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RAPID REVISION QUIZ

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

ORDER OF MANGO

a)

PRIMATA

b)

CARNIVORA

c)

DIPTERA

d)

SAPINDALES

2.

ORDER OF WHEAT

a)

SAPINDALES

b)

POACEAE

c)

POALES

d)

PRIMATA

3.

A PAIR OF CONTRASTING STATEMENT IS CALLED

a)

KEY

b)

LEAD

c)

COUPLET

d)

HERBARIUM

4.

PLANTS DRIED AND PASTED TO FORM

a)

MUSEUMS

b)

BOTANY

c)

BOTANICAL GARDENS

d)

HERBARIUM

5.

Taxon is the _________________

a)

Species

b)

Unit of classification

c)

Highest rank in classification

d)

Group of closely related

6.

Who proposed the five kingdom classification?

a)

Whittaker

b)

Linnaeus

c)

Copeland

d)

Haeckel

7.

Who is the father of modern taxonomy?

a)

Aristotle

b)

Theraphrastus

c)

John Ray

d)

Carolus Linnaeus

8.

Binomial nomenclature refers to

a)

Two names of a species

b)

One specific and one local name of a species

c)

Two words for the name of a species

d)

Two life cycles of an organism

9.

Organisms have the ability to grow in extreme conditions like volcano vents,hot springs and polar ice caps are called ____________.

a)

Methanogens

b)

Halophiles

c)

Pathogens

d)

Extremophiles

10.

Cladogram considers the following characters

a)

Physiological and biochemical

b)

Evolutionary and phylogenetic

c)

Taxonomic and systematic

d)

None of the above

11.

The scientific name of our national bird is ___________.

a)

Pavo cristatus

b)

Zoothera

c)

Panthers tigris

d)

Felis silvestris

12.

Naja naja is the scientific name of ___________.

a)

The Indian lion

b)

The Indian Tiger

c)

The Indian bird

d)

The Indian Cobra

13.

Who wrote the book 'Origin of species'?

a)

Carolus Linnaeus

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Walter Rose

d)

Cavalier Smith

14.

Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?

a)

Musca domestica - the common house lizard, a reptile

b)

Plasmodium falciparum - a protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria.

c)

Felis tigris - the Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.

d)

E.coli - full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.

15.

ICBN stands for:

a)

International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

b)

International Congress of Biological Names

c)

Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

d)

Indian Congress of Biological Names.

16.

Who is called as the Darwin of 20th century ?

a)

Carolus linnaeus

b)

Ernst Mayr

c)

Aristotle

d)

R.H.Whittaker

17.

A famous botanical garden known as Royal Botanical Garden is located in

a)

Lucknow, India

b)

Kew, England

c)

Howrah, India

d)

Darjeeling, India

18.

Animals in zoological parks are kept in

a)

Fully man-made environment

b)

Containers with preservative solutions

c)

Conditions similar to natural habitats

d)

Harbarium sheets

19.

A taxonomical key is used for

a)

Conserving various plant species

b)

Identification of plants and animals

c)

Study geography of a plant

d)

Nomenclature of plants and animals

20.

Flora contains

a)

Dead specimens of plants which are carefully preserved

b)

Collections of skeletons of animals only

c)

Actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area

d)

Information on any one taxon of plants

21.

Information about any one taxon of plants or animals can be found in

a)

Museum

b)

Herbarium

c)

Monograph

d)

Flora

22.

Prokaryotic cells are

a)

cells lack organized nucleus and membrane-bound organelles

b)

Cells that have a nucleus with cell wall and membrane

c)

Cells that are free of ribosomes and DNA

d)

Cells that do not have a membrane or flagellum

23.

2.All statements listed below are true about Chlamydomonas sp. EXCEPT

a)

It has green pigment called chlorophyll

b)

It’s mode of nutrition is autotrophic

c)

It’s grouped under protozoa

d)

It’s store carbohydrate in the form of starch

24.

3.What Kingdom are amoebas, parameciums and euglenas in?

a)

Fungi

b)

Protista

c)

Plantae

d)

Animalia

25.

4.Which protistan has a flagellum, an eyespot, and chloroplasts but can also be heterotrophic?

a)

Paramecium

b)

Amoeba

c)

Trypanosoma

d)

Euglena

26.

