wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MI EOC Review

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
In an ELISA assay, ________ and ________ are added to facilitate a color change.
a)
antibodies and antigens
b)
primary antibodies and secondary antibodies
c)
enzymes and substrates
d)
antigen and enzymes
2.
Sue Smith was inflicted with 
a)
viral meningitis
b)
mononucleosis
c)
bacterial meningitis
d)
influenza H1N1
3.
Which of the following most definitively identifies a pathogen during an epidemic?
a)
Consensus of the symptoms of those that are affected.
b)
Presence or absence of a rash.
c)
Response to antibiotics.
d)
DNA sequencing.
4.

A sample of spinal fluid is taken from a college student suspected to have contracted spinal meningitis.Which diagnostic test will confirm the diagnosis fastest?

a)

Culturing the spinal fluid and testing for bacterial colony growth in a Petri dish.

b)

An ELISA Assay to determine the presence of menigitis antigens.

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

Protein Chromatography

5.

The role of an antibody is to

a)

Mark antigens for destruction

b)

Provide a weapon that will stick to and invade surrounding cells

c)

To attack your own body

d)

Promote and attract potential pathogens

6.

The collection, classification, storage and analysis of biochemical and biological information using computers, especially as applied to molecular genetics and genomics is known as which of the following?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

Immunological assay

d)

ELISA

7.

A doctor orders an ELISA test for two patients. The results show a color change from clear to blue. Patient A results are a dark blue while the results for patient B are a light blue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Patient A is more infected

b)

Patient B is more infected

c)

The patients are infected equally

d)

Neither patient is infected

8.
If a bacterium has a thick cell wall and stains purple it is
a)
gram positive
b)
gram negative
9.
If a bacteria receives DNA from a viral vector, the process is called 
a)
conjugation
b)
transduction
c)
transformation
d)
viral infusion
10.
The pilus serves the bacteria in two ways. Those two ways are
a)
attachment and reproduction
b)
attachment and protection
c)
protection and reproduction
d)
 attachment and antibiotic reisistance
11.
This image depicts a bacteria acquiring genetic material from a dead bacteria cell ,what is taking place here?
a)
conjugation
b)
transformation
c)
transduction
d)
genetic acquisition
12.

Which scan does not pose the risk of radiation exposure?

a)

MRI

b)

CT scan

c)

X-ray

d)

Bone scan

13.

Noninvasive technique that uses electromagnetic radiation to produce two-dimensional images of dense tissues

a)

MRI

b)

CT scan

c)

X-ray

d)

Bone scan

14.

Noninvasive technique that produces cross-sectional images of dense tissues

a)

MRI

b)

X-Ray

c)

CT scan

d)

Bone scan

15.

Stopping of cell growth when cells touch one another

a)

Tumor inhibition

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Contact inhibition

d)

Replicative senescence

16.

Something that increases susceptibility

a)

Carcinogen

b)

Risk factor

c)

"Bad" gene

d)

Genetic mutation

17.

Programmed cell death

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Metastasis

c)

Oncogene

d)

Nuclear blebbing

18.

Removal and examination of cells, tissues, or fluids

a)

Metastasis

b)

Biopsy

c)

Pathology

d)

MRI

19.

Malignant tumor

a)

Cancer

b)

Risk factor

c)

Oncogene

d)

Proto-oncogene

20.

Gene having potential to cause a normal cell to become cancerous

a)

Tumor suppressor gene

b)

Oncogene

c)

Proto-oncogene

d)

Risk factor

21.

Gene that inhibits cell division

a)

Tumor suppressor gene

b)

Proto-oncogene

c)

Oncogene

d)

Risk factor

22.

Spreading of cancer

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Metastasis

c)

Biopsy

d)

Oncogene

23.
From where does Taq polymerase come?
a)
Bacteria that live in hydrothermal vents/hot springs.
b)
Cambodia
c)
The rain forest
d)
The CDC
24.

2.1.1 Type of genetic testing that would be most appropriate for parents planning to have children and have a recessive disorder in their family. The parents would like to know the probability that they may pass the disorder on to their future child.

a)

Diagnostic testing

b)

Prenatal testing

c)

Diagnostic testing

d)

Carrier testing (genotyping)

25.
This karyotype shows a
a)
Normal female
b)
Normal male
c)
Down
Down's  Syndrome Female
d)
Down's Syndrome Male
26.

The alteration of the genes of a person afflicted with a genetic disease is known as _____________.

a)

a point mutation

b)

a vector

c)

gene therapy

d)

Biotechnology

27.

What is the best definition of a vector?

a)

a quantity that has magnitude and direction. It is represented by an arrow.

b)

an organism/virus that transmits a pathogen or nucleic acid from itself to another.

c)

a person's name

d)

a DNA particle that is transferred from one organism to the next.

28.

A procedure in which games are fertilized in a dish in the lab and the resulting zygote is implanted in the uterus for development is called

a)

In vivo fertilization

b)

In uteri fertilization

c)

In vitro fertilization

d)

Cloning

29.

Which characteristic cannot be determined by a fetal ultrasound

a)

Structural abnormalities

b)

Heartbeat

c)

Fetal size

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

30.

Which of the following is both a characteristic of CVS and amniocentesis

a)

Performed later in pregnancy

b)

Involves removing cells from the placenta

c)

Miscarriage is the primary risk

d)

Detects chromosomal abnormalities

31.

Which procedure involves removing a single cell from an embryo to determine gender

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Chorionic villus sampling

c)

Carrier screening

d)

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis

32.

Which technique involves an ultrasound guiding a long, thin needle through the abdomen to collect fluid around the fetus

a)

amniocentesis

b)

carrier screening

c)

chorionic villus sampling

d)

newborn screening

33.

