Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Study Guide Systems 2

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 38hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are correct major components of the electrical system?

a)

Starter/generator, 24 VDC battery, and backup 28 VDC battery pack

b)

External power receptacle, starter/generator, and backup alternator

c)

Starter/generator, external power receptacle, and AC/DC power converter.

d)

Starter/generator, 24 VDC battery, 24 VDC auxiliary battery

2.

The aircraft main battery is rated to provide ________.

a)

18 VDC; 5 amp/hour

b)

24 VDC; 5 amp/hour

c)

24 VDC; 42 amp/hour

d)

28 VDC; 42 amp/hour

3.

The generator function of the starter/generator provides __________.

a)

backup aircraft power

b)

standby power for aircraft avionics

c)

primary aircraft power

d)

power for the starter

4.

On the right console panel in each cockpit are circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the __________.

a)

generator bus

b)

cockpit power bus

c)

external power bus

d)

battery bus

5.

The BUS TIE switch on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit is used to __________.

a)

tie the battery bus and generator bus together for normal operation

b)

control the power from the generator

c)

connect the power for all the avionics and radio systems in both cockpits

d)

tie the battery bus and generator bus together for emergency operation

6.

The ability to control the generator using the generator control switch is

__________.

a)

transferable between cockpits

b)

permanently assigned to the front cockpit

c)

permanently assigned to the rear cockpit

d)

transferred automatically if either cockpit control fails

7.

__________are provided to protect aircraft systems and equipment which receive power from the generator and battery buses.

a)

Circuit breakers

b)

Current limiting switches

c)

Surge arrestors

d)

Backup generators

8.

External aircraft lighting for the T-6B is controlled by four individual switches which are the ________ switches.

a)

landing, taxi, strobe, and anti-crash

b)

taxi/landing, strobe, flood, and navigation

c)

landing, taxi, anti-collision, and navigation

d)

taxi/landing, anti-collision, flood, and navigation

9.

The landing light will come on__________.

a)

anytime the LDG switch is on

b)

only when the LDG and taxi switches are both on and the landing gear is down and locked

c)

only when the LDG switch is on and the landing gear is down and locked

d)

automatically when there is low ambient light

10.

Fuel for the T-6B is stored in __________ separate tanks.

a)

three

b)

two

c)

six

d)

four

11.

When using the primary T-6B refueling method, the aircraft fuel system provides approximately __________ of usable fuel.

a)

1200 pounds

b)

1100 pounds

c)

1200 gallons

d)

1100 gallons

12.

The __________ routes fuel to the __________ which controls fuel delivery to the engine.

a)

transfer jet pumps; motive flow line unit

b)

electrical boost pump; engine-driven low pressure fuel pump

c)

engine-driven high pressure fuel pump; fuel management unit

d)

primary jet pump; fuel management unit

13.

The __________ is mounted in the collector rank and provides for initial engine start and serves as a backup to the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump.

a)

engine-driven low pressure fuel pump

b)

primary jet pump

c)

engine-driven high pressure fuel pump

d)

electric boost pump

14.

The single point refueling system refuels__________.

a)

the collector tank first and then gravity feeds the wing tanks

b)

both wing tanks simultaneously

c)

the right wing tank followed by the left wing tank

d)

the left wing tank followed by the right wing tank

15.

Fuel is directed to the collector tank from each wing tank by __________, keeping the collector tank pressurized.

a)

the collector tank pressure pump

b)

the electric boost pump

c)

a primary jet pump

d)

two transfer jet pumps

16.

A pressure switch in the motive flow line activates the __________ anytime fuel

pressure drops below 10 psi and the PCL is above the start ready position.

a)

transfer jet pumps

b)

electric boost pump

c)

engine-driven high pressure pump

d)

primary jet pump

17.

Which of the following statement is correct concerning the engine fuel feed line shutoff valves?

a)

The firewall shutoff valve is provided to isolate the fuel system for engine or fuel maintenance.

b)

The maintenance shutoff valve stops fuel flow to the engine and is activated by the firewall shutoff handle.

c)

The firewall shutoff valve stops fuel flow to the engine and is activated by the firewall shutoff handle.

d)

Both shutoff valves are provided to isolate the fuel filter system for engine or fuel maintenance.