The two kingdom Classification was Proposed by

a)

Whittaker

b)

Bentham

c)

Hutchinson

d)

Linnaeus

27.

The five kingdom classification includes the following kingdoms

a)

Monera, Algae, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia

b)

Bacteria, Algae, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia

c)

Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia

d)

Bacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia

28.

Fungi was separated from kingdom Plantae and introduced as a new kingdom because fungi

i) have cell wall which is made of Chitin

ii) are mostly unicellular

iii) are prokaryotic

iv) have heterotrophic mode of nutrition


Chose the correct combination from below

a)

i) and ii)

b)

i) and iii)

c)

i) and iv)

d)

ii) and iv)

29.

Which of the following is not common characteristics of plants and animals in Five kingdom classification

i) Eukaryotic cell type

ii) Presence of Cell wall

iii) Presence of Organ system

iv) Presence of Nuclear membrane

Chose the correct combination from below options

a)

i) and ii)

b)

ii) and iv)

c)

i) and iii)

d)

ii) and iii)

30.

Which of the following is NOT the main criteria for classification proposed by Whittaker?

a)

Cell structure

b)

Mode of nutrition

c)

Locomotion

d)

Phylogenetic Relationship

31.

Mycobiont and Phycobiont forms association in

a)

Mycorrhiza

b)

B-G algae

c)

Lichen

d)

root of higher plants

32.

Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated saprophytes belongs to

a)

Monera

b)

Protista

c)

Fungi

d)

Slime mould

33.

Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by

a)

Ivanowsky

b)

Beijerinck

c)

Stanley

d)

Robert Hook

34.

Which of the following organism is not an eukaryote?

a)

Paramoecium

b)

Euglena

c)

Escherichia

d)

Amoeba

35.

A common nitrogen fixer in paddy field is

a)

Rhizobium

b)

Azospirillum

c)

Frankia

d)

Oscillatoria

36.

The envelope of a virus is called

a)

core

b)

virion

c)

capsid

d)

cell envelope

37.

Which of the following diseases is caused by virus but transmitted by mosquito?

a)

Typhoid

b)

Yellow fever

c)

Plague

d)

COVID-1

38.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Chrysophytes?

a)

parasitic forms causing disease in animals

b)

have protein rich layer called pellicle

c)

have indestructible siliceous cell wall

d)

commonly called dinoflagellates

39.

Sexual reproduction is absent in

a)

Phycomycetes

b)

Ascomycetes

c)

Basidiomycetes

d)

Deuteromycetes

40.

Trypanosoma gambiense causes

a)

kala- azar

b)

sleeping sickness

c)

malaria

d)

dysentry

41.

Which among the following is a Basidiomycetes fungi?

a)

Polyporus

b)

Penicillium

c)

Rhizopus

d)

Trichoderma

42.

Which of the following is not a fungal asexual spore?

a)

Zoospore

b)

Sporangiospore

c)

Conidia

d)

Ascospore

43.

Which of the following is also known as Composer - Decomposer protist?

a)

Euglenoids

b)

Slime moulds

c)

Amoeboid protists

d)

Sporozoan protists

44.

With respect to the fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events.

a)

Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis

b)

Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy

c)

Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis

d)

Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy

45.

The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to

a)

Ascomycetes

b)

Deuteromycetes

c)

Basidiomycetes

d)

Phycomycetes

46.

Cyanobacteria are classified under

a)

Protista

b)

Monera

c)

Plantae

d)

Algae

47.

The giant Redwood tree( Sequoia sempervirens) is a / an

a)

Giant fern

b)

Angiosperm

c)

Gymnosperm

d)

Bryophyte

48.

Gemma cup is found in

a)

Marchantia

b)

Salvinia

c)

Selaginella

d)

Funaria

49.

Holdfast, Stipe and frond are usually found in members of

a)

Chlorophyceae

b)

Phaeophyceae

c)

Rhodophyceae

d)

All algae

50.

Which of the following is a Red alga?

a)

Chara

b)

Laminaria

c)

Fucus

d)

Polysiphonia

51.

Sphagnum is used as a packaging material to transport living plants because (most appropriate)

a)

It is bushy

b)

It lasts long

c)

it is easily available

d)

it retains huge amount of water

52.

Which statement about Brown algae is correct?

a)

Reserve food is Floridean starch

b)

Two Equal apical flagella present

c)

Cell wall made of cellulose and algin

d)

Chlorophyll a and d present

53.

