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Moody's Analytics- Exit Test

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What information in a credit agency report can help a bank assess a company’s management integrity?

a)

Opinion about the company management.

b)

Information about the financial performance.

c)

How freely the management shares information.

d)

Details on covenant compliance for the bank loans.

2.

Special Mention Accounts were introduced as a new asset category between which two categories?

a)

Sub-standard and Doubtful.

b)

Standard and Sub-standard.

c)

Standard and Doubtful.

d)

Doubtful and Loss.

3.

How many days is the short-term financing gap for a company with 47 trade receivables days, 68 inventory days and 63 trade payables days?

a)

42

b)

178

c)

52

d)

84

4.

What is the first step for a management team in order to achieve results through the efforts of others?

a)

Incentivise the organisation in an effective manner

b)

Source the necessary resources

c)

Manage the critical business operations on a daily and long-term basis

d)

Set the strategic direction

5.

Which activity can reduce a company’s cash flow position?

a)

Purchase of investments

b)

Sale of assets

c)

Increase in owner’s equity

d)

Collection of receivables

6.

What type of early warning signals may be indicated as a result of technology changes?

a)

Operational

b)

Fundamental

c)

Business

d)

Market

7.

Which type of charge is appropriate when the security is a factory?

a)

Hypothecation

b)

Lien

c)

Mortgage

d)

Pledge

8.

Which party issues a letter of credit in a goods and services transaction?

a)

Applicant

b)

Beneficiary

c)

Seller

d)

Bank

9.

What causes market overcapacity?

a)

Low product demand

b)

Drop in a sales price

c)

Industry growth

d)

Weak competition

10.

What projected information is best to use to assess working capital limits?

a)

Sales

b)

Profit and loss statement

c)

Balance sheet

d)

Labour expenses

11.

Which business is most likely to have a gross margin of 100%?

a)

Clothing store

b)

Car manufacturer

c)

Food wholesaler

d)

Accounting firm

12.

What action does the beneficiary need to take under a bank guarantee in case of default by the debtor?

a)

He needs to request the money from the debtor

b)

He needs to notify the guarantor bank and request payment

c)

He needs to ask the guarantor bank to negotiate a settlement

d)

He only needs to wait for the guarantor bank to step in

13.

What is the principal reason that lenders do not easily accept security of intangible assets?

a)

They are amortized, not depreciated

b)

They are difficult to value and realise

c)

They do not physically exist

d)

They are not a working part of the business

14.

What is the most common definition of credit risk as it applies to banks?

a)

Credit risk is the possibility of losses associated with a fall in value of traded debt instruments.

b)

Credit risk is the risk of economic loss that a bank incurs as a result of the failure by a borrower to make interest and principal payments in full and on time

c)

Credit risk is the risk of losses on funded credit products

d)

Credit risk is the loss in value of a credit exposure as a result of a deterioration in the creditworthiness of the obligor

15.

Which non-current asset is categorised as an item of "property, plant, and equipment"?

a)

Computer software

b)

Goodwill

c)

Investment property

d)

Motor vehicle

16.

Which statement is accurate in relation to the operating cycle?

a)

A company will have numerous operating cycles relating to different product or service lines.

b)

A company usually has numerous operating cycles, each relating to a different customer.

c)

The number of operating cycles will increase as a company sells more of its goods or services

d)

A company usually has just one operating cycle

17.

What would you find on a typical business balance sheet that you would not normally find on a personal statement of net worth?

a)

A list of liabilities

b)

Shareholders' equity

c)

Tangible assets

d)

A total for net assets or net worth

18.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Creative accounting is not intended to mask poor financial performance

b)

Creative accounting is not intended to make reasonable performance look even better

c)

Some level of creative accounting is present in all financial statements

d)

The use of creative accounting tends to reduce the financial statements’ quality and reliability

19.

Who decides the accounting policies used by a company in preparing financial accounts?

a)

The shareholders

b)

The company auditors

c)

Senior management of the company

d)

Local accounting standard setters

20.

Which factor ultimately determines the life cycle of trade receivables?

a)

The speed with which the company collects cash from customers

b)

The volume of sales made

c)

The payment terms offered to customers

d)

The length of time finished goods are held before being delivered to a customer

21.

Which statement accurately describes an accounting risk?

a)

A risk that there may be insufficient assets to repay liabilities as they fall due

b)

A risk that the carrying amount of fixed assets may be overstated compared to their market value

c)

A risk that a company's financial controls may be weak, leading to the possibility of undetected fraud, waste, or inefficiency

d)

A risk that severe commodity price fluctuations will destabilise the cost base of the business

22.

Which of these actions would cause the short-term financing gap of a company to increase?

a)

Renegotiation of a revolving credit facility on more favourable terms

b)

Changing the payment terms offered to customers from 30 to 60 days

c)

Improvements in the manufacturing process to use less raw material content

d)

Purchase of new machinery to reduce production time

23.

What warning sign would be a clue that a company is inflating its revenues in a given year?

a)

Trade receivables growing much more rapidly than sales in that year

b)

Bank balances growing much faster than sales in that year

c)

Trade receivables growing much more slowly than sales in that year

d)

Inventory growing much faster than sales in that year

24.

Which statement correctly defines the asset conversion cycle?

a)

The speed with which the business turns raw materials into cash

b)

A continuous series of capital conversion cycles within a longer operating cycle

c)

The speed with which the business recovers the cost paid for capital items such as plant and machinery

d)

A continuous series of operating cycles within a longer capital conversion cycle

25.