18.

Fuel level sensors in each wing tank cause either right or left fuel level low CAS caution messages to display whenever the fuel quantity in that tank is below __________.

a)

50 lbs

b)

50 gallons

c)

110 lbs

d)

110 gallons

19.

The fuel flow indicator in the EICAS display presents fuel flow in __________.

a)

gallons per minutes

b)

gallons per hour

c)

pounds per minute

d)

pounds per hour

20.

Display of the FUEL BAL message may indicate an imbalance exceeding

__________ pounds for more than _______ minutes between left and right fuel tanks.

a)

20; 2

b)

30; 2

c)

50; 3

d)

70; 3

21.

What are the two major components for the propulsion system?

a)

Engine cowling and PCL

b)

Propeller and reduction gearbox

c)

Engine and propeller

d)

PCL and engine

22.

What three elements are necessary for operation of the engine?

a)

Air, oil, and fuel

b)

Air, fuel, and electricity

c)

Air, fuel, and heat

d)

Oil, fuel, and heat

23.

What are the three major sections of the engine?

a)

Compressor, combustion, and reduction areas

b)

Compressor, combustion, and power sections

c)

Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section

d)

Accessory compartment, compressor section, and combustion section

24.

What is meant by the term “free turbine”?

a)

This is where the free air temperature is measured.

b)

Air does not move from the compressor to the power turbine.

c)

The “free” air stream drives the power turbine.

d)

The compressor and power turbines are not physically connected.

25.

The starter/generator __________ until the engine starts and is able to sustain itself.

a)

turns the propeller

b)

turns the power turbine

c)

provides fuel

d)

turns the compressor

26.

For autostart, the ignition switch should be placed in the __________.

a)

START position

b)

NORM position

c)

START detent

d)

ON position

27.

The oil system provides oil under pressure to which of the following?

a)

Nose wheel steering

b)

Engine bearings and propeller

c)

Engine-driven fuel pump and engine bearings

d)

Propeller, generator, and fuel management unit

28.

With the engine above IDLE power a red OIL PX message illuminates when oil

pressure falls below __________psi.

a)

15

b)

40

c)

50

d)

90

29.

The __________ and the __________ control propeller speed to maintain a

constant propeller speed of 2000 RPM and achieve varying levels of thrust by

automatically adjusting propeller pitch.

a)

fuel flow regulator; fly weights

b)

PMU; propeller interface unit

c)

feathering spring; regulator unit

d)

torque probe; scavenger unit

30.

Which propeller position will the propeller be in during most flight conditions?

a)

high propeller pitch

b)

thrust position

c)

low propeller pitch

d)

feather position

31.

The fire warning system consists of a core element, sensor tube, and responder assembly. The sensor tubes are built such that __________don’t affect system reliability.

a)

kinks, twists, or dents

b)

core element disintegration

c)

responder assembly malfunctions

d)

helium gas leaks

32.

Air for cockpit heating, canopy defogging, and cockpit pressurization is provided by __________.

a)

recirculated engine exhaust

b)

ram intake air

c)

engine bleed air

d)

compressed air tanks

33.

The __________, combined with input from two temperature sensors, controls the position of the heat exchanger bypass valve to maintain desired cockpit

temperature.

a)

BLEED AIR INFLOW switch

b)

RAM AIR FLOW switch

c)

temperature controller

d)

vent control lever

34.

The RAM AIR FLOW switch on the environmental control panel in the front cockpit controls the amount of fresh air entering the cockpit and is overridden when __________.

a)

the weight-on-wheels switch is activated after takeoff and the pressurization system begins to operate

b)

either cockpit vent control lever is moved to the OFF position

c)

the TEMP CONTROL switch is moved to the MANUAL position

d)

the aircraft reaches an altitude of about 8000 feet and the pressurization system begins to operate

35.

The air conditioning system’s __________ draws warm cockpit air through the

evaporator coils to absorb the heat from the air.

a)

evaporator blower

b)

compressor

c)

high-pressure pump

d)

condenser

36.

The air conditioning system’s __________ converts refrigerant vapor to a high

pressure liquid.

a)

condenser

b)

compressor

c)

evaporator blower

d)

evaporator module

37.