Which of the following is not a Pteridophyte?

a)

Salvinia

b)

Equisitum

c)

Polytrichum

d)

Dryopteris

54.

Prothallus is a

a)

sporophytic stage of fern

b)

gametophytic stage of fern

c)

Sporophytic stage of mosses

d)

gametophytic stage of mosses

55.

Conifers have several adaptive features to reduce water loss. Which one of the following is incorrect?

a)

Needle like leaves

b)

thick cuticle

c)

sunken stomata

d)

producing pollen grains

56.

Find the incorrect match from the following pairs i) Psilopsida - Psilotum, ii) Lycopsida - Lycopodium iii) Sphenopsida - Selaginella iv) Pteropsida - Pteris

a)

i)

b)

ii)

c)

iii)

d)

iv)

57.

Which of the following is not a gymnosperm?

a)

Cycas

b)

Gingko

c)

Pinus

d)

Equisetum

58.

While most of the algal species are haplontic, which among the following is haplo-diplontic?

a)

Fucus

b)

Chara

c)

Polysiphonia

d)

Spirogyra

59.

Study the paired combinations on Classification and find out the incorrect pair: i) Artificial system - based on few characteristics ii) Natural system - natural affinities among organisms iii) Phylogenetic - using computers comparing lot of characteristics iv) Cytotaxonomy- chromosome number, structure etc.

a)

i)

b)

ii)

c)

iii)

d)

iv)

60.

Which of the following pairs is a true aquatic fern?

a)

Azolla, Salvinia

b)

Azolla, Selaginella

c)

Azolla, Lycopodium

d)

Salvinia, Equisetum

61.

Zygotic meiosis is the characteristics of

a)

funaria

b)

chlamydomonas

c)

marchantia

d)

fucus

62.

Non-vascular plants belongs to which group?

a)

pteridophytes

b)

bryophytes

c)

gymnosperms

d)

angiosperms

63.

Which of the following is the unique characteristics for Kingdom Plantae

a)

cell wall consist of peptidoplycan

b)

carbohydrate storage is glycogen

c)

has alternation of generation

d)

motile

64.

Mosses and liverworts are called non-vascular plant because

a)

they lack motile sperm

b)

they lack seed

c)

they lack vascular tissue

d)

they lack true roots, stems and leaves

65.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pteridophytes?

a)

Sporophyte generation is dominant

b)

Gametophyte generation is dominant

c)

Produce spores

d)

Has true roots, stems and leaves

66.
Plants that produce seeds in cones are known as _____, while flower producing plants are known as _____.
a)
Angiosperms; Gymnosperms
b)
Nonvascular plants; Vascular plants
c)
Vascular plants; Nonvascular plants
d)
Gymnosperms; Angiosperms
67.

Alternation of generations in plants refers to the alternation of

a)

diploid and haploid stages

b)

male and female stages

c)

meiotic and mitotic stages

d)

spore and seed stages

68.

Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of these features is unique to them and helps account for their success?

a)

Dominant gametophytes

b)

Fruits enclosing seeds

c)

Embryos enclosed within seed coats

d)

Sperm cells without flagella

69.

This plant is classified under

a)

Bryophytes

b)

Pteridophytes

c)

Gymnoperms

d)

Angiosperms

70.

In a fern life cycle, the ____________ is the dominant generation.

a)

haploid gametophyte

b)

haploid sporophyte

c)

diploid gametophyte

d)

diploid sporophyte

71.

Why Gymnosperms is more advance compared to Pteridophyes?

a)

Vascular plants

b)

Sporophyte generation is dominant

c)

Produce seed

d)

Has true roots, stems and leaves

72.

Dominant generation is gametophyte generation. This statement is TRUE for...

a)

pteridophytes

b)

bryophytes

c)

angiosperms

d)

gymnosperms

73.

Which of the following is NOT a unique characteristic of Angiosperms?

a)

Double fertilization

b)

Formation of pollen tube

c)

Seed is protected within ovary

d)

Produce cone

74.

All statements below is true about gymnosperms EXCEPT

a)

heterosporous

b)

seed does not enclosed within ovary

c)

non-vascular plants

d)

less dependent on water for fertilization

75.

