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MedNeuro Summative

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Neurons mostly complete during the...

a)

1st trimester

b)

2nd trimester

c)

3rd trimester

d)

Birth

2.

Infants with IUGR have a 15% rate of mild neurodevelopmental abnormalities characterized by ____ disabilities

a)

Motor

b)

Sensory

c)

Cognitive

d)

Language

3.

The following are true about food variety EXCEPT

a)

Important for pregnant woman and her child to have variety of foods

b)

Diet with variety of foods help maintain a balanced combination of brain messenger and also keeps the mood from being skewed

c)

It is influenced by fatty acids

d)

Food variety will give complex combination of compound and stimulates the release of neurotransmitters

4.

Which nutrient corresponds to D?

a)

Protein-energy

b)

Iron

c)

Zinc

d)

Copper

e)

LC-PUFAs

5.

Thiamine deficiency in babies causes the following EXCEPT

a)

loss of sense of vibration

b)

meningitis

c)

irritable

d)

vomit

6.

Deficiency in vitamin ___ causes memory loss, depression, and dementia in elderlies

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.

Group F was assigned to finish a project for MedNeuro. The due date is in 2 days, so they decided to discuss the project over zoom. Which association area is responsible for brainstorming?

a)

Posterior association area

b)

Limbic association area

c)

Prefrontal association area

8.

After doing 6 summas in the span of a week, Rozan feels very demotivated. Which part of the brain is responsible for this type of emotion?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Limbic system

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Thalamus

9.

When Aya watched Coco for the billionth time, she started getting emotional when the main character started singing “Remember Me” to his grandmother. Aya thinks that Coco is one of the saddest Disney movies of all time. Which sensory modalities trigger the receptor to perceive Coco as a sad movie?

a)

Taste and Odor

b)

Shape and Texture

c)

Sound and Sight

d)

Sound and Shapes

10.

Which of the following statements is false about explicit memory

a)

Requires the person to be unconscious

b)

Past memories

c)

Involves the medial temporal lobe

d)

Also known as declarative memory

11.

Which of the following statements is false about implicit memory

a)

Memories that come naturally

b)

Priming is an implicit memory effect

c)

Also known as non-declarative memory

d)

None of the above

12.

Patients with lesions in different association areas cannot remember basic facts (e.g. name of color & sounds of letters)

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Verrel got his first kiss when he was years old. What type of long term memory is this and which part of the brain is involved?

a)

Explicit memory; medial temporal lobe

b)

Autobiographical memory; prefrontal cortex

c)

Implicit memory; amygdala

14.

REM sleep is 75% of total sleep

a)

True

b)

False

15.

What can you observe from this picture, showing the neuron following 8 days after axonal injury?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Central chromatolysis

c)

Neuronophagia

d)

Amyloidosis

16.

What would best describe this pathological condition, represented by this brain tissue biopsy?

a)

Alzheimer’s Disease due to accumulation of tau and misfolded beta-amyloid peptide.

b)

Parkinson’s Disease due to accumulation of negri bodies in neuronal cells.

c)

Spongiform encephalopathy due to gliosis.

d)

Parkinson’s Disease due to accumulation of prions and normal MAP peptide.

17.

Mrs Smith, a pregnant woman, delivered her baby in your clinic. the neonate shows an abnormally enlarged head and protrusion of skin containing liquor cerebrospinal with a portion of the spinal cord from undeveloped vertebrae in lumbar level. What condition best describes the baby?

a)

The baby had meningoencephalocele and meningocele.

b)

The baby had hydrocephalus and spina bifida occulta.

c)

The baby had hydrocephalus and myelomeningocele.

d)

The baby had anencephaly and meningoencephalocele.

18.

Upon examination of brain tissue from Mr. Fox, a 25 year old male who complained of impaired motor function and slurred speech you found depigmentation of the grey matter and appearance of Lewy bodies. What disease might he have?

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Alzheimer's disease

c)

Glioblastoma

d)

Meningitis

19.

What condition do these two specimen suggests?

a)

Subdural hematoma(A), epidural hematoma(B)

b)

epidural hematoma(A), intraparenchymal hematoma(B)

c)

glioblastoma(A), epidural hematoma(B)

d)

epidural hematoma(A), subdural hematoma(B)

20.