The environmental control system panel is located on the __________ in the front cockpit.

a)

right side console

b)

lower right instrument panel

c)

upper left instrument panel

d)

left side console

38.

Once emergency oxygen flow is started, the emergency cylinder will supply oxygen for approximately __________ minutes.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

39.

The T-6B cockpit is pressure sealed by the seal around the bottom of the canopy and the __________.

a)

firewall, aft pressure flooring, and center bulkhead

b)

firewall and aft pressure bulkhead

c)

firewall and pressure flooring

d)

firewall, pressure flooring, and aft pressure bulkhead

40.

After takeoff, power is applied to the __________which closes, allowing the control valve to regulate cockpit pressure as the aircraft approaches 8000 feet pressure

altitude.

a)

delta P regulator

b)

dump solenoid

c)

cockpit pressure regulator

d)

safety valve

41.

Each of the following components/systems are part of the T-6B canopy system, EXCEPT the _________.

a)

canopy pressurization sealing system

b)

canopy locking/latching system

c)

canopy quick release maintenance handle

d)

canopy fracturing system

42.

Which of the following canopy sections provide enhanced birdstrike protection?

a)

All canopy sections

b)

Front windscreen and forward transparency

c)

Forward and rear transparencies

d)

Front windscreen and rear transparency

43.

In order to close the canopy from the outside, you must first __________.

a)

connect external aircraft power

b)

deflate the canopy seal

c)

pull the canopy lock release handle in either cockpit

d)

latch the canopy release control handle

44.

What aircraft power must be available for the Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) to operate?

a)

electrical

b)

hydraulic

c)

pneumatic

d)

aircraft power is not required

45.

The internal CFS handles initiate the process that__________.

a)

fractures both canopy transparencies

b)

unlocks and opens the canopy

c)

only fractures the transparency for its respective cockpit

d)

fractures the canopy frame and transparencies

46.

The T-6B ejection seat is designed to provide rapid ejection capability at zero

altitude and zero airspeed up to __________feet and __________ KIAS.

a)

30,000; 300

b)

31,000; 350

c)

35,000; 370

d)

37,000; 370

47.

During the ejection sequence, the __________ignites as the seat reaches the top of the rails.

a)

manifold cartridge

b)

rocket motor

c)

manifold cartridge and the rocket motor

d)

rocket motor and the CFS

48.

Where is the ejection seat safety pin installed when you want to safe the seat?

a)

Directly into the ejection seat MOR handle

b)

Into the ejection seat armrest

c)

Into the SSK selector valve

d)

Directly into the ejection handle mechanism

49.

With the ISS set to BOTH, the sequence of the two seat ejections is __________.

a)

front, then rear

b)

determined by which pilot initiates it

c)

rear, then front

d)

simultaneous

50.

The (PIRD) Powered Inertia Retraction Device __________.

a)

secures the harness to the lap belt assembly

b)

properly positions the pilot during ejection

c)

ensures freedom of movement by the pilot during ejection

d)

secures the SSK to the lap belt assembly

51.

The electrical component which regulates and monitors the starter/generator is called the ________.

a)

generator control unit

b)

electrical regulator

c)

electronic monitoring unit

d)

starter/generator monitor

52.

The generator provides ________ power to operate aircraft electrical equipment.

a)

12 VDC

b)

24 VDC

c)

28 VDC

d)

120 VAC

53.

When the occupant of either cockpit moves the generator control switch to ON, the switch in the other cockpit (if already selected ON) ________.

a)

is locked in its current position

b)

trips the GEN SW circuit breaker

c)

is tripped to the OFF position

d)

remains in the ON position

54.

The ability to control the battery using the battery control switch is ________.

a)

permanently assigned to the front cockpit

b)

transferable between cockpits

c)

permanently assigned to the rear cockpit

d)

transferred automatically if either cockpit control fails

55.

Under normal operating conditions, T-6B electrical power is distributed across the ________ and the ________.

a)

generator bus; battery bus

b)

standby bus; generator bus

c)

standby bus; external power bus

d)

external power bus; battery bus

56.