What is seasonality?

a)

A predictable pattern of business activity that peaks during a particular season.

b)

An unpredictable distribution of business activity that peaks during particular seasons, months or quarters

c)

A predictable pattern of business activity that peaks during particular seasons, months or quarters

d)

An unpredictable distribution of business activity that peaks during a particular season

26.

Which strategy would likely decrease the chances of a mature business's survival?

a)

Avoiding different product lines or geographic markets

b)

Introducing new products or services

c)

Merging with or acquiring a competitor

d)

Re-engineering the operation to improve efficiency

27.

What is the solvency test?

a)

A test that evaluates a business's ability to generate cash from ongoing operations to pay all normal expenses, including interest and scheduled principal payments

b)

A test that is a replacement for the liquidity test and provides a short-hand view of overall risk associated with a loan

c)

A test that is a stress test of a lender's portfolio to assess the amount of risk it can safely take on

d)

A test that assesses the adequacy of cash from the liquidation of business assets in distressed circumstances to pay interest and all debt

28.

From a risk management perspective, what is the most reliable indicator of profitability?

a)

Total amount of profits or in terms of percentage of sales

b)

Total amount of profits or in terms of units still to be sold

c)

By the percentage of sales relatively to the number of units not sold

d)

By the actual monetary value of profits

29.

Which factor is most adversely affected by market overcapacity?

a)

Number of businesses in the market

b)

Product availability

c)

Product pricing

d)

Unit sales

30.

In which scenario would a business's sales, cash flow and financial viability be most at risk?

a)

A business that deals with very few large customers

b)

A business that deals with many small customers

c)

A business that deals with many large customers

d)

A business that deals with many individual customers

31.

Which is most affected by seasonality in the operations of a business?

a)

Expense levels

b)

The capital base

c)

Annual cash flow

d)

The timing of cash flows

32.

What information about a borrower's customer base would likely be most relevant to assessing credit risk?

a)

The total number of the business's customers

b)

The terms offered by the business to retain the best customers

c)

The names of the business's largest and most loyal customers

d)

The impact on cash flow if the business loses its largest customer

33.

Which risk category is typically considered critical when addressing a borrower's overall credit risk?

a)

Sovereign risk

b)

Management risk

c)

Counterparty risk

d)

Audit risk

34.

Which company below would likely be least impacted by government regulation?

a)

Airline

b)

Clothing store

c)

Bar

d)

Restaurant

35.

What is the effect of economies of scale on competition in an industry?

a)

Economies of scale tend to encourage new competitors to enter an industry

b)

Economies of scale have no impact on competition in an industry

c)

Economies of scale tend to encourage established competitors to exit an industry

d)

Economies of scale tend to discourage new competitors from entering an industry

36.

Which factor is most likely to increase the intensity of competition within a given market?

a)

Rapid industry growth

b)

Low fixed costs

c)

An economic recovery

d)

Diverse, successful competitors

37.

What is the key risk that is evaluated in assessing a business's credit risk?

a)

How changes in the economic environment affect a business's financing costs

b)

The degree of a business's earnings volatility

c)

Whether a business can repay principal and interest as scheduled

d)

The business's competitive position in its industry

38.

What type of business plan provides the best chance for success?

a)

Clear, unchanging and realistic

b)

Clear, realistic and measurable

c)

Unchanging, highly detailed and measurable

d)

Clear, highly flexible and time-tested

39.

Generally, who creates a business plan?

a)

Management

b)

Lender

c)

Payroll department

d)

Human resources department

40.

Why do lenders attempt to mitigate credit risk?

a)

To justify charging higher interest rates than might otherwise be possible

b)

To transform a bad loan into a good loan

c)

To enable credit to be extended to borrowers that are otherwise considered poor risks

d)

To minimise risk and enhances management of loans extended to creditworthy borrowers

41.

For what business is key person insurance likely most critical?

a)

Government agency

b)

Small business

c)

Publicly traded company

d)

University

42.

Which option can mitigate work stoppages?

a)

Liability insurance.

b)

Alternative sources

c)

Dependable suppliers

d)

Good labour relations

43.

What event is most likely to decrease inventory (stock) days?

a)

Automation of the inventory control process

b)

Recession

c)

Product becomes obsolete

d)

Substitute product introduced

44.

What is the calculation for sales growth?

a)

(Prior Period Sales - Recent Period Sales) / Prior Period Sales

b)

(Recent Period Sales - Prior Period Sales) / Prior Period Sales

c)

(Prior Period Sales - Recent Period Sales) / Recent Period Sales

d)

(Recent Period Sales - Prior Period Sales) / Recent Period Sales

45.

What does a company's current ratio show?

a)

Whether trade receivables and inventory (stock) will cover trade payables in the next operating period

b)

Whether fixed assets exceeded current assets in the most recent operating period

c)

Whether current assets, if converted to cash, will cover short-term liabilities in the next operating period

d)

Whether current liabilities will cover short-term assets in the next operating period

46.

Sales growth is a particularly useful starting point for assessing which component of a business's overall risk profile?

a)

Financial risk

b)

Market (industry and business) risk

c)

Economic risk

d)

Management risk

47.

Trade receivable days do not tend to vary from industry to industry.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Gross margin does not tend to vary from industry to industry.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the formula for current ratio?

a)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

b)

Current Liabilities / Current Assets

c)

Current Liabilities - Current Assets

d)

Current Assets + Current Liabilities

50.

What form of business organisation is an extension of a sole trader?

a)

Sole trader

b)

Partnership

c)

Joint stock company

d)

Company