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Audit - Revisions Basics

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What must the auditor state an opinion on...

a)

true & fair view

b)

professional scepticism

2.

Ethical principles, ISA's and professional scepticism are...

a)

general principles for an auditor to follow

b)

what the auditors must state an opinion on

3.

Which of the following is a benefit of a statutory audit?

a)

investors are more able to rely on the information

b)

management are less likely to commit fraud

c)

the business are more able to raise finance

d)

management can verify that their system are sound

e)

all of the above choices

4.

Select the right order of the system.

a)

Sales Order, Quotation, Goods Received Note, Invoice, Receipt

b)

Quotation, Sales Order, Invoice, Goods Received Note, Receipt

c)

Quotation, Sales Order, Goods Received Note, Invoice, Receipt

d)

Invoice, Sales Order, Goods Received Note, Quotation, Receipt

5.

What sort of evidence is needed for a reasonable assurance engagement?

a)

Sufficient

b)

Reasonable

6.

A Quotation has been made ………… the sales order placed.

a)

before

b)

after

7.

Which of the following is a drawback of statutory audit?

a)

Many controls can be overridden by management.

b)

Not all transactions are checked.

c)

The opinion is based on evidence, often provided by management.

d)

Many businesses with a recent clean audit report have subsequently gone out of business.

e)

All of the choices

8.

Which of the following is a general principle for the auditor to follow?

a)

Compliance with International Standard on Auditing

b)

Compliance with applicable ethical principles

c)

Keeping an attitude of professional scepticism when planning and performing the audit

9.

1.Auditors are required to express an opinion as to whether the financial statements give a ‘true and fair’ view.

2. An audit is a type of reasonable assurance engagement.

a)

both statements are true

b)

both statements are false

c)

statement 1 is false

d)

statement 2 is false

10.

Poor quality evidence is derived from...

a)

Management

b)

Auditor

c)

Third party

11.

____________means that in their opinion the subject has been prepared in accordance with the criteria.

a)

external audit

b)

negative assurance

c)

reasonable assurance

d)

none of the choices

12.

Control deficiencies are normally provided to management - how?

a)

Letter to Management

b)

Letter to Auditor

c)

Letter to Service Organisation

13.

What sort of assurance does a reasonable assurance engagement give?

a)

High

b)

Low

14.

Which of the following is a reason why a non statutory audit is undertaken?

a)

Making a sale of the business easier

b)

Providing assurance to the owners over financial results

c)

Making accounts more acceptable to Tax authorities

d)

Providing assurance to those financing the business

15.

The auditor may ask management to confirm in writing matters which have arisen during the audit.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

1.If Inherent & Control risk are judged to be high, then to minimise overall audit risk, the auditor must attempt to minimise detection risk.

2. The auditor concentrates on inherent risk to minimise the audit risk.

a)

both statements are true

b)

both statements are false

c)

statement 1 is false

d)

statement 2 is false

17.

Do ISA's sometimes specifically request a management representation?

a)

Yes

b)

No

18.

As a general rule, the smaller the tolerable misstatement or rate of deviation, the greater the required sample size.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

When creating a management letter in the exam - the format of the structure will have 3 things..

Deficiency, Consequence and.... ?

a)

Effect

b)

Recommendation

20.

If not a going concern then a company uses the break up basis for their accounts..

Here, inventory is measured at ?

a)

net realisable value

b)

cost

21.

Generally should you give a loan to a client?

a)

yes

b)

no

22.

A professional accountant should act in a manner consistent with the good reputation of the profession.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

1.Material items could be large transactions or significant events.

2. Materiality is important to the auditor because if a material item is incorrect, the financial statements will not show a ‘true and fair view.’

a)

both statements are true

b)

both statements are false

c)

statement 1 is false

d)

statement 2 is false

24.

What is step 2 of procedures auditors should have for dealing with threats to independence and conflicts of interest?

a)

Evaluate what level of risk they pose

b)

Check that necessary safeguards are in place

25.

Which risk is under the influence of the auditor?

a)

Detection

b)

Control

26.

Which analytical procedure would be the most likely at the planning stage?

a)

Confirming balances with predictions based on previous patterns

b)

Checking receivables listing for overdue amounts

27.

These test the systems in place by determining whether the controls over it are sufficient or not.

a)

test of control

b)

substantive procedures

c)

analytical procedures

d)

none of the choices

28.

Analytical procedures is an appropriate test for auditing payroll.

a)

true

b)

false

29.

Which of the following is most likely to improve the response rate of the receivables confirmation letter?

a)

Break down the balance into a list of invoices for the client to check

b)

Use only large owing customers

c)

Use only small owing customers

30.

Efficiency of the audit team, can be improved at the planning stage by...

a)

Focusing on risk areas

b)

Highlighting the importance of the audit

c)

Allocating more than enough recources

31.

What do you call the risk that the auditor expresses an inappropriate audit opinion when the financial statements are materially misstated?

a)

inherent risk

b)

risk assessment

c)

audit risk

d)

control risk

32.