With the BUS TIE switch engaged (in the NORM position), the generator provides electrical power to the ________.

a)

avionics bus only

b)

generator and battery buses

c)

battery bus only

d)

generator bus only

57.

On the left console panel in each cockpit are circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the ________.

a)

cockpit power bus

b)

generator bus

c)

external power bus

d)

battery bus

58.

The secondary electrical system’s auxiliary battery is rated at ________.

a)

12 VDC, 5 amp/hour

b)

24 VDC, 5 amp/hour

c)

24 VDC, 42 amp/hour

d)

28VDC, 42 amp/hour

59.

Instrument panel lights are controlled through a knob labeled INST. This includes LSK and UFCP backup illumination levels.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

60.

Fuel is stored in ________.

a)

a storage tank, a collector tank, and a feed tank

b)

two wing tanks and a collector tank

c)

a refuel staging tank and two wing tanks

d)

a wing tank, a centerline feed tank, and a scavenger tank

61.

The ________ provides fuel for initial engine start and acts as a backup to the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump.

a)

electric boost pump

b)

transfer jet pump

c)

primary jet pump

d)

engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump

62.

The ________ tank stores approximately 40 pounds of fuel.

a)

left wing

b)

right wing

c)

aft fuselage

d)

collector

63.

When using the primary T-6B refueling method, maximum useable fuel in each wing tank is approximately ________ pounds.

a)

500

b)

530

c)

560

d)

590

64.

The ________ ensures a minimum of 15 second supply of fuel is available regardless of aircraft orientation.

a)

electric boost pump

b)

primary jet pump

c)

wing tank flapper valve

d)

flip-flop valve

65.

Which refueling method can place more fuel in the wing tanks?

a)

Both methods have the same maximum fill capacity

b)

Over-the-wing gravity refueling

c)

Single point pressure refueling

d)

Aerial refueling

66.

When a fuel imbalance occurs, a transfer (solenoid) valve closes the motive flow line to the ________.

a)

manifold valve

b)

collector tank

c)

light tank

d)

heavy tank

67.

The CAS warning message, FUEL PX, is activated by the ________ and indicates the fuel pressure in the motive flow line is less than 10 psi.

a)

electric boost pump

b)

low pressure switch

c)

high pressure switch

d)

motive flow switch

68.

The fuel gauging system uses seven fuel probes inside the fuel tanks to ________.

a)

transmit the fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tank

b)

send a signal to the UFCP for visual display of fuel flow

c)

reduce corrosion within the fuel tank

d)

send a signal to the Engine Indication and Crew Altering System (EICAS) for visual display of fuel quantity

69.

________ is measured by the fuel flow transmitter and is displayed in ________.

a)

Inter-wing fuel transfer; pounds per second

b)

Engine fuel consumption; pounds per hour

c)

Refueling rate; pounds per hour

d)

Boost pump pressure; psi

70.

The ________ delivers fuel to the ________, which manages fuel flow to the engine.

a)

transfer jet pump; engine-driven high pressure fuel pump

b)

transfer jet pump; FMU

c)

engine-driven low pressure fuel pump; primary jet pump

d)

engine-driven high pressure fuel pump; FMU

71.

The primary purpose of the engine is to _______.

a)

produce power

b)

produce lift

c)

compress air

d)

turn engine accessories

72.

The engine cowling does all of the following EXCEPT ________.

a)

provides 2% additional lift

b)

reduces drag

c)

provides air intake for engine cooling

d)

protects the engine components

73.

What are the three major sections of the engine?

a)

compressor, combustion, and reduction areas

b)

compressor, combustion, and power sections

c)

accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section

d)

accessory compartment, compressor section, and combustion section

74.

The power turbine section contains which of the following components?

a)

the propeller shaft, reduction gearbox, exhaust case, and power turbine

b)

the reduction gearbox, combustion chamber, and exhaust case

c)

the exhaust case, compressor turbine, combustion chamber, and propeller

d)

the compressor turbine, propeller shaft, and power turbine

75.

What is the function of the reduction gearbox?

a)

provides power to engine accessories

b)

provides a mechanical link between the compressor and combustion sections

c)

reduces power turbine output shaft speed and drives the propeller

d)

reduces the pressure of the exhaust

76.