2. The large opening at the top of the sponge is called the

a)

Osculum

b)

Spicule

c)

Porocyte

d)

Spongocoel

76.

3. Which of the following is NOT what a sponge skeleton can be made of?

a)

Spongin

b)

Cnidocyst

c)

Silica

d)

Spicule

77.

4. Choanocytes are also known as _____.

a)

epithelial cells

b)

collar cells

c)

pore cells

d)

amoeboid cells

78.

7. What are stinging organelles with a coiled thread found in the tentacles which are used to capture prey or defend against predators?

a)

cnidocytes

b)

nematocytes

c)

choanocytes

d)

pinacocytes

79.

This picture of a sea anemone would represent which form of a Cnidarian?

a)

Medusa

b)

Larval

c)

Polyp

d)

Free-swimming

80.

Ctenophora is commonly called as:

a)

Flatworms

b)

Sea Anemone

c)

Comb Jellies

d)

Cnidaria

81.

The function of Flame cells are:

a)

Excretion and Osmoregulation

b)

Digestion and excretion

c)

Anchorage and excretion

d)

None of these

82.

which features helps birds in flying?

a)

Vertebral column

b)

Crop

c)

Gizzard

d)

Pneumatic bones

83.

Circulatory system in cockroach is ------------

a)

Haemocoel

b)

Pseudocoel

c)

Enterocoelom

d)

Eucoelom

84.

Animal having a water canal system and spicules

a)

Pleurobrachia

b)

Antedon

c)

Spongilla

d)

Aurelia

85.

Locomotory organs in Neries

a)

Setae

b)

Parapodia

c)

Jointed legs

d)

Arms

86.

Emission of light in aquatic animals

a)

Bioluminescence

b)

Hot light

c)

Thermal radiation

d)

Cold receptors

87.

Rasping organ in molluscs

a)

Ctenidia

b)

Nephridia

c)

Radula

d)

Gills

88.

Which is the arthropodan living fossil

a)

Locusta

b)

Bombyx mori

c)

Limulus

d)

Laccifer

89.

Chordates that have notochord in larval tail

a)

Balanoglossus

b)

Hemichordata

c)

Cephalochordata

d)

Urochordata

90.

Scientific name of Angel fish

a)

Pterophyllum

b)

Betta

c)

Exocoetus

d)

Clarias

91.

Limbless amphibian

a)

Bufo

b)

Salamndra

c)

Ichthyopis

d)

Rana tigris

92.

Pteropus is a ---------

a)

Flying fox

b)

Flying fish

c)

Marsupials

d)

Eutherians

93.

Gnathostomata means

a)

Absence of jaw

b)

Oval shaped jaw

c)

Circular jaw

d)

Presence of jaw

94.

Fish that possess electric organ

a)

Trygon

b)

Torpedo

c)

Carchorodon

d)

Scoliodon

95.

Hooks and suckers present in

a)

Tape worm

b)

Round worm

c)

Earthworm

d)

Tube worm

96.

Which is the balancing organs in arthropoda?

a)

Compound eyes

b)

Antennae

c)

Statocysts

d)

Appendages

97.

Blood sucking leech

a)

Neries

b)

Pheretima

c)

Hirudinia

d)

Ascaris

98.

The parasite that cause elephantiasis

a)

Filarial worm

b)

Round worm

c)

Tapeworm

d)

Hookworm

99.

A scientist has encountered a new organism in the kingdom Animalia with the following characteristics: jointed legs, exoskeleton, segmented body, and bilateral symmetry. What is it?

a)

Annelida

b)

Arthropoda

c)

Cnidaria

d)

Mollusca

100.

Organisms with this type of body plan have no regular symmetry.

a)

Bilateral

b)

Radial

c)

Symmetrical

d)

Asymmetrical

101.

These vertebrates live on land and water. They undergo metamorphosis and must lay their eggs in water.

a)

Reptiles

b)

Fish

c)

Amphibians

d)

Birds

102.

The phylum that includes your tapeworms (parasitic). They have flattened bodies and some of the young form cysts in the muscles of other animals.

a)

Platyhelminthes

b)

Nematoda

c)

Mollusca

d)

Cnidaria

103.

Organisms in this phylum have soft bodies covered by a mantle and a muscular foot.

a)

Arthropoda

b)

Porifera

c)

Echinodermata

d)

Mollusca

104.

