 13

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

50.

Which of the following mean that you have 45 chromosomes?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Trisomy 13

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

51.

Mistakes in copying DNA always result in

a)

mutations

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

birth defects

d)

neurological disorders

52.

A strand of DNA that reads "TAGCT" is copied and the result is "TGCT". What genetic mutation has occurred?

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

53.

A strand of DNA that reads "TAGCT" is copied and the result is "TAGGCT". What genetic mutation has occurred?

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

54.

A strand of DNA that reads "TAGCT" is copied and the result is "TCGCT". What genetic mutation has occurred?

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

55.

Which disorder causes dwarfism?

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle Cell Disease

c)

PKU

d)

Achondroplasia

56.

Achondroplasia and Huntington's Disease are both

a)

neurological disorders (affect the brain)

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

X-linked traits

57.

Sickle Cell Disease and Cystic Fibrosis are both

a)

blood disorders

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

X-linked traits

58.

Which of the following is a recessive blood disorder?

a)

Achondroplasia

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Sickle Cell Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

59.

Which of the following is a disorder that causes a thick mucous to coat your lungs and other organs?

a)

Achondroplasia

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Sickle Cell Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

60.

What happens when someone is homozygous dominant for Achondroplasia? (H)

a)

Their kids won't have the disorder

b)

Half of their kids will have the disorder

c)

They won't make it to birth

d)

They will be extra-short

61.

Out of the children of a couple that has achondroplasia, what percentage of their children will NOT have the disorder?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

100%

d)

25%

62.

Which of the following disorders only require one mutated allele in order to have symptoms of the disease?

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Sickle Cell Disease

d)

Turner syndrome

63.

What disorder causes issues to your nervous system, and you might not know about it until you turn 35-40.

a)

Sickle Cell Disease

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

PKU

d)

Huntington's Disease

64.

How do you avoid the symptoms of PKU if you have it?

a)

go on a special diet for your whole life

b)

there is no cure

c)

eat lots of protein

d)

take medicine

65.

What disease causes your blood cells to be misshaped, preventing oxygen from getting to other parts of your body?

a)

Sickle Cell Disease

b)

PKU

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Turner's Syndrome

66.

Which disorder means that you are a female who is missing an X chromosome?

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Trisomy 13

c)

Turner syndrome

d)

PKU

67.
Which genotype represents a sickle cell carrier? (Remember it is recessive)
a)
SS
b)
ss
c)
Ss
68.
Which genotype represents a patient that suffers from sickle cell disease? (it is recessive)
a)
ss
b)
Ss
c)
SS
d)
sy
69.

If a disease or gene is recessive, then how many alleles must you have to be affected?

a)

1

b)

2

70.
Two healthy parents have a child with CF. What is the best explanation?
a)
Not the result of a genetic disorder.
b)
Both parents carry the recessive gene.
c)
CF is a chromosomal mutation and not related to parental genotypes.
d)
CF is caused by a mutation in pair 21.
71.
Following the detection of PKU in an infant, the treatment used in order to prevent brain damage is ___.
a)
injection of missing enzymes
b)
physical therapy
c)
blood transfusions
d)
dietary adjustments
72.

One parent has Cystic Fibrosis and the other one is only a carrier. What are the chances that their offspring will have the disorder as well?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

73.

If both parents are heterozygous for Huntington's Disease, what are the chances that their offspring will have the disease?

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

75%

d)

100%

74.

SpongeBob is heterozygous for his square shape, He marries SpongeSuzie who is round, which is a recessive trait. If they had a child, what is the chance the child would be square in shape?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

75.

SpongeBob is heterozygous for his square shape, He marries SpongeSuzie who is round, which is a recessive trait. List the following genotypes for their children.

a)

Round

b)

Square

c)

Ss or ss

d)

ss or SS

76.
Mr. Krabbs is homozygous for his tall eyeballs, while his wife is heterozygous for her tall eyeballs.  What is the genotype of Mr. Krabbs?
a)
Tall Eyeballs
b)
TT
c)
Tt
77.
The genotype "TT" is ___
a)
Heterozygous
b)
Homozygous
78.
The genotype "ff" is ____
a)
Heterozygous
b)
Homozygous
79.
Pink body color (P) is dominant to yellow (p).  The genotype of the recessive yellow body is:
a)
PP
b)
Pp
c)
pp
80.