In going concern review the auditor will:

Look at the ______________ of the industry

a)

past performance

b)

economic conditions

33.

In terms of bank and cash - a strong internal control is a bank __________ ?

a)

reconciliation

b)

confirmation

34.

1.Time spent planning the audit to ensure it is carried out efficiently will reduce the time taken and thus the cost.

2.The auditor will want to ensure that the correct team is in place to conduct the audit, they are working efficiently and that work is focused on material areas of risk and potential problem areas.

a)

both statements are true

b)

both statements are false

c)

statement 1 is false

d)

statement 2 is false

35.

Is ensuring daily back ups of information systems an example of an application control or a general IT control?

a)

Application control

b)

General IT control

36.

If the advertisement implies that the Audit firm can offer a ‘better’ audit opinion than other firms, it is ......

a)

Lacking of integrity

b)

Professional

37.

Could the contingent fees be used for corporate finance services offered to non-audit clients?

a)

Yes

b)

No

38.

The IASB has the power to enforce compliance with IASs/ IFRSs. Is this statement?

a)

True

b)

False

39.

1.A narrative note is a written description of the system showing what happens and the controls operating at each stage.

2.Narrative notes can become too much, especially if the system is complex. This is one advantage of narrative note.

a)

both statements are false

b)

both statements are true

c)

statement 1 is false

d)

statement 2 is false

40.

Continuous counting helps avoid the potential disruption of an annual count at the year end of the reporting period.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Do substantive tests always get evidence from the client accounting system?

a)

Yes - as this is the best evidence

b)

No - sometimes direct from 3rd parties

42.

Does Going Concern require judgement?

a)

Yes

b)

No

43.

Does the auditor have to use substantive tests?

a)

Yes for every material balance

b)

Not all material balances

44.

This is when the auditor accepts the error. For example finding two errors out of 1000 tested might be ignored.

a)

risk assessment

b)

materiality

c)

tolerable error

d)

none of the choices

45.

In preparing a management letter, the auditor should write the consequences is the control weaknesses were not corrected.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

____________uses random selection to select samples and then assesses the results using probability theory

a)

statistical

b)

non statistical

c)

none of the above

47.

The form and content of the accounts of limited liability companies are PRIMARILY regulated by:

a)

International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRSs)

b)

National legislation

c)

International Accounting Standards (IASs)

d)

None of the above

48.

What are the objectives of the IASB?

a)

To enforce IFRSs

b)

To issue IFRSs

49.

Net assets of any business acquired should be measured at what value?

a)

Fair value

b)

Book Value

50.

Documentation enables an experienced auditor with no previous connection to the audit to understand...

Procedures, evidence, significant matters and ?

a)

Completeness of work

b)

Who performed the work

c)

The time taken

d)

Judgements used

51.

1. Collusion may occur even if the internal controls are strong.

2. The specific circumstances of the entity make some controls unworkable or be manipulated in practice by those involved in the system.

a)

both statements are true

b)

both statements are false

c)

statement 1 is false

d)

statement 2 is false

52.

Testing for completeness is easier or harder than testing for existence?

a)

Harder

b)

Easier

53.

One of the substantive test for prepayment auditing is reviewing the list for omissions.


What will the auditor use or based on for this test?

a)

Knowledge of client business

b)

A standard checklist

c)

Third party confirmations

d)

Prior year's working paper

54.

Are analytical procedures used only at the planning stage?

a)

Yes

b)

No

55.

If the client is a bank, and a member of the audit team has a loan from them - is this a problem?

a)

Yes

b)

No

56.

Is ensuring that items are within a certain range an example of an application control or a general IT control?

a)

Application control

b)

General IT control

57.

Goods received before year end - should be shown in inventory and as a ________ ?

a)

Liability

b)

Receivable

c)

Cash

d)

Equity

58.

Research costs should be shown as an intangible asset.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The advantage of flowcharting is that it makes it easy to view the system as a whole because it is presented in one diagram.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The _______ sets out the scope, timing and direction of the audit.

a)

risk assessment

b)

engagement letter

c)

audit strategy

d)

none of the choices

61.

Internal controls will have a direct effect on audit risk.

a)

true

b)

false

62.

Who sends out the bank confirmation letter?

a)

Auditor

b)

Management

63.

1.All misstatements found must be communicated to those charged with governance.

2.If management amend material errors, then the auditor will issue a qualified report.

a)

both statements are true

b)

both statements are false

c)

statement 1 is true

d)

statement 2 is true

64.

Which of the following is a substantive test for payables-trade?

a)

check arithmetical accuracy

b)

get a list of balances

c)

check a sample from supplier statements to listing

d)

all of the choices

65.

The planning section will be found in which file?

a)

Current

b)

Permanent

66.

This type of modified but still unqualified report draws attention to fundamental issue in the financial statements.

a)

emphasis of matter

b)

other matters

c)

adverse opinion

d)

none of the choices

67.

If management have acted on recommendations made by internal audit, then the external auditor may choose to rely on some of the work of internal audit.

a)

True

b)

False