Scutellum is

a)

Grass embryo

b)

Grass seed

c)

Grass fruit

d)

Grass cotyledon

105.

Dioecy states

a)

Uniseuality of flwer

b)

Bisexuality of flower

c)

Bisexuality of plant

d)

Unisexuality of a plant

106.

Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamouus flower if

a)

Pollen matures before maturity of ovule

b)

Ovule mature before maturity of pollen

c)

Both ovule and pollen matures simultaneously

d)

Both anther and stigma are of equal length

107.

During microsporogenesis meiosis occurs in

a)

Endothecium

b)

Microspore mother cell

c)

Microspore tetrad

d)

pollen grains

108.

A particular species of a plant produces,light non sticky ,numerous pollen grains and long and feathery stigma. These modifications facilitates the pollination by

a)

Insects

b)

Water

c)

Wind

d)

Animals

109.

In an embryo sac,the cells that degenerate after fertilization are

a)

Synergies and primary endosperm cell

b)

Synergids and antipodal cell

c)

Antipodal cell and primary endosperm cell

d)

Egg and antipodals

110.

In a fertilized embryo sac ,haploid,diploid, triploid structures are

a)

Synergid,zygote, PEN

b)

Synergids, antipodal, polar nuclei

c)

Antipodal, synergids, PEN

d)

Synergids, polar nuclei, zygote

111.

In the embryo of a typical dicot and a grass true homologous structures are

a)

Coleorhiza, coleoptile

b)

Coleoptile,scutellum

c)

Cotyledon,scutellum

d)

Hypocotyl,radicle

112.

In a flower ,if megaspore mother cell forms megaspore ,without undergoing meiosis and if one megaspore develops into an embryo sac its nuclei would be

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

A few haploid ,a few diploid

d)

With variable ploidy

113.

The outermost and innermost wall layers of a microsporangium in an anther are

a)

Endothecium ,tapetum

b)

Epidermis, endodermis

c)

Epidermis, middle layers

d)

Epidermis, tapetum

114.

Rewards and attractants are required for

a)

entomophily

b)

cleistophily

c)

anemophily

d)

hydrophily

115.

The process of formation of seeds without fertilization in flowering plants is known as

a)

budding

b)

apomixis

c)

sporulation

d)

somatic hybridisation

116.

Which of the following fruit is produced by parthenocarpy?

a)

brinjal

b)

apple

c)

banana

d)

jackfruit

117.

Perisperm and endosperm differ in

a)

Being a diploid tissue

b)

Being a haploid tissue

c)

Having no reserve food

d)

Formation of perisperm by fusion of the secondary nucleus with many sperms

118.

Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by

a)

water

b)

bee

c)

wind

d)

bat

119.

Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into

a)

ovule

b)

endosperm

c)

embryo sac

d)

embryo

120.

The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to :

a)

megaspore mother cell

b)

megaspore

c)

megasporangium

d)

megasporophyll

121.

Coconut water from a tender coconut is

a)

Degenerated nucellus

b)

Immature embryo

c)

Free nuclear endosperm

d)

Innermost layers of the seed coat

122.

Advantage of cleistogamy is

a)

Higher genetic variability

b)

More vigorous offspring

c)

No dependence on pollinators

d)

Vivipary

123.

Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of

a)

Synergids

b)

Generative cell

c)

Nucellar embryo

d)

Aleurone cell

124.

the correct sequence of wall layers in a typical anther is

a)

endothecium, epidermis, middle layer, tapetum

b)

Epidermis , Middle layer, Endothecium, Tapetum

c)

Epidermis, Endothecium, middle layers, Tapetum

d)

Endothecium, Tapetum, Middle layer, Epidermis

125.

The cells of this layer are having more than one nucleus and dense cytoplasm

a)

Endothecium

b)

Tapetum

c)

Middle layer

d)

Epidermis

126.

cells of sporogenous tissue under go which division to form microspore tetrad

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

amitosis

d)

cleavage

127.

size of pollen is approx _________ micrometers in diameter

a)

25-30

b)

25-50

c)

25-100

d)

25-45

128.

The outermost layer of pollengrain is made up of a resistant substance called

a)

sporogenous tissue

b)

calcium pectate

c)

sporopollenin

d)

pollinium

129.

