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Advance 01

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

OIL PRESSURE MINIMUM IDLING

a)

15 PSI

b)

20 PSI

c)

25 PSI

d)

30 PSI

2.

ความจุเชื้อเพลิงที่สามารถใช้ได้(USEABLE FUEL) ของ บ.ฝ.16 กคือ

a)

198 lbs

b)

207 lbs.

c)

314 lbs.

d)

328 lbs.

3.

ปริมาณOIL ของ บ.ฝ.16 ก ขั้นต่ำสุดสำหรับทำการฝึกบิน คือ

a)

16US Qts.

b)

14US Qts.

c)

12 US Qts.

d)

10 US Qts.

4.

ไฟ LOW VOLT CAUTION LIGHT จะติดเมื่อ ALTERNATOR จ่ายไฟต่ำกว่า ......... VOLT1. ไฟ LOW VOLT CAUTION LIGHT จะติดเมื่อ ALTERNATOR จ่ายไฟต่ำกว่า ......... VOLT

a)

22

b)

24

c)

25

d)

28

5.

ไฟ LOW OIL PRESSURE WARNING LIGHT จะเปิดเมื่อ OIL PRESSURE ต่ำกว่า......... PSI

a)

20

b)

15

c)

10

d)

5

6.

STALL SPEED WITH FLAPS UP FOR CT-4E

a)

65KIAS

b)

63 KIAS

c)

60KIAS

d)

54 KIAS

7.

STALL SPEED WITH FLAPS HALF FOR CT-4E

a)

65 KIAS

b)

63 KIAS

c)

60 KIAS

d)

54 KIAS

8.

STALL SPEED WITH FLAPS FULL FOR CT-4E

a)

65 KIAS

b)

63 KIAS

c)

60 KIAS

d)

54 KIAS

9.

STALL WARNING ที่อยู่ที่ปีกขวาของเครื่องบินจะเชื่อมต่อกับเสียงเตือนภายในห้องนักบิน โดยเสียงเตือนนั้นจะดัง ก่อนการ STALL ประมาณ ……… knots

a)

3 – 5

b)

5 – 7

c)

7 – 10

d)

5 – 10

10.

ALTERNATORของ บ.ฝ.16 กให้กระแสไฟฟ้า

a)

28 volts DC, 70 amps

b)

26 volts DC, 60 amps

c)

28 volts AC, 70 amps

d)

26 volts AC, 60 amps

11.

คลื่นวิทยุความถี่ฉุกเฉิน

a)

VHF 127.5 MHz, UHF 251.0 MHz

b)

VHF 125.1 MHz, UHF 234.0 MHz

c)

VHF 126.2 MHz, UHF 328.0 MHz

d)

VHF 121.5 MHz, UHF 243.0 MHz

12.

เมื่อ บ. ที่ท่านบินอยู่เกิด EMERGENCY ควรเปิด TRANSPONDER CODE อะไรไว้

a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

7700

d)

6700

13.

เมื่อ บ. ที่ท่านบินอยู่เกิด RADIO FAILURE ควรเปิด TRANSPONDER CODE อะไรไว้

a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

7700

d)

6700

14.

การบินด้วยเครื่องวัดประกอบการบินเพื่อเข้าหาสถานีเครื่องช่วยเดินอากาศADF เรียกว่า

a)

Homing

b)

Proceed Direct

c)

Tracking

d)

Non-Precision Direct

15.

(Refer to figure 95) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No.1 NAV? (IR Test

guide 2-193)

a)

R-175

b)

R-165

c)

1. R-345

16.

(Refer to figure 95) Which OBS selection on th No.1 NAV would center the CDI and change

the TO/FROM indication to a TO? (IR Test guide 2-194)

a)

175°

b)

165°

c)

345°

17.

(Refer to figure 95) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI? (IR Test

guide 2-196)

a)

174°

b)

166°

c)

335°

18.

Which check and inspections of flight instruments of instrument systems must be

accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR? (IR Test guide 2-142)

a)

VOR within 30 days, altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and transponder within

24 calendar months

b)

ELT test within 30 days, altimeter system within 12 calendar months, and transponder

within 24 calendar months

c)

1. VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter

system within 12 calendar months

19.

(Refer to figure 148) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information

to the instruments has malfunctioned (IR Test guide 2-135)

a)

Climbing turn to left

b)

Climbing turn to right

c)

Level turn to left

20.

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying? (IR

Test guide 2-95)

a)

Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation

b)

Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control

c)

Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

21.

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

a)

A procedure turn is not authorized.

b)

Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.

c)

Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

22.

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?

a)

Towering cumulus.

b)

Cumulonimbus.

c)

Altocumulus castellans.

23.

Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate

a)

an inversion.

b)

unstable air.

c)

turbulence.

24.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

a)

Lighting.

b)

Heavy rain shower.

c)

Supercooled raindrops.

25.

During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

a)

When radar vectors are provided.

b)

When cleared for the approach.

c)

None, since it is always mandatory.

26.

NDB station passage occurs when

a)

the needle passes behind the wingtip position and settles at or near the 180o position.

b)

the needle passes behind the wingtip position and settles at or near the 090o position.

c)

the needle passes behind the wingtip position and settles at or near the 045o position.

27.

Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate

a)

turbulence at and below the cloud level.

b)

poor visibility.

c)

smooth flying conditions.

28.

During flight, if the pitot-tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instrument

would be affected? (IR Test guide 2-73)

a)

The airspeed indicator only

b)

The airspeed indicator and the altimeter

c)

The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

29.

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?

a)

Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

b)

Emergency landing is required to the nearest useable airport.

c)

Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

30.

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even through a rule has not been violated?

a)

When priority has been given.

b)

Any time an emergency occurs.

c)

When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

31.

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way communications failure?

a)

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

b)

Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.

c)

Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

32.

Class G airspace is that airspace where

a)

ATC does not control air traffic.

b)

ATC controls only IFR flights.

c)

the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.

33.

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of

a)

tumbling backwards.

b)

a nose-up attitude.

c)

a descent with the wings level.

34.

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

a)

pilot disorientation.

b)

false horizontal.

c)

elevator illusion.

35.

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of

a)

spinning in the opposite direction.

b)

being in a nose-up attitude.

c)

diving into the ground.

36.

Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?

a)

Attitude indicator.

b)

Heading indicator or magnetic compass.

c)

Ball of the turn coordinator.

37.

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

a)

You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.

b)

You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft insight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.

c)

You must have the airport insight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

38.

When may you obtain a contact approach?

a)

ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the runway in sight and are clear of clouds

b)

ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the clouds and the visibility is at least 1 mile

c)

ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile.

39.

Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of

a)

rising or falling.

b)

turning.

c)

motion reversal.

40.

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even through a rule has not been violated?

a)

When priority has been given.

b)

Any time an emergency occurs.

c)

When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.