Which of these statements are correct regarding neuroregeneration?

a)

Neurons are permanent cells, meaning it may divide and replace other neurons that have axonal injury.

b)

Axonal lesions in CNS are repaired faster and easier than one happened in PNS.

c)

Neurons will appear to have Lewy bodies once they experience anterograde degeneration.

d)

Surrounding neurons may compensate for the function of the neuron that is injured by forming inter neuronal synapse connection.

21.

What forms a bridge for a neuron to elongate its axon from proximal to distal once axonal injury has occured?

a)

schwann’s cell

b)

oligodendroglia

c)

macrophages

d)

myocytes

22.

What is the role of macrophages in PNS’s neuroregeneration?

a)

Phagocytose the cell bodies of neuron

b)

Secretes IL-1 to stimulate neuron cells to produce NGF

c)

Secretes IL-1 to stimulate schwann cells to produce NGF

d)

Inducing chromatolysis by secreting inflammatory interleukins

23.

What is the name of this appearance of the nerve tissue and what is the most plausible etiology?

a)

Owl’s eye appearance due to inclusion bodies in neuron

b)

Onion bulb appearance due to sequential episodes of demyelination and remyelination

c)

Lewy bodies due to accumulation of alpha synuclein

d)

Mosaic pattern due to normal innervation of muscle fibre

24.

Upon biopsy examination of patient A's muscle tissue, you found an abnormal mosaic appearance of his muscle fibre. What is the most plausible etiology?

a)

death of corresponding motor neurons causing domination of compensating motor neurons with many uninnervated muscle.

b)

Accumulation of prion in the neuron of cerebral cortex

c)

segmental demyelination of nerve fibers innervating muscle

d)

infection of mycobacterium tuberculosis

25.

Parasympathetic nervous system is dominated by functioning of adrenergic receptor

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Parasympatholytic drugs inhibits those of parasympathetic nerve activity. They are in nature..

a)

muscarinic agonist

b)

muscarinic antagonist

c)

cholinergic antagonist

d)

cholinergic agonist

27.

What is the mechanism of botulinum toxin effects in the PNS?

a)

stimulation of neurotransmitters, increasing sympathetic nerve activity

b)

Inhibition of transmitter synthesis, increasing sympathetic nerve activity

c)

Inhibition of transmitter storage, decreasing parasympathetic nerve activity.

d)

Inhibition of transmitter release, decreasing parasympathetic nerve activity.

28.

Mrs Johnson, 25 years old expecting pregnant women come to the clinic complaining of high blood pressure and tachycardia. To prevent her having preeclampsia and heart complication, what would you prescribe and why?

a)

labetalol, because it is an alpha and beta receptor antagonist

b)

epinephrine, because it is beta receptor agonist

c)

atropine, because it is an m2 receptor antagonist

d)

betanechol, because it is a muscarinic receptor antagonist

29.

Intoxication of cholinergic substance muscarine may happen days or weeks after consumption

a)

True

b)

False

30.

a 5 year old was playing with baygon and came to the ER with tremmor, diarrhoea, vomiting, bronchoconstriction, red eyes with miosis. What is the mechanism of carbamate insecticides?

a)

suppression of parasympathetic nerve activity

b)

inhibit cholinesterase enzyme

c)

inhibit secretion of acetylcholine

d)

increase parasympathetic nerve activity

31.

what is the mechanism of atropine intoxication ?

a)

suppression of parasympathetic nerve activity

b)

inhibit cholinesterase enzyme

c)

inhibit secretion of acetylcholine

d)

increase parasympathetic nerve activity

32.

_______ is an indirect acting drug that inhibits the uptake of norepinephrine from synaptic cleft, strengthening and enhancing the sympathetic effect

a)

amphetamine

b)

cocaine

c)

ephedrine

d)

entacapone

e)

epinephrine

33.

what is the therapeutic use of adrenergic antagonists EXCEPT?

a)

to treat hypertension

b)

to treat anaphylactic shock

c)

to treat diabetes

d)

as a nasal decongestant

34.