The points where sporopollenin is absent in exine is called

a)

tube pores

b)

germ pores

c)

germ cells

d)

tube cells

130.

intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and is made up of

a)

cellulose and pectin

b)

Calcium and pectin

c)

Hemicellulose and cellulose

d)

Hemicellulose and pectin

131.

The cell of pollengrain with large food reserves is

a)

generative cell

b)

vegetative cell

c)

both

d)

tube cell

132.

in what % of species pollengrains are shed in 2 celled stage

a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

70%

133.

generative cell divides to give rise to ---------- male gametes

a)

2

b)

3

c)

1

d)

4

134.

--------------is the cause of pollen allergy

a)

chenopodium

b)

amaranthus

c)

wild oats

d)

parthenium

135.

Pollens are stored in liquid nitrogen at a temperature

a)

-196 degree celcius

b)

-200 degree celcius

c)

-197 degree celcius

d)

-192 degree celcius

136.

An Ovule is

a)

integumented microspore

b)

integumented megaspore

c)

integumented microsporangium

d)

integumented megasporangium

137.

Syncarpous gynoecium is a condition, where

a)

carpels are free

b)

carpels are fused

c)

ovules are many

d)

gynoecium is fused with androecium

138.

All the statements given below about megasporangium is correct, except.

a)

megasporangium is covered by integuments

b)

megasporangium encloses the embryosac

c)

megasporangium encloses nucells

d)

megasporangium encloses tapetum

139.

identify the haploid structures

a)

Pollen grain and Tapetum

b)

Micropore and Megaspore mother cell

c)

Pollen grain and megaspore

d)

Megaspore and nucellus

140.

The number of chromosomes in the cells of nucellus are 24, then what will be the number of chromosomes in the endosperm of that plant

a)

48

b)

12

c)

36

d)

38

141.

Identify the diploid structures

a)

Nucellus and antipodal cells

b)

Egg apparatus and Secondary cell

c)

Integuments and nucellus

d)

integuments and antipodal cells

142.

Which cells present near the micropyle

a)

Synergids and antipodal cells

b)

egg and antipodal cells

c)

egg apparatus and central cell

d)

egg apparatus

143.

Ategmic ovules are

a)

With a single integument

b)

Without integument

c)

With two layers of integuments

d)

Without nucellus

144.

An embryosac is

a)

Male prothallus

b)

Female sporophyte

c)

Female gametophyte

d)

Male sporophyte

145.

Filiform apparatus were observed in

a)

antipodal cells

b)

synergids

c)

central cells

d)

nucellus

146.

Functions of synergids

a)

Provide platform for the entry of pollen tube

b)

Filiform apparatus of synergids secrete some chemicals

c)

Guides the pollen tube towards the micropyle

d)

All of the above

147.

Ovule is attached to placenta by

a)

pedicel

b)

hilum

c)

funicle

d)

integument

148.

A megaspore mother cell having 28 chromosomes, the number of chromosome in the antipodal cells

a)

28

b)

14

c)

12

d)

56

149.

Bird-pollinated flowers typically have

a)

Large amounts of nectar

b)

No fragrance

c)

Large amounts of pollen

d)

A dull colour

150.

Insect-pollinated flowers typically have

a)

Small, inconspicuous flowers

b)

No scent

c)

Light, powdery pollen grains

d)

Relatively large, and often sticky grains of pollen

151.

Which type of outbreeding devices prevents both autogamy as well as geitonogamy?

a)

Monoecy

b)

Dioecy

c)

Heterostyly

d)

Self Incompatibility

152.

Geitonogamy is genetically similar to self-pollination but functionally similar to crosss-pollination because

a)

Geitonogamy involves flowers of the same plant so it is similar to self-pollination and it also requires pollinating agent so it is similar to cross-pollination.

b)

Geitonogamy involves two different flowers of the same plant and does not result in genetic variation in the progeny.

c)

Both 1 and 2.

d)

None of the above

153.

Mechanisms that ensure self-pollination include:

a)

Chasmogamy

b)

Cleistogamy

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

None of the above

154.

In self-incompatible species:

a)

Self-pollination does not lead to seed formation.

b)

Pollen grains of a flower do not germinate on the stigma of the same flower.

c)

There is presence of similar self-sterile genes.

d)

All of the above.

155.

