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Worksheetswc3
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be
a)
High
b)
Low
c)
Optimum
d)
Any value
2.
The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle
a)
Rankine
b)
Carnot
c)
Reversed Rankine
d)
Reversed Carnot
3.
In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the
a)
Compressor and condenser
b)
Condenser and receiver
c)
Receiver and evaporator
d)
Evaporator and compressor
4.
Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
a)
Condenser
b)
Evaporator
c)
Absorber
d)
condensor, absorber and separator
5.
Freon group of refrigerants are
a)
Inflammable
b)
Toxic
c)
Non-inflammable and toxic
d)
Nontoxic and non-inflammable
6.
The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
a)
high sensible heat
b)
high total heat
c)
high latent heat of vapourization
d)
low latent heat
7.
Ammonia is one of the oldest refrigerants, which is still used widely, because
a)
It offers excellent performance
b)
It is a natural refrigerant
c)
It is inexpensive
d)
All of the mentioned
8.
Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?
a)
High risibility with oil
b)
Low boiling point
c)
Good electrical conductor
d)
Large latent heat
9.
The undesirable property of a refrigerant is
a)
Non-toxic
b)
Non-flammable
c)
Non-explosive
d)
High boiling point
10.
The synthetic refrigerants were extremely popular as they are:
a)
Environment friendly
b)
Mostly non-toxic and non-flammable
c)
Chemically stable
d)
Both mostly non-toxic and non-flammable and chemically stable
11.
Ammonia is
a)
non-inflammable
b)
non-toxic
c)
toxic and non-inflammable
d)
toxic and inflammable
12.
Carbon dioxide is
a)
colourless
b)
odourless
c)
non-flammable
d)
All of the mentioned
13.
Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the stratosphere?
a)
Ammonia
b)
Fluorine
c)
Sulphur dioxide
d)
Carbon dioxide
14.
The ozone depletion potential of air is
a)
0
b)
1
c)
10
d)
100
15.
Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest global warming potential?
a)
R-502
b)
R-134
c)
R-12
d)
CO2
16.
Which of the following are secondary refrigerants?
a)
Water
b)
Calcium Chloride Brine
c)
Glycol
d)
All of the mentioned
17.
The gas-refrigeration system is
a)
more heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle
b)
less heavy and bulky than the vapour compression cycle
c)
same in construction with the vapour compression cycle
d)
None of the mentioned
18.
Refrigerant Freon 12 belongs to
a)
Methane family
b)
Ethane family
c)
Ketone family
d)
Aldehyde family
19.
Which of the following refrigerant has lowest freezing temperature?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Ammonia
c)
Freon-12
d)
Freon-22
20.
In S.I. unit, one tonne of refrigeration is equal to
a)
110 kJ/min
b)
210 kJ/min
c)
50 kJ/min
d)
None of the mentioned
21.
Can enclosure of products in a wrapped pouch be regarded as a packaging?
a)
Yes
b)
No
22.
Identify the functions of packaging.
a)
Containment
b)
Communication
c)
Both containment and communication
d)
None of the options are correct
23.
Can enclosure of products in a tube be regarded as a packaging?
a)
Yes
b)
No
24.
Identify the functions of packaging.
a)
Preservation
b)
Protection
c)
Both preservation and protection
d)
None of the options are correct
25.
A three piece can manufacturing process does not involve welding
a)
True
b)
False
26.
The cylinder wall of can is beaded to provide radial strength
a)
True
b)
False
27.
Choose the most apt example for secondary package
a)
Cartons
b)
Corrugated box
c)
Metal packages
d)
None of the options are correct
28.
_____ package is made up of a number of secondary packages
a)
Primary
b)
Quaternary
c)
Tertiary
d)
All the options are correct
29.
Choose the most apt example for tertiary package
a)
Corrugated box
b)
Stretch wrapped pallet of corrugated cases
c)
Cartons
d)
None of the options are correct
30.
_____ packaging is meant for transportation over long distances by air, land, or sea.
a)
Secondary
b)
Tertiary
c)
Quaternary
d)
All the options are correct
31.
‘Food is packaged to preserve its quality and freshness, add appeal to consumers and to facilitate storage and distribution’. This definition for functions of package was given by _____
a)
CAC
b)
FSSAI
c)
WHO
d)
FAO
32.
