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Medical Micro Lecture 3: Respiratory

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

resident microbes of the upper respiratory tract (URT):

a)

Streptococcus pneumonia

b)

Haemophilus influenzae

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Bordetella pertussis

2.

functions of the URT:

a)

provide barrier to pathogen and entry and growth

b)

produce alveolar fluid to help the epithelial lining

c)

defenses limit microbe colonization of the LRT

d)

influence abiotic component like acidity and oxygen availbility

3.

The URT has both mechanical and chemical mechanisms of defense:

a)

mucociliary clearance

b)

antimicrobial substances

c)

alveolar fluid

d)

macrophages

4.

resident microbes in the LRT are the exact same as the resident microbes in the URT:

a)

True

b)

False - very different microbes in LRT

c)

False - similar but reduced numbers in LRT

d)

False - LRT has no resident microbes

5.

cells lining the respiratory and alveolar bronchioles are not ciliated

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Diseases of the LRT:

a)

Bordetella pertusis (whooping cough)

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculosis)

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Bacterial pneumonia

e)

SARS-CoV-2

7.

The LRT includes:

a)

nasal cavity

b)

pharynx

c)

larynx

d)

trachea

e)

right and left bronchi

8.

In the hypothesis "The Local Microbial Ecosystem Supports Respiratory Health", the commensal bacteria in microbe-microbe interactions may:

a)

inhibit growth of pathogenic strains by competing for adhesion receptors on mucosal surface as well as nutrients

b)

promote low-level inflammation and increase suspeptibility to pathogenic strains

c)

clear invaders if excessive numbers of microbes enter the alveoli

d)

influence abiotic component like acidity and ocygen availability, which could inhibit pathogenic strains

9.

causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis "strep throat":

a)

streptococcus pyogenes

b)

corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

mycoplasma pneumoniae

10.

All of these are used in diagnoses of strep throat EXCEPT:

a)

rapid strep test

b)

gram stain

c)

culture

d)

clinical examination

11.

suppurative complications of strep throat:

a)

otitis media

b)

sinusitis

c)

rheumatic fever

d)

scarlet fever

e)

glomerulonephritis

12.

non-suppurative complications of strep throat:

a)

otitis media

b)

sinusitis

c)

rheumatic fever

d)

scarlet fever

e)

glomerulonephritis

13.

Antibiotics reduce complications in strep throat.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

causative agent of Diphtheria:

a)

streptococcus pyogenes

b)

corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

mycoplasma pneumoniae

15.

Injection of diphtheria ______ is used for diptheria vaccination

a)

virus

b)

exotoxin

c)

endotoxin

d)

toxoid

16.

Treatment for diphtheria includes:

a)

antibiotics and antitoxins

b)

no antibiotics, only antitoxins

c)

antibiotics, no antitoxins

d)

no antibiotics and no antitoxins

17.

The _____ is the most commonly infected part of the URT.

a)

nose

b)

pharynx

c)

epiglottis

d)

larynx

18.

acute sinusitis is caused by:

a)

indigenous microbes of the URT

b)

indigenous microbes of the LRT

c)

bacteria that enter the URT

d)

bacteria that enter the LRT

19.

symptoms in chronic sinusitis are more subtle than in acute sinusitis

a)

True

b)

False

20.

pain occurs more often in chronic sinusitis than in acute sinusitis

a)

True

b)

False

21.

causative agents of otitis externa "swimmer's ear":

a)

streptococcus

b)

staphylococcus

c)

catarrhalis

d)

pseudomonas

22.

causative agents of acute otitis media:

a)

S. pneumoniae

b)

H. influenzae

c)

Moraxella catarrhalis

d)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

23.

Cold symptoms are

a)

Slow

b)

Abrupt

24.

Flu symptoms are

a)

Slow

b)

Abrupt

25.

_________ is non-replicating adenovirus that expressed SARS-CoV-2 spike protein

a)

COVID-19 virus

b)

COVID-19 vaccine

c)

MERS virus

d)

MERS vaccine

26.

causative agent of SARS:

a)

SARS-CoV-1

b)

SARS-CoV-2

27.

causative agent of COVID19:

a)

SARS-CoV-1

b)

SARS-CoV-2

28.