What is the most common type of primary CNS tumor ?

a)

glioma

b)

neuroblastoma

c)

meningioma

d)

ependymoma

35.

one of the characteristics of meningioma is that it can cause hyperostosis (true)

a)

True

b)

False

36.

which type of CNS neoplasm is most frequently found in the cauda equina of the spinal cord?

a)

glioma

b)

astrocytoma

c)

meningioma

d)

ependymoma

37.

Traumatic neuroma is the reactive proliferation of schwann cells and fibroblast which is categorised as a neoplasm

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Ependymoma is a type of CNA neoplasm derived from astrocyte cells in the brain.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Hemorrhagic stroke is caused by blockage of artery in the brain caused by ruptured atherosclerotic plaque

a)

True

b)

False

40.

the most common form of cerebral aneurysm is

a)

fusiform aneurysm

b)

saccular aneurysm

c)

berry aneurysm

d)

artery-vein malformation

e)

hemorrhagic aneurysm

41.

Hemorrhagic strokes are caused by ruptured intracranial blood vessels

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which blood vessel connects the internal carotid artery with the posterior cerebral artery?

a)

posterior communicating artery

b)

anterior cerebral artery

c)

circle of willis

d)

anterior communicating artery

e)

basilar artery

43.

lesions or malformations of the intracranial blood vessels are a risk factor for hemoragic stroke

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which one is not the advantages of the ultrasound?

a)

Reveals morphology of atheromatous plaques

b)

Non-invasive and low cost

c)

Operator dependent

d)

Quantities blood velocity

45.

Which one is true about CT Scan

a)

In CT scan blood is hypodense

b)

In CT scan HU for water is 1

c)

In CT scan calcium is hyperdense

d)

In CT scan air is Hyperdense

46.

Ischemic stroke recognize as hypodense, whereas hemorrhage stroke will be recognize as hyperdense in CT scan

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Pick the right answer!

a)

Ultrasound use ionizing radiation

b)

MRI is iodine based

c)

Gadolinium is paramagnetic metal that hastens T1 relaxation of nearby water protons

d)

In T1 the CSF is hypodense

48.

Constriction of pupil by means of pupillary light reflex is associated with

a)

Sympathetic Pathway

b)

Parasympathetic Pathway

c)

Both

49.

What will happen to the Horner’s Syndrome patient when cocaine applied to their eyes?

a)

Pupil will easily dilate

b)

Pupil will poorly dilate

c)

Pupil will easily constrict

d)

Pupil will poorly constrict

50.

In topical cocaine test, the drug will

a)

enhance adrenergic function

b)

inhibit adrenergic function

c)

enhance chollinergic function

d)

inhibit chollinergic function

51.

What will happen in apraclonidine test

a)

Produce mydriasis in both normal and effected eyes

b)

The miotic pupil on the horner side will constricts and become smaller than the normal side

c)

The miotic pupil on the horner side will dilate and become larger than the normal side

d)

Produce mydriasis only on effected eye

52.

Does a patient with horner’s syndrome could still have the normal pupilary syndrome?

a)

Yes, because pupilary reflex depends on the sympathetic pathway

b)

Yes, because horner’s syndrome only effect the sympathetic pathway

c)

No, because horner syndrome damage both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathway

d)

Yes, because horner’s syndrome only effect parasympathetic pathway

53.

The best radiological modality to evaluate cerebral neurodegenerative disease is:

a)

CT Scan brain with contrast

b)

Cerebral Angiography

c)

MRI brain without contrast

d)

CT Scan brain without contrast

e)

MRI brain with contrast

54.

Alzheimer disease patient can suffer from anterograde amnesia. Which means:

a)

His past memory is intact, but his recent memory is lost

b)

He cannot recognize his family

c)

He cannot remember everything in the past

d)

He lost his personal identity

e)

He still remember his childhood memory but unable to lear something new

55.

Which part of the brain store explicit memory for long term period?

a)

Striatum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Neocortex

d)

Amygdala

e)

Thalamus

56.

A patient was established with diagnosis of alzheimer’s dementia, the early sign that could be seen in the brain MRI includes:

a)

Hippocampal Atrophy

b)

Temporoparietal Athropy

c)

Global Atrophy

d)

Entorhinal cortex atrophy

57.

In dementia, the last type of memory that impaired is

a)

All type of memory is intact

b)

Long term memory

c)

Working memory

d)

All type of memory affected simultaneously

e)

Short term period