What is the role of insulin in the body?

a)

To signal the body to store sugar

b)

to signal the body to release sugar

c)

to signal the body to produce glucagon

d)

to signal the pancreas to start releasing enzymes

34.

Bacteria will pick up stray bacteria and incorporate it into its genome through the process of:

a)

conjugation

b)

transformation

c)

translocation

d)

binary fission

35.

Genes can be cut out of human or plant DNA & placed into bacteria in small rings of DNA called:

a)

mRNA

b)

SNP

c)

Plasmid

d)

Nucleotides

36.

What does the GFP gene give to E. Coli?

a)

Ability to glow

b)

ability to replicate

c)

ability to survive ampicillin treatment

d)

ability to cause disease

37.

Kevin is 40 years old and his cells are not sensitive to the insulin that his pancreas makes. Kevin has:

a)

type 1 diabetes

b)

type 2 diabetes

38.

Column Chromatography separates protein fragments based on?

a)

Protein size

b)

secondary protein structure

c)

salt concentration

d)

Regions of polarity (hydrophobic/hydrophilic)

39.

Which uses an outside device to filer blood?

a)

Peritoneal dialysis

b)

Hemodialysis

40.

What type of dialysis is more commonly done at home?

a)

Hemodialysis

b)

Peritoneal dialysis

41.

The possible genotype for a phenotype A blood are...

a)

AA, AO

b)

AA

c)

AA, AB, AO

d)

AA, OO

42.
What blood type is the universal donor (can donate to any blood type)?
a)
O+
b)
O-
c)
AB+
d)
AB-
43.
What antigens are present in a person with AB- blood?
a)
A, B, and Rh
b)
Rh, only
c)
A and B
d)
No antigens
44.

The act of sewing parts of living body is called...

a)

Stapling

b)

OPO

c)

Suturing

45.

The testing of testing of tissue and bloods is called...

a)

Crossmatching

b)

Haplotyping

c)

Antibodies

46.

A suitable donor for a heart should have all the following in common with the recipient except:

a)

matching blood type

b)

matching gender

c)

matching organ tissue

d)

matching size

47.

Which of the following people might be turned down for a heart transplant?

a)

A person who has a very damaged heart.

b)

A person who has no other health issues.

c)

A person who is 70 years old.

d)

A person who has put their name on the list for a heart transplant.

48.

An anesthetic is a medication that will make the patient

a)

susceptible

b)

unconscious

c)

immune

d)

incompatible

49.

Living donor kidney can last about

a)

20 to 35 years

b)

20 to 35 weeks

c)

20 to 35 months

d)

20 to 35 days

50.

Celebrities and wealthy people on the waiting list receive priority for receiving an organ.

a)

true

b)

false

51.

It is against federal law to sell organs, eye and tissues.

a)

true

b)

false

52.

What is the main function of the kidney?

a)

Remove urine from the body

b)

To add salt to blood

c)

Maintain water balance of the body

d)

To break down proteins

53.

Kidney failure can be treated by...

a)

Dialysis

b)

Removing all kidneys

c)

Kidney transplant

d)

Radiotherapy

54.
When sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate, these vibrations are immediately passed on to the_________.
a)
outer ear and ear canal
b)
inner ear
c)
tiny hairs
d)
three small bones in the middle ear
55.
What happens in the inner ear? 
a)
Sound waves are captured.
b)
Sound waves move deeper into the ear. 
c)
Sound waves are reflected.
d)
Sound waves are converted into nerve impulses.
56.
What is #19?
a)
Semicircular Canals
b)
Ear Canal
c)
Auditory Nerve
d)
Cochlea
57.

Which of the following interventions is important for someone with profound hearing loss?

a)

Hearing Aid

b)

Cochlear Implant

c)

Loud doorbells

d)

FM Systems

58.

Which of the following is a diagnostic test for hearing?

a)

Rinne Test

b)

ELISA

c)

Binnet Test

d)

Cochlear Test

59.

This person has

a)

Mild loss in both ears

b)

Profound hearing loss is both ears

c)

Difficulty hearing low sounds in his right ear only

d)

Difficulty hearing high pitched sounds in both ears.

60.

Which expression is equivalent to √147 ?

a)

3√7

b)

7√3

c)

21√7

d)

49√3

61.

What is epidemiology

a)

Study of internal disease

b)

Method used to find the causes of health outcomes and diseases in populations

c)

Study design where participants take a placebo medication

d)

Study of vaccinations

62.

What is Herd Immunity?

a)

When a group of animals become immune to an illness

b)

The number of people someone with an infection can possibly spread the illness to

c)

Becoming immune to a vaccine and having it not work

d)

When a large amount of people protect those who haven't gotten vaccinated

63.

The process by which a DNA molecule is made from two different sources is called

a)

Vaccine

b)

Plasmid

c)

Viral DNA

d)

Recombinant DNA

64.

Which pedigree is showing a RECESSIVE inheritance pattern?

a)
b)

Similar Resources on Wayground

IPA TERPADU KELAS 7

60 questions

IPA TERPADU KELAS 7

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

ATMOSPHERE TEST BY POPS

65 questions

ATMOSPHERE TEST BY POPS

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

The Origin and Structure of the Earth

60 questions

The Origin and Structure of the Earth

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

Révision examen Module 2

65 questions

Révision examen Module 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

The Nervous system

62 questions

The Nervous system

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 10th Grade

Electricity

64 questions

Electricity

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

GRADE 9 FIRST SEMESTER SCIENCE FINAL EXAM REVISION TEST

68 questions

GRADE 9 FIRST SEMESTER SCIENCE FINAL EXAM REVISION TEST

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade