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BIO 189 Midterm Review Fall B 2025

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Which type of transport mechanism uses ATP?

a)

Active Transport

b)

Passive Transport

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Osmosis

2.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Which of the following levels of classification would best describe all species within a given area?

a)

Community

b)

Population

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Biosphere

3.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Bacteria will live within communities by sharing a slime layer that is excreted by their capsules. This is known as a _________.

a)

Biofilm

b)

Pili

c)

Cilia

d)

Commune

4.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. From a single molecule of glucose, ___ molecules of ___ and a net gain of _ molecules of ATP are formed at the end of glycolysis.

a)

2; pyruvate; 2

b)

2; acetic acid; 4

c)

4; citric acid; 2

d)

2; CO2; 4

5.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. What statement explains the difference between alcoholic and lactate fermentation?

a)

The end product of alcoholic fermentation is ethanol, while the end product of lactate fermentation is lactate.

b)

Alcoholic fermentation is an anaerobic pathway, while lactate fermentation is an aerobic pathway.

c)

Alcoholic fermentation produces lactate, while lactate fermentation produces ethanol.

d)

Lactate fermentation only occurs in prokaryotes, but alcoholic fermentation occurs in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

6.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. What is the term for a metabolic regulatory mechanism where the product of a reaction slows or stops the pathway that produces it?

a)

Feedback inhibition

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Metabolic inhibition

d)

Enzyme blocking

7.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Diffusion is the spontaneous spreading of atoms or molecules through a fluid or gas in a passive manner. What term best describes diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Tonicity

c)

Active Transport

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

8.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. A study on the effectiveness of an appetite suppressant diet pill provided half the participants with the pill and the other half with a placebo. But with only 10 participants in total, the number of participants in the study is too small. What is the issue with this experimental design?

a)

Sampling error

b)

Bias

c)

Experimental error

d)

Qualitative Data

9.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Which of the following accurately depicts the reactants and products from the citric acid cycle (Kreb's cycle)?

a)

Acetyl-CoA --> NADH + FADH2 + CO2 + ATP

b)

Pyruvate --> NADH + FADH2 + CO2 + ATP

c)

Acetyl-CoA --> H2O + ATP

d)

O2 + NADH + FADH2 --> H2O + ATP

10.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Which statement about enzymes is TRUE?

a)

Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.

b)

Enzymes are the products in a chemical reaction.

c)

Enzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction.

d)

Enzymes require inhibitors to function.

11.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Which term describes 6CO2 in this metabolic reaction? C6H12O6 + 6O2 -----> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

a)

Product

b)

Reactant

c)

Reactant and a product

d)

None of the above

12.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. All cells need to produce ATP to survive. Which structure is responsible for ATP production by aerobic respiration in plant and animal cells?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Plasma membrane

13.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Which macromolecule has the highest caloric value per gram?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

14.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. What bonds link amino acids?

a)

Peptide

b)

Glycosidic

c)

Ionic

d)

Hydrogen

15.

Multiple Choice — 2 points. Which option correctly describes the chemical component associated with the macromolecule?

a)

Amino acids contain a carboxyl group

b)

Simple sugars contain phosphate groups

c)

Nucleotides contain hydrophobic tails

d)

Fatty acids contain an amino group.

16.

The average pH of human blood is 7.4. If the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood increased, what would be the effect on the blood's pH?

a)

pH value moving towards 1.

b)

pH value moving towards 14.

c)

pH value remaining at 7.4

d)

Hydrogen ions (H+) would not affect pH.

17.

Scientists have used many methods to classify living things into species. Today, what is the best method for determining species?

a)

Compare biochemical traits such as DNA sequences.

b)

Classify species based on their looks AND where they live.

c)

Group similarly colored and similarly patterned organisms as the same species.

d)

Determine the amount of time organisms spend with each other.

18.

In taxonomy, "Domain" is the broadest category. Which domain would "Homo sapiens" be categorized under?

a)

Eukarya

b)

Archaebacteria

c)

Protists

d)

Fungi

19.

Which of the following accurately describes the level of organization?

a)

Many cells make up tissues.

b)

Organs are composed of organisms.

c)

Tissues come together to form cells.

d)

The biosphere is the least inclusive level of organization.

20.

Which of the following factors does NOT directly affect the rate of enzyme activity?

a)

Atmospheric pressure

b)

Temperature

c)

pH

d)

Substrate concentration

21.

Approximately how much ATP is produced from one molecule of glucose that gets processed in aerobic respiration?

a)

~36-38 ATP

b)

~8-12 ATP

c)

~125-150 ATP

d)

~300-400 ATP

22.

Simple sugars, amino acids, nucleotides, and fatty acids are examples of:

a)

Monomers

b)

Polymers

c)

Lipids

d)

Disaccharides

23.

Select the definition of energy as stated in the textbook.

a)

The capacity to do work.

b)

The ability to create energy.

c)

The energy stored in the arrangement of objects in a system.

d)

Molecules produced by a given reaction.

24.

The scientific name for modern humans is Homo sapiens. What does the term Homo represent in the taxonomic organization?

a)

Genus

b)

Species

c)

Family

d)

Primates

25.

Which of the following is the final electron acceptor for oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

O2 (oxygen)

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

Glucose

26.

Which reaction occurs in the absence of oxygen?

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Aerobic

c)

Semi-aerobic

d)

None of the above

27.

At which stage in cellular respiration is oxygen used to make H2O?

a)

At the end of the electron transport chain.

b)

In the cytoplasm at the beginning of glycolysis.

c)

In the Kreb’s cycle (Citric Acid Cycle).

d)

In the conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA.

28.

In humans, if not enough oxygen is available then the NADH formed during glycolysis is used to convert _____ into ______

a)

Pyruvate; lactate

b)

Pyruvic acid; ethanol

c)

Lactic acid; ethanol

d)

Ethanol; pyruvic acid

29.

Which of the following is "currency in the cell energy economy"?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

Oxygen

d)

H2O

30.

Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n):

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Adenosine

c)

Heat unit

d)

ADP

31.

A red blood cell contains a concentration of 2% salt. Select the option that describes the effect on the red blood cell when it is placed in a 1% salt solution.

a)

The cell will expand and possibly burst.

b)

The cell will shrink.

c)

The cell will remain unchanged, but salt will move out of the cell.

d)

The cell will remain unchanged, but salt will move into the cell.

32.

Which of the following is an example of passive transport?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Sodium- Potassium Pump

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

33.

Proteins are synthesized within the rough ER by the ribosomes. Once produced, these proteins can be transported to which of the following?

a)

Golgi Body (Apparatus)

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

34.

In a condensation reaction, what is the chemical process that occurs?

a)

The formation of a covalent bond between two monomers.

b)

The breakdown of a complex molecule into smaller subunits.

c)

The binding of a substrate to an enzyme's active site.

d)

The transfer of electrons between reactants.

35.

An enzyme only acts on specific reactants, which are called substrates. The location in which the enzyme bonds to the substrate is called:

a)

Active Site

b)

Reactant

c)

Product

d)

Hexokinase

36.

What is the function of an enzyme?

a)

Speed up a particular reaction without being changed by it.

b)

Enter the Kreb’s Cycle and produce ATP.

c)

Monitor the passage of ions in the cell’s membrane.

d)

Intracellular digestion.

37.

Usually, enzymes are ________.

a)

Proteins

b)

Fats

c)

Steroids

d)

Hormones

38.

Reactants go through a reaction to become ______.

a)

Products

b)

Potential Energy

c)

Phosphorylation

d)

Facilitated Transport

39.

Phospholipids are the main component of the cell membrane. They organize themselves into a phospholipid bilayer due to which specific properties?

a)

The fatty acid tails are hydrophobic, and the heads are hydrophilic

b)

The fatty acid tails are hydrophilic, and the heads are hydrophobic

c)

Both the fatty acid tails and heads are hydrophilic

d)

Both the fatty acid tails and heads are hydrophobic

40.

The function of the cell membrane is to:

a)

Control the contents entering and exiting the cell

b)

Synthesize proteins and lipids

c)

Breakdown nutrients to produce ATP

d)

Transport materials throughout the cell

41.

What is the purpose of the endomembrane system?

a)

Building, modifying and transporting proteins and lipids throughout the cell

b)

Producing ATP through the breakdown of nutrients

c)

Breakdown of cellular debris

d)

Control of the movement of DNA from the nucleus

42.

What is the function of ribosomes?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Intracellular digestion

c)

Breaks down toxins

d)

Photosynthesis

43.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nucleus?

a)

Control the function of the ribosomes

b)

Houses the DNA of Eukaryotic cells

c)

Provides protection of the genetic material from the activity occurring in the cytoplasm

d)

Coordinates the passage of certain materials across the nuclear envelope

44.

The function of which organelle is to modify, sort, and package proteins and lipids?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

45.

Chloroplasts are found only in plant cells. What is their function?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Break down nutrients such as glucose to make ATP (energy)

c)

Synthesize proteins

d)

Control the movement of contents into the cell

46.

Which most closely describes the cytosol within the cytoplasm?

a)

Jelly-like mixture of water, sugars, proteins and ions.

b)

The proteins imbedded within the plasma membrane.

c)

An organelle of protein synthesis.

d)

Short hair-like structures that project off the plasma membrane.

47.

Bristles on a broom are used to push materials (sweeping) across a floor. What structure exists to move materials on the surface of the cell?

a)

Cilia

b)

Flagellum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

48.

You look at a cell through a microscope and observe that the cell does not have a nucleus. Identify which type of cell you are likely observing.

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

A plant cell

d)

An animal cell

49.

Which of the following components would NOT be found in an animal cell?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Flagella

d)

Nucleus

50.

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Protein synthesis via attached ribosomes

b)

Store DNA

c)

Produce energy (ATP)

d)

Smooth the surface of the nucleus for protection.

51.

Cells vary in shape and in what they do, but all share certain organizational and functional features. Which features are found in all cells?

a)

Cytosol, DNA, Plasma membrane

b)

Plasma membrane, nucleus, cytosol

c)

Nucleus, cytoplasm, plasma membrane

d)

Plasma membrane, Cytosol, mitochondria

52.

Which of the following is NOT a principle of cell theory?

a)

Cells are only living when part of a multicellular being.

b)

All cells come from preexisting cells

c)

Living organisms are made up of one or more cells

d)

The cell is the basic unit of life

53.

Select the true statement from the following options about a cell’s size:

a)

A surface area greater than the volume of the cell is most efficient.

b)

A surface area equal to the volume of the cell is most efficient.

c)

A volume greater than the surface area of the cell is most efficient.

d)

Material exchange is most efficient in larger volumed cells.

54.

Which of the following statements is true about saturated fats?

a)

Saturated fats have ONLY single bonds.

b)

They are solid at room temperature.

c)

Can be found in dairy, animal fat, and coconut oil.

d)

All of the above are true.

55.

____ are small organic molecules that function as enzyme helpers, chemical messengers, and subunits of DNA and RNA.

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Monosaccharides

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Amino Acids

56.

Which of the following polysaccharides is the main component of the plant cell wall and is indigestible for almost all animals?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Starch

d)

Chitin

57.

When a person’s blood sugar begins to drop, ____ stored within the muscle cells will be broken down into glucose monomers to give the cells a boost of energy.

a)

Glycogen

b)

Starch

c)

Cellulose

d)

Chitin

58.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a complex carbohydrate?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Starch

d)

Cellulose

59.

Substances that dissolve easily in water are described as _______.

a)

Hydrophilic

b)

Unsaturated

c)

Nonpolar

d)

Isotonic

60.

What is the role of a buffer?

a)

To help maintain a pH of the system and resist change.

b)

To make the pH of a system more acidic when the pH is low.

c)

To make the pH of a system more basic when the pH is high.

d)

To always add more H+ ions to a system.