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Heart and Angie

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It contracts so as to eject oxygenated blood for distribution to different organs and tissues.

a)

SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

b)

DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

2.

The pressure that is generated due to heart's ventricular contraction

a)

SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

b)

DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

3.

It relaxes to accommodate the re-entering oxygen-poor blood for another round of oxygenation

a)

SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

b)

DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

4.

The pressure that is created due to heart's ventricular relaxation

a)

SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

b)

DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE

5.

Greatest pressure is being observed in the _____, since the blood that passes through them was ejected due to ventricular contraction

a)

arteries

b)

veins

6.

Least pressure is seen when blood passes through the ___________, hence the movement of blood that re-enters the heart is slower

a)

arteries

b)

veins

7.

Chronotropy means

a)

the number of heart beats per minute

b)

the volume of blood pumped out by heart with every contraction

c)

volume of blood in the heart (ventricles) prior to contraction

d)

increased amount of water and Na

8.

Blood Volume means

a)

the number of heart beats per minute

b)

the volume of blood pumped out by heart with every contraction

c)

volume of blood in the heart (ventricles) prior to contraction

d)

increased amount of water and Na

9.

Stroke Volume means

a)

the number of heart beats per minute

b)

the volume of blood pumped out by heart with every contraction

c)

volume of blood in the heart (ventricles) prior to contraction

d)

increased amount of water and Na

10.

Cardiac preload means

a)

the number of heart beats per minute

b)

the volume of blood pumped out by heart with every contraction

c)

volume of blood in the heart (ventricles) prior to contraction

d)

increased amount of water and Na

11.

This is important in maintaining BP with changes in body position or posture and for rapid BP regulation

a)

Baroreceptor Reflex

b)

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

12.

This is important in in long-term BP regulation

a)

Baroreceptor Reflex

b)

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

13.

It is a potent vasoconstrictor that elicits effects which are contributory factors leading to an increase in blood pressure

a)

renin

b)

angiotensin I

c)

angiotensin II

d)

aldosterone

14.

Which of these factors could both lead to increase cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance

a)

atherosclerosis

b)

hypervolemia

c)

stress

d)

thyroid dysfunction

15.

no progressive target organ dysfunction

a)

Hypertensive Urgency

b)

Hypertensive Emergency

c)

Resistant HTN

d)

Isolated Systolic HTN

16.

also known as Malignant HTN

a)

Hypertensive Urgency

b)

Hypertensive Emergency

c)

Isolated Systolic HTN

d)

Resistant HTN

17.

SBP >140 mmHg

occurs frequently in the elderly (5th decade)

non-pharmacologic treatment should be attempted initially

a)

Hypertensive Urgency

b)

Hypertensive Emergency

c)

Isolated Systolic HTN

d)

Resistant HTN

18.

uncontrolled HTN with 3 or more antihypertensive agents

a)

Hypertensive Urgency

b)

Hypertensive Emergency

c)

Isolated Systolic HTN

d)

Resistant HTN

19.

lower blood pressure by depleting the body of sodium and reducing blood volume and perhaps by other mechanisms

a)

Diuretics

b)

Sympathoplegic agents

c)

Direct vasodilators

d)

Angiotensin blockers

20.

lower blood pressure by reducing peripheral vascular resistance, inhibiting cardiac function, and increasing venous pooling in capacitance vessels (the latter two effects reduce cardiac output)

a)

Diuretics

b)

Sympathoplegic agents

c)

Direct vasodilators

d)

Angiotensin blockers

21.

reduce pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, thus dilating resistance vessels and—to varying degrees—increasing capacitance as well

a)

Diuretics

b)

Sympathoplegic agents

c)

Direct vasodilators

d)

Angiotensin blockers

22.

Furosemide

a)

Loop diuretic

b)

Thiazide diuretic

c)

Potassium-sparing diuretic

d)

Osmotic Diuretic

23.

Metolazone

a)

Loop diuretic

b)

Thiazide diuretic

c)

Potassium-sparing diuretic

d)

Osmotic Diuretic

24.

Spironolactone

a)

Loop diuretic

b)

Thiazide diuretic

c)

Potassium-sparing diuretic

d)

Osmotic Diuretic

25.

Mannitol

a)

Loop diuretic

b)

Thiazide diuretic

c)

Potassium-sparing diuretic

d)

Osmotic Diuretic

26.

Clinical Use of Thiazide Diuretics

a)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

b)

Acute Pulmonary edema, and other edematous condition

c)

Hyperaldosteronism

d)

reduce aqueous humor formation leading to decrease in IntraOccular Pressure

27.

Clinical Use of Loop Diuretics

a)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

b)

Acute Pulmonary edema, and other edematous condition

c)

Hyperaldosteronism

d)

reduce aqueous humor formation leading to decrease in IntraOccular Pressure

28.

Clinical Use of Potassium-Sparing Diuretics

a)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

b)

Acute Pulmonary edema, and other edematous condition

c)

Hyperaldosteronism

d)

reduce aqueous humor formation leading to decrease in IntraOccular Pressure

29.

Clinical Use of Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Diuretics

a)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

b)

Acute Pulmonary edema, and other edematous condition

c)

Hyperaldosteronism

d)

reduce aqueous humor formation leading to decrease in IntraOccular Pressure

30.

It is used for the management of hypertension in pregnancy

a)

methyldopa

b)

clonidine

c)

reserpine

d)

bretylium

31.

It is used for the management of hypertensive crisis and management of HTN in patients on hemodialysis

a)

methyldopa

b)

clonidine

c)

reserpine

d)

bretylium

32.