1. Which of the following statements on cross-pollination is not true?

a)

Pollen from a flower is transferred to on the stigma of a different flower on another plant

b)

Cross-pollination produces health offspring

c)

An example of a new variety of plant produced is the orchid.

d)

Pollen from a flower is transferred to the stigma of a different flower on the same plant.

156.

6. Self-pollination is a process that happens

I when the pollens from a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same flower

II when the pollens from a flower is transferred to the stigma of a different flower on the same plant

III when the pollens from a flower is transferred to the stigma of a flower on a different plant

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

157.
Animals disperse seeds by _________.
a)
eating seeds and dropping waste later on
b)
hiding seeds for late and not coming back for them
c)
catching seeds on their fur and carrying them to different places
d)
all of the above
158.

Which of the following statements about fruit is false?

a)

Apple and strawberry are false fruits

b)

Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless

c)

True fruit develops from ovule after fertilisation

d)

In some cases thalamus also develops into fruit.

159.

The ploidy of endosperm is :

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Triploid

d)

Tetraploid

160.

Which of the statement about emasculation is not true?

a)

It helps in artificial hybridisation

b)

It involves mechanical removal of anthers

c)

Sitgmas of emasculated flowers are set free for cross pollination

d)

Emasculation is not required for unisexual flowers.

161.

In seeds, the residual persistent nucellus is called:

a)

Periderm

b)

Pericarp

c)

Perisperm

d)

Periblem

162.

The development of fruit without fertilisation is:

a)

Parthenogenesis

b)

Parthenocarpy

c)

Apomixis

d)

Polyembryony

163.

Angiospermic plant having chromosome number of 12. What will be chromosome number in integuments and nucellus

a)

4

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

164.

Non-endospermic seeds are found in:

a)

castor

b)

rice

c)

wheat

d)

bean

165.

The plant parts which consist of two generationsone within the other

(1) pollen grains inside the anther

(2) germinated pollen grain with two male gametes

(3) seed inside the fruit

(4) embryo sac inside the ovule


(a) (1) only

(b) (1), (2), and (3)

(c) (3) and (4)

(d) (1) and (4)

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

166.

In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by


(a) insects or wind

(b) water currents only

(c) wind and water

(d) insects and water.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

167.

Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms ?


(a) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions

(b) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions

(c) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

(d) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

168.

In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?


(a) Wheat

(b) Papaya

(c) Castor

(d) Maize

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

169.

Which of the following statements best describes double fertilisation?

a)

A male gametes fertilises an egg cell while another male gametes fertilises a polar nucleus

b)

A male gametes fertilises an egg cell and two fused polar nuclei

c)

A male gametes fertilises two fused polar nuclei

d)

A male gametes fertilises an egg while another male gametes fertilises two polar nuclei

170.

Which of the following parts will develop into a fruit after fertilisation in plants?

a)

Integument

b)

Ovary

c)

Ovule

d)

Triploid nucleus

171.

Which of the following structures labelled A, B, C and D is an egg

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

172.

What will happen if the stigma of a flower is cut?

a)

Ovules are not produced

b)

Pollen grains cannot be formed

c)

Ovary does not develop into a fruit

d)

Embryo sac is not developed

173.

Which of the following takes place after fertilisation?

a)

Zygote ----> testa

b)

Intergument ----> fruit

c)

Ovary ----> pericap

d)

Ovule ----> seed

174.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a pollen grain that is wind-pollinated?

a)

It has a rough surface

b)

It contains a diploid cell

c)

It is small and light

d)

It has a large food storage

175.

Why do flowering plants show double fertilisation?

a)

To produce the endosperm which contains food and ensures the seed can germinate succesfully

b)

To protect the seeds

c)

The diploid zygote can survive

d)

The ovary will not develop if double fertilisation does not take place

176.

What type of body symmetry do all adult echinoderms have?

a)

Bilateral

b)

Asymmetrical

c)

Radial

d)

All the above

177.
Echinoderms have an internal skeleton and a system of fluid-filled tubes called a(n)...
a)
water vascular system
b)
nervous system
c)
notochord
d)
ampulla
178.

Which organisms are in the class Agnatha?

a)

Lampreys

b)

frogs

c)

snakes

d)

birds

179.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the class Chondrichthyes?

a)

They have a cartilage skeleton (not bone)

b)

they have a bone skeleton

c)

they do not have jaws

d)

they go through metamorphosis

180.

How many chambers does a fish heart have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

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