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WorksheetsHazmat Bite 42
Total questions: 42
Worksheet time: 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Who approved SOG 7 for issue ?
a)
National Directorate for fire and emergency Management
b)
Defence forces Ordance Disposal
c)
Dept. of Environment
d)
H.S.A
2.
SOG 7.01 Deal with what ?
a)
Explosives
b)
Gases
c)
Flamible Solids
d)
Toxic and Infectious substances
3.
What SOG deals with toxic and infectious substances ?
a)
7.06
b)
7.01
c)
7.02
d)
7.08
4.
What SOG deals with Acetylene ?
a)
5.02
b)
5.1
c)
5.15
d)
5.11
5.
SOG 5.01 deals with what ?
a)
Electricty
b)
Gas
c)
Asbestos
d)
Acetylene
6.
Oxidising Agents and Organic peroxides are covered under what SOG ?
a)
7.05
b)
7.06
c)
7.07
d)
7.08
7.
Who's responsibility is it to provide clinical decontamination ?
a)
HSE
b)
HAS
c)
Defence Forces
d)
Fire Authority
8.
Hazardous material may have how many hazardous affects ?
a)
8
b)
4
c)
6
d)
10
9.
use of gas light in ardous working conditions may result in what form of wearer ?
a)
Heat Stress & Fatigue
b)
Stroke & Fatugue
c)
Severe Sweating
d)
Disorientation
10.
Where should the DSU and tally be located ona CPC suit ?
a)
Externally
b)
Internally
c)
None Fitted
11.
CPC Suits should be tested in accordance with what ?
a)
Manufacturers Instructions
b)
Bridge Policy
c)
HAS Policy
d)
Best Practice
12.
Pre planning for the mat incidents may include suitable specialist equipment visits to high risk site and what ?
a)
Operational training
b)
Emergency response teams
c)
Handout material
d)
Chem data material
13.
What is the EN number for a disposable gas tight suit ?
a)
943-2-2002 (type 1)
b)
943-2-2002 (type 2)
c)
943-2-2002
d)
943-2-2001
14.
What is the En number of a reusable Gas tight Suit ?
a)
464.1994
b)
464.1995
c)
464.1997
d)
464.1993
15.
Time in the risk area in a CPC suit may be limited to how many mins by I.C?
a)
20 Mins
b)
10 Mins
c)
15 Mins
d)
25 Mins
16.
How many points does the hazmat analytical risk assessment have ?
a)
10
b)
8
c)
6
d)
11
17.
Where possible appliances should approach what way ?
a)
Up Hill, Up Wind
b)
Down Hill, Up Wind
c)
Up Hill, Down Wind
d)
Down Hill, Down Wind
18.
How Many zones are there at a chemical incident ?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
2
d)
5
19.
Minimum level of PPE at Hazmat incident if no information is available on possible chemical present is ?
a)
Full Fire Kit with BA and gloves
b)
Full Fire kit with Gloves
c)
Full Fire Kit with CPC
d)
Pull Ups and Gloves
20.
What type of communication should be used at hazmat incidents ?
a)
Intrinsically
b)
Standard
c)
Digital
d)
De-ionised
21.
What is the standard length of a decontamination ara ?
a)
35 mtrs
b)
40 mtrs
c)
30 mtrs
d)
50 mtrs
22.
What type of decontamination is carried out by HSE ?
a)
Clinical
b)
Physical
c)
Emergency
d)
Initial
23.
Where reponders are wearing CPC and require emergency decontamination, what procedure should be considered ?
a)
Peel Back
b)
Peel Up
c)
Cut Out
d)
DOF
24.
What percentage of contamination is removed by removing outer layers in a controlled way ?
a)
0.8
b)
0.75
c)
0.6
d)
0.7
25.
The use of a Fire serivce shower system at noraml pressure is not recommended unless BA is worn, why ?
a)
Irrespirable athmsphere
b)
Hypothermia
c)
Danger to eyesight
d)
Can be used
26.
Exposure occurs when a harmful substance ?
a)
Enters the body
b)
Is Seen
c)
When we can hear gas leak
d)
Substance leaves it container
27.
How many types of de-contamination are there ?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
28.
Primary decontamination is divided into two levels for fire fighters - what are they ?
a)
Initial / Full
b)
Initial / Partial
c)
Partial / Full
d)
Clinical / Primary
29.
Hazmat incident crew attendance form is know as what ?
a)
Annex A
b)
Annex B
c)
A.F.1
d)
I.S 9002
30.
Personal Exposure record is know as what
a)
Annex B
b)
Annex A
c)
A.F.1
d)
I.S 9002
31.
Annex A should be filled in when what is worn at a Hazmat incident ?
a)
CPC
b)
B.A
c)
Rubber Gawntlets
d)
Full Fire Kit and BA
32.
The original copy of for Annex A should be kept where ?
a)
Fire Service HQ
b)
Station Office
c)
Safety Statement
d)
A&E Dept
33.
How many phases are there at a Hazmat incident ?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
4
d)
3
34.
How many safety triggers are there used in mobilising to a hazmat incidents
a)
3
b)
2
c)
1
d)
4
35.
How many casualities are required at a Hazmat incident before ETHANE message is sent ?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
1
36.
What does the H stand for in a ETHANE message ?
a)
Hazard
b)
Hot Zones
c)
Hospitals on standby
d)
Helipad locations
37.
A small spill involving liquid is how much ?
a)
Less than 200L
b)
Less than 100L
c)
Less than 75L
d)
Less than 50L
38.
A Small Spill involving solids is how much ?
a)
Less than 300kg
b)
Less than 350kgs
c)
Less than 200kgs
d)
Less than 100kgs
39.
In the dynamic risk assessment for the Hazmat incident we should identify and use transportation documents and MSDS what does - MSDS stand for ?
a)
Material Safety Data sheet
b)
Material Source Data Supply
c)
Minimum Safety Distance Stats
d)
Multiple Source Display Sheets
40.
If Explosives are involved in a fire what is the initial cordon distance ?
a)
Exclusion Distance
b)
200Mts
c)
600Mts
d)
1600Mts
41.
In a Hazmat incident valving down or remote isolation are examples of what type of action ?
a)
Defensive contamination
b)
Offensice contamination
c)
Transitional contamination
d)
Let it burn ploicy
42.
In a Hazmat incident containment, leak sealing and deconating are examples of action ?
a)
Offensive
b)
Defensive
c)
Transitional
d)
Stand By
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