Why did Darwin finally publish his results?

a)

He wanted to go on another voyage and the only way to do that was to show he found something during his first one.

b)

He needed to make money and thought that his book would be a huge success.

c)

His daughter found his book and told him that he need to publish it.

d)

A friend of his, Alfred Wallace, sent him a document with similar findings. Also, Captain Fitzroy published his account of the voyage.

81.

Who is credited with the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a)

Darwin

b)

Mendel

c)

Lyell

d)

Aristotle

82.

Sent Darwin an essay with similar ideas as what Darwin proposed. Had his own theory of natural selection.

a)

Malthus

b)

Hutton

c)

Lyell

d)

Lamarck

e)

Wallace

83.

This scientists proposed one of the first theories of evolution. Organisms can acquire traits over their lifetime.

a)

Malthus

b)

Hutton

c)

Lyell

d)

Lamarck

e)

Wallace

84.

Wrote the book "On the Origin of Species"

a)

Charles Lyell

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Malthus

d)

Wallace

85.

Which organisms are the most fit, in terms of natural selection?

a)

the ones that can survive and reproduce

b)

the ones that survive

c)

the strongest

d)

the ones that can reproduce the most kids

86.
What do paleontologists study?
a)
space
b)
fossils
c)
atmosphere
d)
weather
87.

1. The process of choosing parent organisms for desired characteristics is called

a)

natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

random selection

d)

genetic manipulation

88.

Darwin's phrase for evolution

a)

microevolution

b)

Descent with modification

c)

macroevolution

d)

Common Ancestry

89.

A paleontologist studying whale bones is an example of which type of science?

a)

Observational Science

b)

Historical Science

c)

Mechanical Science

d)

Physical Science

90.

Conducting a medical trial of COVID19 patients is an example of which type of science?

a)

Observational Science

b)

Historical Science

c)

Mechanical Science

d)

Physical Science

91.

Which of the following is not in the recipe for natural selection?

a)

Ability for the species to increase in number

b)

abundance resources

c)

competition

d)

genetic variety

92.

A bird has an extra sharp beak compared to other members of its species. In terms of survival, the beak might be considered a(n) _______.

a)

homology

b)

burden

c)

natural selection

d)

adaptation

93.

Which is the oldest of these four species?

a)

Australopithecines

b)

Tool-making hominins

c)

Neanderthals

d)

Homo sapiens

94.

According to the theory of evolution, which of the following statements is true?

a)

Humans evolved from chimpanzees

b)

Chimpanzees evolved from humans

c)

There is no evolutionary relationship between humans and chimpanzees

d)

Humans and chimps evolved from common ancestors

95.

Modern whales date back to the beginning of which era?

a)

Miocene

b)

Jurassic

c)

Eocene

d)

Cambrian

96.

What is the era possible whale ancestors like the fossil Pakicetus were found in?

a)

Miocene

b)

Jurassic

c)

Eocene

d)

Cambrian

97.

Which of the following was the first hominid to use tools?

a)

Homo neanderthalensis

b)

Homo erectus

c)

Homo habilis

d)

Australopithecus

98.

Which of the following was the first hominid to leave Africa?

a)

Homo neanderthalensis

b)

Homo erectus

c)

Homo habilis

d)

Australopithecus

99.

Which of the following is the genus Lucy belongs to?

a)

Sapiens

b)

Paranthropus

c)

Homo

d)

Australopithecus

100.

Where did our earliest ancestors live?

a)

Asia

b)

Africa

c)

North America

d)

Middle East

101.

What was the name of the most important hominid fossil ever discovered?

a)

Francis

b)

Lucy

c)

George

d)

Frank

102.
Dogs such as Chihuahuas are examples of....
a)
Artificial Selection 
b)
Natural Selection 
c)
Mutations 
103.

Observational science uses which of the following?

a)

fossils

b)

archaeology

c)

scientific method

d)

clues from the past

104.

What does TE stand for?

a)

Theistic Evolution

b)

Theoretical Evolution

c)

Teleological Extinction

d)

Theistic Extinction

105.

What does OEC stand for?

a)

Original Evolutionary Creation

b)

Original Earth Creationism

c)

Old Earth Creationism

d)

Old Evolution Creatures

106.