Packaging can be used to control the availability of oxygen to fruits and vegetables
a)
true
b)
false
33.
Packaging cannot protect the product against microbial spoilage by bacteria, yeasts, and molds.
a)
true
b)
false
34.
ECCS is a combination of _____
a)
Tin & steel
b)
Chromium & steel
c)
Tin & chromium
d)
None of the options are correct
35.
The acronym ECCS stands for _____
a)
Electrolytically chromium-coated steel
b)
Electron chromium- coated steel
c)
Electrolytically copper-coated steel
d)
None of the options are correct
36.
D&I can also be called as _____
a)
DRD
b)
DWI
c)
DWD
d)
None of the options are correct
37.
The acronym DWI stands for _____
a)
Drawn and Wall Ironed
b)
Drag and Wall Ironed
c)
None of the options are correct
38.
Lacquer can also be called as _____
a)
Enamel
b)
Liner
c)
Both enamel and liner
d)
None of the options are correct
39.
Deos lacquering facilitate manufacturing of cans?
a)
Yes
b)
No
40.
Aluminium foil is more flexible with better strength
a)
True
b)
False
41.
According to raw sugar processing, after the milling process the sugar canes are sent to ___________.
a)
Clarification and filteration tanks
b)
evaporation tanks
c)
crystallization process
d)
weighing and sampling
42.
The sugar cane requires high temperatures and ample supply of water during the harvest period.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
May be true
d)
Non of the options are correct
43.
the pressing process crushes the stalks between heavy and grooved metal rollers to separate the fiber ________.
a)
Cane waste
b)
cellulose fiber
c)
raw fiber
d)
bagasse
44.
the extracted juice after crushing is called ________
a)
Cane juice
b)
raw juice
c)
bagasse
d)
vesou
45.
the extracted juice contains ______ amount of sucrose present in it.
a)
0.5
b)
1
c)
0.95
d)
0.1
46.
in the crystalizaton process small grains of sugar added to the pan after they reach the point of saturation is called as ______
a)
seed
b)
sugar crystals
c)
strike
d)
both a and c
47.
the dense mixture of sugar crystals and syrup that are formed after condensation is called as
a)
massecuite
b)
crystal sugar
c)
end product
d)
Non of the options given
48.
After the sugar being centrifuged, it is cut down and sent to granulator for _______
a)
centrifugation
b)
drying
c)
evaporating
d)
packaging
49.
Alternate sweetners are so called as ________
a)
substitute sugars
b)
sucrose
c)
carbohydrates
d)
crystal sugar
50.
Refined sugars are produced directly from cane juice.
a)
true
b)
may be true
c)
false
d)
Non of the options are correct
51.
The inclined portion of a carrier is generally given a slope of no more than ___ to the horizontal.
a)
10
b)
50
c)
75
d)
22
52.
The apron in which cane is carried is made up of_____
a)
Asbestos
b)
Mud
c)
Steel
d)
fiber
53.
Extraction of cane sugar juice with shredder will be__________
a)
0.9355
b)
0.9225
c)
0.88
d)
0.872
54.
The raw sugar that is remelted, followed by boiling, re-crystallization, and centrifuging is formed into
a)
molasses
b)
unrefined sugar
c)
refined sugar
d)
bagasse
55.
Powdered sugar that are used for confectionaries have ___ % of starch with them
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
56.
Damp sugar crystals are dried by being tumbled through heated air in a ______
a)
granulator
b)
drier
c)
evaporator
d)
all the above options
57.
The slate compressing aprons of the carrier may be wood or metal
a)
false
b)
true
c)
may be true
d)
non of the above
58.
The _____ knives are used to even out the layer of cane.
a)
Levelling
b)
cutting
c)
both a and b
d)
non of the above
59.
Clarification of Cane sugar solution is done by adding______
a)
Filter
b)
Mesh
c)
Milk lime
d)
all the above options
60.
Expansion of ISMA is
a)
Indian sugar Mill assistance
b)
Indian Sugar Mill Assist
c)
Indian Sugar Mill Association
d)
Indian Sweet Manufacturing Association
61.
Which country is the largest milk producer?
a)
India
b)
USA
c)
China
d)
Pakistan
62.
Which state stands first in milk production?
a)
Tamil Nadu
b)
Kerala
c)
UP
d)
MP
63.