It inhibits vesicular uptake of norepinephrine

a)

methyldopa

b)

clonidine

c)

reserpine

d)

bretylium

33.

diltiazem

a)

oral vasodilator

b)

parenteral vasodilator

c)

calcium channel blocker

34.

hydralazine

a)

oral vasodilator

b)

parenteral vasodilator

c)

calcium channel blocker

35.

nitroprusside

a)

oral vasodilator

b)

parenteral vasodilator

c)

calcium channel blocker

36.

MECHANISM OF VASODILATION: Opening of potassium channels and hyperpolarization

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Fenoldopam

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers

d)

Minoxidil

37.

MECHANISM OF VASODILATION: Release of nitric oxide

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Fenoldopam

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers

d)

Minoxidil

38.

MECHANISM OF VASODILATION: Activation of dopamine receptors

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Fenoldopam

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers

d)

Minoxidil

39.

Vasodilators that are used to treat hypertensive emergencies

a)

oral vasodilators

b)

parenteral vasodilators

c)

calcium channel blockers

d)

nitrates

40.

Vasodilators that are used to mainly treat angina

a)

oral vasodilators

b)

parenteral vasodilators

c)

calcium channel blockers

d)

nitrates

41.

vasodilators work best in combination with _____ to oppose the compensatory cardiovascular responses like peripheral edema.

a)

beta blockers

b)

calcium channel blockers

c)

diuretics

d)

sodium channel blockers

42.

vasodilators work best in combination with _____ to oppose the compensatory cardiovascular responses like reflex tachycardia.

a)

beta blockers

b)

calcium channel blockers

c)

diuretics

d)

sodium channel blockers

43.

Alternative only drugs for hypertension

a)

beta blockers

b)

calcium channel blockers

c)

diuretics

d)

sodium channel blockers

44.

1st line in management of hypertension especially among patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and/or diabetes mellitus (DM)

a)

beta blockers

b)

calcium channel blockers

c)

diuretics

d)

ACE inhibitors

45.

Adverse effects of ACE inhibitors

a)

Interstitial nephritis

b)

Hypotension

c)

Idiosyncratic dry cough

d)

Bilateral renal artery stenosis 

46.

decreased oxygenation of myocardium but myocardial cells are still viable

a)

Ischemia

b)

Infarction

47.

absence of oxygenation leading to myocardial necrosis or cell death, which is replaced by fibrous tissue by fibrosis

a)

Ischemia

b)

Infarction

48.

chest pain lasting for at least 20mins and unrelieved by rest of SL nitrates

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

49.

Also known as Effort Angina; Classic Angina

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

50.

chest pain lasting for 2-5 minutes precipitated by physical exertion or emotional stress ; and usually relieved with patients resting or SL nitrates

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

51.

Also called Variant Angina; Vasospastic Angina; Angina Invers

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

52.

Due to transient spasm of localized portions of the blood vessels, usually associated with underlying atheromas

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

53.

Pain occurs principally at rest, usually unprovoked by physical exertion

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

54.

Oxygen delivery decreases as a result of reversible coronary vasospasm leading to decreased blood oxygen supply

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

55.

Myocardial oxygen requirement is not proportional to coronary blood flow leading to increased myocardial oxygen demand

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

56.

Management of treatment is to decrease oxygen demand and increase the perfusion of ischemic subendocardial tissue, wherein the following drugs may be used: β-blockers, Nitrovasodilators, Calcium Channel blockers

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

57.

Management of treatment is to counteract vasospasm and increase oxygen being supplied by the coronary arteries with the use of the following agents: Nitrovasodilators, Calcium Channel blockers

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome

b)

Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

58.

Mechanism of Action: activate guanylyl cyclase and increase cyclic guanine nucleotides (cGMP). This activates cGMP-dependent kinases, ultimately leading to dephosphorylation of myosin light chain and relaxation of the contractile apparatus of vascular smooth muscles

a)

oral vasodilators

b)

parenteral vasodilators

c)

calcium channel blockers

d)

nitrates

59.

At regular / low doses: (ISDN 5mg SL, 60 mg SL), the primary effect is peripheral venodilation, which decreases in venous return/preload. Such effects would result in decreased stroke volume, thus anti-anginal effect

a)

oral vasodilators

b)

parenteral vasodilators

c)

calcium channel blockers

d)

nitrates

60.

Amyl nitrite

a)

Very short-acting nitrovasodilator

b)

Short-acting nitrovasodilator

c)

Intermediate acting nitrovasodilator

d)

Long-acting nitrovasodilator

61.

Isosorbide dinitrate

a)

Very short-acting nitrovasodilator

b)

Short-acting nitrovasodilator

c)

Intermediate acting nitrovasodilator

d)

Long-acting nitrovasodilator

62.

nitroglycerin sublingual

a)

Very short-acting nitrovasodilator

b)

Short-acting nitrovasodilator

c)

Intermediate acting nitrovasodilator

d)

Long-acting nitrovasodilator

63.

Methemoglobinemia is observed as a side effect with:

a)

Amyl nitrite

b)

Isosorbide dinitrate

c)

nitroglycerin

d)

Isosorbide mononitrate

64.

1st line maintenance treatment for CSAP

a)

beta blockers

b)

calcium channel blockers

c)

nitrates

d)

vasodilators

65.

Prevent reflex tachycardia associated with nitrovasodilators at high doses

a)

beta blockers

b)

calcium channel blockers

c)

nitrates

d)

vasodilators

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