What does YEC stand for?

a)

Young Evolutionary Creatures

b)

Young Earth Creationism

c)

Young Earth Creatures

d)

Young Early Creationists

107.

What does ID stand for?

a)

Inference Demand

b)

Ill Deceit

c)

International Deception

d)

Intelligent Design

108.

Which of the following is NOT part of a neuron?

a)

dendrite

b)

axon

c)

cell body

d)

medulla oblongata

109.
What is number 1?
a)
dendrite 
b)
axon
c)
cell body
d)
myelin sheath
110.
What is number 5?
a)
cell body
b)
nucleus
c)
axon terminal
d)
synapes
111.
The corpus callosum
a)
Manages our understanding of speech and language
b)
cannot process messages sent from the left hand
c)
is a deep fissure in the cerebral cortex
d)
is a thick band of nerve fibres linking the two hemispheres of the brain
112.
Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
113.
If a head injury results in someone no longer being able to hear, which part of the brain may have been damaged?
a)
temporal lobe
b)
occipital lobe
c)
parietal lobe
d)
frontal lobe
114.
Which of the four lobes is typically responsible for receiving and processing auditory information?
a)
frontal
b)
parietal
c)
occipital
d)
temporal
115.
Which of the following is a function of the occipital lobe?
a)

processes visual information

b)

spacial mapping

c)

hearing

d)
taste
116.
The parietal lobe controls __________.
a)
Vision
b)
Problem Solving
c)
Memory
d)
Sense of touch, pain, pressure
117.
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
occipital
d)
parietal
118.
What functions does this lobe carry out?
a)
Hearing and auditory processing
b)
Vision and visual processing
c)
Processing fear
d)
Judgment, impulse control, planning, problem solving, and other executive functions
119.
This lobe receives and processes visual information and then sends it to other parts of the brain for further processing and storage.
a)
Occipital Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Temporal Lobe
d)
Frontal Lobe
120.
Controls hearing, and language comprehension
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
121.
Which of the following is represented by the PINK section?
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Parietal Lobe
d)
 Occipital Lobe
122.

A hit here can often make you see starts

a)

cerbellum

b)

occipital lobe

c)

frontal lobe

d)

temporal lobe

123.

Without this lobe, knowing left from right is pretty hard.

a)

temporal lobe

b)

frontal lobe

c)

parietal lobe

d)

occipital lobe

124.

This lobe helps store long term memories.

a)

temporal lobe

b)

brain stem

c)

occipital lobe

d)

frontal lobe

125.

what is the red lobe?

a)

pariteal

b)

occipital

c)

cerebellum

d)

temporal

126.

what is the green lobe?

a)

temporal

b)

frontal

c)

parietal

d)

cerebellum

127.

Which of these does not protect the brain?

a)

skull

b)

meninges

c)

cerebro-spinal fluid

d)

medulla oblongata

128.
Processes visual information
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
129.

Which is the innermost meninge?

a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Pia mater
d)
Cranial mater
130.

Which is the outermost meninge?

a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Pia mater
d)
Cranial mater
131.

Which is the middle meninge?

a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Pia mater
d)
Cranial mater
132.
What are the layers of membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord known as?
a)
Ventricles
b)
Meninges
c)
Choroid Plexus
d)
Hippocampus
133.
What is the name of the fluid that protects and helps nourish the central nervous system?
a)
Blinker fluid
b)
CNS fluid
c)
Cerebrospinal fluid
d)
Vital fluid
134.
Which of the following does blood brain barrier prevent from getting to the brain?
a)
Pia mater
b)
Cerebrospinal fluid
c)
Oxygen
d)
Pathogens
135.

Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum.

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Thalamus

d)

Occipital

136.

Which brain part influences body temperature, water balance, and metabolism by telling the pituitary gland to release hormones?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Thalamus

c)

Occipital Lobe

d)

Hypothalamus

137.

Which brain part provides involuntary coordination of body movements, promoting balance?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Frontal Lobe

c)

Pons

d)

Thalamus

138.

Which brain function is the pons involved with?

a)

Controlling heart rate

b)

Receiving sensory information

c)

Regulates body temperature

d)

Controlling breathing

139.

Which structure includes more than half of the brain's mass?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Diencephalon

140.

What is the function of the midbrain?

a)

Controls breathing

b)

motor control, vision and hearing, sleep and wakefulness

c)

Sends impulses to skeletal muscle

d)

Provides involuntary coordination of body movements

141.