Which people's income are more dependent on dairy industry?
a)
Urban
b)
rural
c)
Metropolitan
d)
None of the options are correct
64.
Recall the father of operation flood
a)
Dr.Verghese kurien
b)
Dr.M.S.Swaminathan
c)
Dr.Vishal Tewari
d)
None of the options are correct
65.
NDDB stands for ….....
a)
National Dairy Development Board
b)
National Dairy Driven Board
c)
Natural Dairy Driven Board
d)
All of the options are correct
66.
The pH of cow's milk
a)
6.4
b)
7
c)
2.4
d)
7.2
67.
The boiling point of milk is ….. C.
a)
100
b)
110
c)
100.17
d)
All of the options are correct
68.
The percentage of fat present in standardized milk is ….
a)
3
b)
3.5
c)
4.5
d)
8.5
69.
The milking milk should be cooled or should be sent to chilling centers within …. Hours
a)
1
b)
4
c)
8
d)
12
70.
The machine milking that use the principle of ….. for opening the teat canal.
a)
Suction
b)
Compression
c)
Partial vacuum
d)
All of the options are correct
71.
The milk testing can be done using …..
a)
Lactometer
b)
hydrometer
c)
Spectrometer
d)
All of the options are correct
72.
The milk stored at …....C temperature in chilling centres for safe storage.
a)
10
b)
0
c)
4
d)
15
73.
The spoilage of milk takes place because of ….... Bacteria.
a)
thermophilic
b)
mesophilic
c)
psychotrophic
d)
Gram negative
74.
To increase the shelf life of the milk, the UHT process can be takes place at …
a)
high oxygen environment
b)
Aseptic condition
c)
Atmospheric condition
d)
All of the options are correct
75.
The total time required at specific temperature for one log cycle reduction is called ….
a)
D value
b)
Z value
c)
F value
d)
T value
76.
The time required for 90% destruction of microorganisms is called ….
a)
D value
b)
Z value
c)
F value
d)
T value
77.
Among the following, select the advantages of pasteurization
a)
mild heat treatment
b)
minor changes to nutritional and sensorial characteristics
c)
shelf life: few days or weeks
d)
All of the options are correct
78.
In milk processing, the target microorganism to be destroyed is …..
a)
Coxiella burnettii
b)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c)
Coxiella burnettii and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d)
Coxiella burnettii, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Clostridium botulinum
79.
The founder of pasteurization is ….
a)
Nicholas Appert
b)
Louis pasteur
c)
Francis Pasteur
d)
None of the options are correct
80.
The thermal process that inactivate enzymes and destroys all the microorganisms present in the milk is called
a)
Sterilzation
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Blanching
d)
All of the options are correct
81.
Which of the following is NOT a part of a Wheat kernel?
a)
Bran
b)
Endosperm
c)
Germ
d)
None of the mentioned
82.
White Flour is made from all the three parts i.e. Bran, Germ and Endosperm of a Wheat Kernel
a)
true
b)
False
83.
A whole rice kernel is called Brown Rice.
a)
true
b)
False
84.
This tool is used to flatten the dough, making it thinner.
a)
Knife
b)
Spatula
c)
Pan
d)
Rolling Pin
85.
What is the correct method to check for cake doneness?
a)
Insert a toothpick or cake tester
b)
Insert a spoon
c)
Top sinks in the middle
d)
When the center of the cake is pressed it does not spring back
86.
Which is an inappropriate technique for filling pans for an unshortened cake?
a)
Fill the pans two-thirds full
b)
Run a spatula through the pan to remove air pockets
c)
Spread the batter evenly with a spatula
d)
Tap the pan on the counter to remove air bubbles
87.
What mixing method is used if the recipe says to cream the sugar and fat?
a)
Buscuit
b)
Muffin
c)
One-bowl
d)
Standard
88.
What ingredient makes an angel food cake rise?
a)
Baking powder
b)
Baking soda
c)
Beaten egg whites
d)
Yeast
89.
In a muffle furnace, the muffle_________________?
a)
Retards the heat transfer
b)
Assists in temperature equalisation in the charge
c)
Permits the use of controlled atmosphere for the protection of stock
d)
All of the mentioned
90.
The heating capacity of muffle furnace depends on the
a)
Surface area
b)
Properties of muffle wall (temperarure, area, emisivity)
c)
Both A&B
d)
Neither A nor B
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