SARS is an emerging infectious disease of the family:

a)

adenoviridae

b)

hepoviridae

c)

picornaviridae

d)

coronaviridae

29.

complications of COVID19 include:

a)

respiratory failure

b)

cadiac

c)

thromboembolic

d)

neurologic

e)

sinusitis

30.

Which of these were an adverse effect in the COVID19 vaccine (ex: Johnson and Johnson):

a)

thrombosis/clotting

b)

heart arthymia

c)

respiratory failure

d)

scarlet fever

31.

causative agent of whooping cough:

a)

bordetella pertussis

b)

streptococcus pyogenes

c)

streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

corynebacterium diphtheriae

32.

Whooping cough vaccine for people 7 years or older:

a)

Tdap

b)

DTap

33.

Whooping cough vaccine for children 6 weeks to 7 years old:

a)

Tdap

b)

DTap

34.

This stage of whooping cough includes general malaise, low-grade fever, increasingly severe cough

a)

initial (catarrhal)

b)

second stage (paroxysmal)

35.

This stage of whooping cough includes cells and mucus accumulating in the airways and cause labored breathing:

a)

initial (catarrhal)

b)

second stage (paroxysmal)

36.

newer whooping cough vaccine contains:

a)

B. pertussis chemical extracts

b)

B. pertussis killed cells

37.

causative agent of Tuberculosis (TB):

a)

bordetella pertussis

b)

streptococcus pyogenes

c)

corynebacterium diphtheriae

d)

mycobacterium tuberculosis

38.

develops within 3 months and can be transmitted to others

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

39.

within first week of inhalation of bacillus

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

40.

bacilli growth and destruction by macrophages are balanced

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

41.

no symptoms or signs of active disease

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

42.

outcome depends on amount of TB bacilli and strength of macrophage and lasts until the third week after initial infection:

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

43.

primary complex doesn't heal and TB bacilli become re-activated 12-24 months after initial infection

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

44.

not contagious

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

45.

macrophages accumulate in the lung and form a tubercle that harbors M. tuberculosis

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

46.

sputum coughed from the LRT may contain blood and coughing spreads disease in those with:

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

47.

lung cavitation is another name for:

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

48.

initial macrophage response is another name for:

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Active TB

49.

the development of active tubercles throughout the body

a)

Primary TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Clinical TB

d)

Miliary TB

50.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis cannot be gram stained

a)

True

b)

False

51.

what are reasons for a false positive TB mantoux test:

a)

previous TB exposure

b)

previous TB test

c)

latent TB

d)

recent TB immunization

52.

a measure of TB exposure, not of active disease

a)

mantoux test

b)

TB blood tests

c)

x-ray

d)

sputum

53.

used in diagnoses of active TB disease:

a)

mantoux test

b)

TB blood tests

c)

x-ray

d)

sputum

54.

Multidrug resistant mycobacterium tuberculosis affect which antibiotics can be used to treat TB. Select antibiotics part of the drug cocktail:

a)

Penicillin

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Rifampicin

d)

Pyrazinamide

e)

Ethambutol

55.

Disease of the bronchioles and alveoli where the lungs are inflamed and filled with fluid:

a)

TB

b)

Common cold

c)

COVID19

d)

Pneumonia

56.

risk factors for MDR pathogens:

a)

prolonged hospitlization

b)

recent TB exposure

c)

recent antibiotic use

d)

community involved work

57.

factors suggestive of HAP or VAP:

a)

new onset fever

b)

nonprulent sputum

c)

leukocytosis

d)

decrease in oxygenation

e)

new lung infiltrate on chest x-ray

58.

which pneumonia diagnoses provides ~75% sensitivity and specificity:

a)

culture of pulmonary secretions

b)

bronchoalveolar lavage (lung washing)

59.

often called walking pneumonia, common in crowded condition, can be caused by mycoplasma pneumoniae -- which is beta-lactam resistant and lacks gram staining:

a)

healthcare-acquired

b)

community-acquired

c)

atypical

d)

ventilator-acquired

60.

pneumonia transmitted from contaminated water source:

a)

healthcare-acquired

b)

community-acquired

c)

atypical

d)

ventilator-acquired

61.

pneumonia that appears 48 hours after admission

a)

healthcare-acquired

b)

community-acquired

c)

atypical

d)

ventilator-acquired

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