Which part of the brain controls heart rate, regulates blood pressures, and is involved in breathing, swallowing, and vomiting?

a)

Medulla Oblongata

b)

Thalamus

c)

Midbrain

d)

Cerebellum

142.

Which color represents the cerebellum?

a)

Blue

b)

Pink

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

143.

Which structure connects the brain and the spinal cord?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Brain stem

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Cerebrum

144.

Which of the following is a relay station for most of the brain?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Pons

d)

Occipital

145.

Which of the following help the left and right hemispheres of the cerebrum communicate?

a)

hindbrain

b)

corpus callosum

c)

pons

d)

amygdala

146.

Which of the following is involved with any fear response?

a)

hindbrain

b)

corpus callosum

c)

pons

d)

amygdala

147.

Which of the following is involved with short term memory?

a)

hippocampus

b)

corpus callosum

c)

pons

d)

amygdala

148.

What is on the surface of the brain in this picture?

a)

meninges

b)

spinal cord

c)

sulci

d)

gyri

149.

A is

a)

olfactory bulb

b)

optic nerve

c)

sulci

d)

guri

150.

L is

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

celebellum

d)

cerebrum

151.

M is

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

celebellum

d)

cerebrum

152.

D is

a)

pituitary gland

b)

spinal cord

c)

pons

d)

midbrain

e)

medulla oblongata

153.

E is

a)

pituitary gland

b)

spinal cord

c)

pons

d)

midbrain

e)

medulla oblongata

154.

A is

a)

white matter

b)

gray matter

155.
a)

brain stem

b)

cerebellum

c)

cerebrum

d)

pons

156.

a)

cerebellum

b)

cerebrum

c)

brain stem

157.

a)

brain stem

b)

cerebellum

c)

cerebrum

158.

a)

corpus callosum

b)

fornix

c)

lateral ventricle

d)

3rd ventricle

159.

a)

frontal lobe

b)

occipital lobe

c)

temporal lobe

d)

parietal lobe

160.

a)

parietal lobe

b)

occipital lobe

c)

temporal lobe

d)

frontal lobe

161.

a)

temporal lobe

b)

frontal lobe

c)

lateral lobe

d)

occipital lobe

162.

G is

a)

pituitary gland

b)

spinal cord

c)

pons

d)

midbrain

e)

medulla oblongata

163.
I have 2 X chromosomes. What am I?
a)
Male
b)
Female
164.
I have 1 X chromosome and 1 Y chromosome. What am I?
a)
Male
b)
Female
165.
If a trait shows up more commonly in men than women it is probably
a)
not inherited
b)
on the x chromosome and dominant
c)
on the x chromosome and recessive
d)
on a normal body chromosome
166.
If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked recessive trait of hemophilia and her husband has hemophilia, which of the following is true
a)
All sons will have hemophilia
b)
all daughters will have hemophilia
c)
50% of daughters and 50% of sons have hemophilia
d)
100% of sons have hemophilia and 100% of daughters are carriers
167.
Why are men 16 times more likely to be color-blind than women?
a)
to be color-blind, you must have a Y chromosome
b)
to be color-blind, all of your X chromosomes must have the gene
c)
color-blindness is caused by testosterone
d)
color-blindness is caused by the same gene as baldness
168.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
169.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
c)
Mendelian Inheritance
d)
Homozygous Inheritance
170.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
171.
How many PAIRS of chromosomes do humans have?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
1
d)
2
172.
 Dominant alleles are-
a)
capital
b)
lowercase
c)
both
d)
neither
173.
 Recessive alleles are-
a)
capital
b)
lowercase
c)
both
d)
neither
174.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
175.

AA

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

176.

Blue eyes

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

177.
How many cells are produced in Mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
178.

In what phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the center of the cell?

a)

Telophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Interphase

179.

In what phase of mitosis do chromotids move to opposite sides of the cell?

a)

Early prophase

b)

Late prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

180.

The division of cytoplasm is called cytokenisis

a)

True

b)

False

181.

What are the 4 stages of mitosis in order?

a)

Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase

b)

Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Prophase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase

182.
The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
None of the above
183.
The structure labeled A is a(n)
a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
184.

The cycle in which cells undergo growth and rest

a)
Cell Cycle
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis

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