During a normal start, the starter remains engaged until ________.

a)

the engine starts and is able to run at idle

b)

the starter switch is moved to the NORM position

c)

the starter switch is moved to manual

d)

30 seconds have elapsed

77.

The chip detector sensor is located _________.

a)

in the hot oil return line

b)

in the reduction gear box

c)

in the oil tank

d)

in the cooling assembly

78.

With the engine at IDLE power a red OIL PX message illuminates when oil pressure falls below _________ psi.

a)

15

b)

40

c)

50

d)

90

79.

The propeller converts engine power into ______.

a)

torque

b)

shaft horsepower

c)

thrust

d)

vertical lift

80.

Which of the following propeller positions produce the least amount of thrust and drag?

a)

high propeller pitch

b)

low propeller pitch

c)

feather position

d)

all propeller positions create equal thrust and drag

81.

The engine fire warning system consists of a core element, a sensor tube, and ____________.

a)

a thermostat

b)

a responder assembly

c)

a temperature gauge

d)

microswitches

82.

The pilot in the rear cockpit has control of which environmental system component?

a)

rear cockpit bleed air inflow

b)

rear cockpit blower fan speed only

c)

all environmental systems

d)

rear cockpit heating temperature

83.

Cockpit heat is provided by _______, routed through a heat exchanger and/or a heat exchanger bypass valve, through the firewall, and into the cockpit.

a)

filtered engine exhaust

b)

warm engine bleed air

c)

electrically heated air

d)

recirculated cockpit air

84.

T-6B cockpit cooling is provided by a vapor cycle ________ system.

a)

evaporator blower

b)

ventilation

c)

ram air

d)

air conditioning

85.

The EVAP BLWR control(s) is/are located in the ________ and provide(s) power to the _________.

a)

front and rear cockpits; outside ram air

b)

rear cockpit only; rear evaporator blower

c)

front cockpit only; front evaporator blower

d)

front and rear cockpits; evaporator blowers

86.

The bleed air inflow control switch controls how much _______ air will be provided to the environmental system.

a)

cool engine bleed

b)

hot engine bleed

c)

recirculated

d)

outside ram

87.

Setting the _______ switch to ON opens the bi-level flow control bypass valve (defog valve) to provide a higher volume of bleed air flow to the system.

a)

TEMP CONTROL

b)

Vent lever

c)

AIR COND

d)

DEFOG

88.

The emergency oxygen cylinder is considered adequately charged if the pointer is anywhere in the black band, otherwise ________.

a)

flight is restricted to below 10,000' MSL

b)

maintenance should be notified

c)

only unpressurized flight is authorized

d)

flight is restricted to below 8000' MSL

89.

Cockpit pressure altitude is maintained by the control valve at ______ feet until a cockpit pressure differential of 3.6 ±0.2 psi is reached at 18,069 feet.

a)

8000

b)

10,000

c)

12,000

d)

16,000

90.

Oxygen ________ are installed in the right side console in each cockpit and control OBOGS electrical power and oxygen flow.

a)

regulators

b)

plenums

c)

concentrators

d)

supply monitors

91.

The T-6B is equipped with a single, side-opening, __________ operated canopy.

a)

electrically

b)

hydraulically

c)

pneumatically

d)

manually

92.

Do not open the canopy if surface winds exceed ______ knots.

a)

25

b)

30

c)

35

d)

40

93.

The major canopy components of the T-6B are the ________.

a)

environmental system, canopy frame, canopy fracturing system

b)

canopy latching system, electric canopy motor, canopy frame, front and rear transparencies

c)

canopy frame assembly, hydraulic canopy motor, front and rear transparencies

d)

canopy frame assembly, front windscreen, forward transparency , and rear transparency

94.

The _______ light and _______ message illuminate if the canopy is not down and locked.

a)

MASTER WARN; UNLOCK

b)

MASTER CAUT; UNLOCK

c)

MASTER WARN; CANOPY

d)

MASTER CAUT; CANOPY

95.

The external CFS handles initiate the process that _______.

a)

fractures the canopy frame and transparencies

b)

jettisons the transparency for its respective cockpit

c)

unlocks and opens the canopy

d)

fractures both canopy transparencies

96.

The T-6B ejection seat is designed to provide rapid ejection capability at zero altitude and zero airspeed up to _______ feet and _______ KIAS.

a)

30,000; 300

b)

35,000; 370

c)

31,000; 350

d)

37,000; 370

97.

When flying dual, the ISS should be set to _______ to allow _______.

a)

BOTH; simultaneous ejections

b)

BOTH; either pilot to initiate dual ejections

c)

SOLO; both pilots to initiate dual ejections

d)

SOLO; either pilot to initiate dual ejections

98.

During ejection, the _______ automatically retracts the shoulder harness straps.

a)

Headbox Power Retraction Unit

b)

Automatic Reel Retraction Unit

c)

Powered Inertia Retraction Device

d)

Harness Reel Activation Drive

99.

What happens if the SSK; Automatic Deployment Unit (ADU) mode selector value is set to the AUTO position?

a)

The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after ejection

b)

The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation

c)

The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after ejection

d)

The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after seat-pilot separation

100.

When should the Manual Override (MOR) Handle be used?

a)

To manually initiate seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails

b)

If seat/pilot separation is desired above 14,000 feet MSL

c)

If ejection over mountainous terrain exceeding 8000 feet MSL

d)

All of the above are correct

101.

Which of the following are correct major components of the electrical system?

a)

Start/generator, 24 VDC battery, and backup 28 VDC battery pack

b)

Starter/generator, 24 VDC battery, and 24 VDC auxiliary battery

c)

External power receptacle, starter/generator, and backup alternator

d)

Starter/generator, external power receptacle, and AC/DC power converter

102.

In normal operation, components assigned to the battery and generator buses are fed by power supplied from __________.

a)

the primary battery

b)

the generator

c)

the external power receptacle

d)

the auxiliary battery

103.

The generator provides ______ power to operate aircraft electrical equipment.

a)

12 VDC

b)

28 VDC

c)

24 VDC

d)

120 VAC

104.

On the right console panel in each cockpit are circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the ________.

a)

cockpit power bus

b)

external power bus

c)

generator bus

d)

battery bus

105.

The ability to control the battery using the battery control switch is _____.

a)

permanently assigned to the front cockpit

b)

permanently assigned to the rear cockpit

c)

transferred automatically if either cockpit control fails

d)

transferable between cockpits

106.

If a component or circuit malfunction occurs, the affected circuit breaker should ___________.

a)

illuminate to indicate the problem while shutting off electrical current flow to that component or circuit

b)

"pop", or open, shutting off electrical current flow to that component or circuit

c)

"click" closed and activate an aural tone

d)

"pop", or close, maintaining electrical current flow to that component or circuit

107.

The ______ switch must be set to ON for external power to be available in the aircraft.

a)

avionics master

b)

generator

c)

auxiliary battery

d)

battery

108.

The battery powers select aircraft systems if the generator is not available, and provides power for _________.

a)

the auxiliary generator

b)

engine starts

c)

starting the generator prior to engine start

d)

charging the auxiliary battery

109.

The utility light on the right console of each cockpit can be detached and relocated to the _______ for use as an area or map light.

a)

top of the instrument panel

b)

right canopy rail

c)

seat side panel

d)

canopy bow

110.

When using the primary T-6B refueling method, the aircraft fuel system provides approximately _______ of usable fuel.

a)

1100 gallons

b)

1200 gallons

c)

1100 pounds

d)

1200 pounds

111.

Fuel for the T-6B is stored in _______ separate tanks.

a)

two

b)

six

c)

three

d)

four

112.

The ________ provides fuel for initial engine start and acts as a backup to the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump.

a)

transfer jet pump

b)

electric boost pump

c)

primary jet pump

d)

engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump

113.

The ________ is located in the collector tank and ensures an uninterrupted fuel supply to the engine during inverted flight operations.

a)

flip-flop valve

b)

defuel valve

c)

engine-driven low pressure fuel pump

d)

electric boost pump

114.

The ________ routes fuel to the _________ which controls fuel delivery to the engine.

a)

transfer jet pumps; motive flow line unit

b)

engine-driven high pressure fuel pump; fuel management unit

c)

electrical boost pump; engine-driven low pressure fuel pump

d)

primary jet pump; fuel management unit

115.

The single point refueling system refuels _________.

a)

the collector tank first and then gravity feeds the wing tanks

b)

the right wing tank followed by the left wing tank

c)

the left wing tank followed by the right wing tank

d)

both wing tanks simultaneously

116.

Fuel is directed to the collector tank from each wing tank by ________, keeping the collector tank pressurized.

a)

two transfer jet pumps

b)

the collector tank pressure pump

c)

the electric boost pump

d)

a primary jet pump

117.

Fuel level sensors in each wing tank cause either right or left fuel low CAS caution messages to display whenever the fuel quantity in that tank is below ________.

a)

50 lbs

b)

50 gallons

c)

110 gallons

d)

110 lbs

118.

The CAS warning message, FUEL PX, is activated by the ________ and indicates the fuel pressure in the motive flow line is <10 psi.

a)

electric boost pump

b)

high pressure switch

c)

motive flow switch

d)

low pressure switch

119.

________ is measured by the fuel flow transmitter and is displayed in ________.

a)

Inter-wing fuel transfer; pounds per second

b)

Refueling rate; pounds per hour

c)

Engine fuel consumption; pounds per hour

d)

Boost pump pressure; psi

120.

Display of the FUEL BAL message may indicate an imbalance exceeding ________ pounds for more than two minutes between the left and right fuel tanks.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

121.

The engine and propeller combine to create _________.

a)

energy

b)

drag

c)

lift

d)

thrust

122.

What three elements are necessary for operation of the engine?

a)

Air, oil, and fuel

b)

Air, fuel, and heat

c)

Air, fuel, and electricity

d)

Oil, fuel, and heat

123.

After combustion, the expanding gases _________.

a)

drive the compressor turbine, which perpetuates the cycle

b)

drive the reduction gear box

c)

drive the reduction turbine

d)

drive the power turbine, which perpetuates the cycle

124.

The oil tank, accessory gearbox, battery, and starter/generator are located in the _______.

a)

compression section

b)

accessory compartment

c)

power turbine section

d)

gas generation section

125.

What is meant by the term "free turbine"?

a)

This is where the free air temperature is measured.

b)

Air does not move from the compressor to the power turbine.

c)

The “free” air stream drives the power turbine.

d)

The compressor and power turbines are not physically connected.

126.

During engine start, the starter turns the ______ via linkage in the accessory gearbox.

a)

compressor

b)

power turbine

c)

propeller

d)

distributor shaft

127.

The oil system provides oil under pressure to which of the following?

a)

Nose wheel steering

b)

Engine-driven fuel pump and engine bearings

c)

Engine bearings and propeller

d)

Propeller, generator, and fuel management unit

128.

If the oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE for more than 5 seconds, _____ will be illuminated.

a)

the yellow(amber) OIL PX message

b)

the red OIL PX message

c)

both the red and yellow (amber) message

d)

neither OIL PX message

129.

The _______ and the ________ control propeller speed to maintain a constant propeller speed of 2000 RPM and achieve varying levels of thrust by automatically adjusting propeller pitch.

a)

fuel flow regulator; fly weights

b)

feathering spring; regulator unit

c)

PMU; propeller interface unit

d)

torque probe; scavenger unit

130.

With a loss of oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism, the ______ and ______ move the propeller to feather.

a)

feathering spring; torque probe

b)

airflow; counterweights

c)

counterweights; feathering spring

d)

airflow; feathering spring

131.

The engine fire warning system monitors _______.

a)

discrete engine temperature and engine oil temperature

b)

average and discrete engine temperatures

c)

engine oil temperature, and average and discrete engine temperatures

d)

average engine temperature and engine oil temperature

132.

Air for cockpit heating, canopy defogging, and cockpit pressurization is provided by _________.

a)

recirculated engine exhaust

b)

engine bleed air

c)

ram intake air

d)

compressed air tanks

133.

With the front cockpit vent control lever set to FOOT, a control valve in each cockpit is set to divert the airflow to the ________ below the instrument panel.

a)

electric distribution fans

b)

floor ducts

c)

footwarmers

d)

cockpit side vents

134.

The air conditioning system operates only ________.

a)

when the engine is on and functioning, the generator is on-line, and the AIRCOND or DEFOG switch is ON

b)

after external electrical power is disconnected, the battery is ON, and the DEFOG switch is ON

c)

when the airplane is airborne, the generator is on-line, and the vent control lever is set to FOOT

d)

when the engine is on and functioning, the battery is ON, and the AIR COND or DEFOG switch is ON

135.

Controls for the defogging system are located within ________ on the environmental control panel and on the vent control panel.

a)

the front cockpit

b)

the rear cockpit

c)

the ECS maintenance access bay

d)

both cockpits

136.

Setting the ________ switch to ON opens the bi-level flow control bypass valve (defog valve) to provide a higher volume of bleed air flow to the system.

a)

TEMP CONTROL

b)

DEFOG

c)

Vent lever

d)

AIR COND

137.

The air conditioning system's ____ converts refrigerant vapor to a high pressure liquid.

a)

condenser

b)

compressor

c)

evaporator blower

d)

evaporator module

138.

Cockpit pressure altitude is maintained by the control valve at _______ feet until a cockpit pressure differential of 3.6 ±0.2 psi is reached at 18,069 feet.

a)

16,000

b)

12,000

c)

10,000

d)

8000

139.

The CAS warning message, CKPT PX, indicates the cockpit pressure differential exceeds ______ psi.

a)

2.9 to 3.0

b)

3.3 to 4.0

c)

3.9 to 4.0

d)

3.6 to 3.8

140.

A concentrator in the OBOGS unit automatically adjusts the oxygen ________ for the current altitude based on the current cockpit pressure.

a)

pressure

b)

flow

c)

temperature

d)

concentration

141.

Which type aircraft power must be available to open or close the canopy?

a)

pneumatic

b)

electrical

c)

hydraulic

d)

none of the above, the canopy is manually operated

142.

The weight of the T-6B canopy is counterbalanced by ________ during opening/closing operations.

a)

pneumatic cylinders

b)

electrical clutches

c)

oil-filled struts

d)

mechanical counterweights

143.

The canopy pressure seal activates automatically when __________.

a)

the PCL is moved from ST READY to IDLE

b)

bleed air inflow is available and weight is off the right main landing gear

c)

immediately after engine start with the canopy locked

d)

the interior canopy control handle is placed to CLOSE

144.

When closing the canopy, a ______ indicator in the mechanical latch indicator view port indicates proper latching.

a)

red

b)

orange

c)

yellow (amber)

d)

green

145.

The canopy fracturing system _____.

a)

only operates when the pilot(s) eject

b)

uses pneumatic power to eject the entire canopy frame assembly for the pilot(s) to egress

c)

uses explosive charges to shatter canopy transparencies

d)

uses explosive charges to shatter the forward windscreen allowing the pilot to climb out

146.

The T-6B ejection seat is designed to provide rapid ejection capability at zero altitude and zero airspeed up to ______ feet and _____KIAS.

a)

30,000; 300

b)

31,000; 350

c)

37,000; 350

d)

35,000; 370

147.

When flying dual, the ISS should be set to _______ to allow ________.

a)

SOLO; either pilot to initiate dual ejections

b)

SOLO; both pilots to initiate dual ejections

c)

BOTH; simultaneous ejections

d)

BOTH; either pilot to initiate dual ejections

148.

The powered inertia retraction device _________.

a)

secures the harness to the lap belt assembly

b)

ensures freedom of movement by the pilot during ejection

c)

properly positions the pilot during ejection

d)

secures the SSK to the lap belt assembly

149.

When should the Manual Override (MOR) Handle be used?

a)

To manually initiate seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails

b)

If seat/pilot separation is desired above 14,000 feet MSL

c)

If ejection over mountainous terrain exceeding 8000 feet MSL

d)

All of the above are correct

150.

The ejection seat CFS initiator activates the canopy fracturing system _________.

a)

when the rocket motor ignites

b)

before the seat moves

c)

when the CFS circuit breaker is tripped

d)

as the seat rises up the catapult rails