wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Consultancy

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of MAS practice?

a)

MAS practice is broad in scope while specific in approach

b)

MAS practice involves problem-solving affecting the future operations of the client

c)

The beneficiary in MAS service is the government

d)

MAS practice is relatively young and had been tremendously evolving in the recent times

2.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of MAS practice?

a)

MAS practice is broad in scope while specific in approach

b)

MAS practice involves problem-solving affecting the future operations of the client

c)

The beneficiary in MAS service is the government

d)

MAS practice is relatively young and had been tremendously evolving in the recent times

3.

It refers to the ability of the practitioner to maintain his role as an adviser or consultant without making any attempt to make decisions for the management.

a)

Objectivity

b)

Competence

c)

Independence in mental attitude

d)

Due care

4.

The chief executive officer wants to know whether the purchasing function is properly meeting its charge to "purchase the right materials at the right time in the right quantities." Which of the following types of engagements addresses this request?

a)

A financial engagement relating to the purchasing department

b)

An operational engagement relating to the purchasing function

c)

A compliance engagement relating to the purchasing function

d)

A full-scope engagement relating to the manufacturing operation

5.

In performing management advisory services, a practitioner must act with integrity and objectivity and be independent in mental attitude. This statement falls under:

a)

Competence

b)

Client benefit

c)

Due care

d)

Personal characteristics

6.

The MAS Practice Standards include the following specific attributes of practice, except

a)

Competence, confidentiality, and integrity

b)

Personal characteristics, competence, and due care

c)

Client benefit, understanding with the client, and planning, supervision, and control

d)

Sufficient relevant data and communication of results

7.

All except one are the advantages of a CPA over management consultants of other professions:

a)

The CPA is a specialist in accounting and taxes

b)

The CPA is known to the client and enjoys his confidence

c)

The CPA is already familiar with the client's business

d)

The CPA is a member of a profession with recognized standing

8.

A CPA should not undertake a management advisory service engagement that includes continued participation through implementation, unless:

a)

the CPA accepts overall responsibility for implementation of the chosen course of action

b)

the CPA acquires an overall knowledge of the client's business that is equivalent to that of possessed by management

c)

upon implementation the client's personnel will have the knowledge and ability to adequately maintain and operate such systems as may be involved

d)

upon implementation a new study and evaluation of the system of internal control

9.

Which of the following is not a qualification of a CPA in MAS practice?

a)

Familiarity with the client's financial accounting and internal control systems

b)

Analytical experience in problem-solving

c)

Professional independence, objectivity, and integrity

d)

Auditor of the client

10.

A CPA should reject management advisory services engagement if

a)

It would require him to make management decisions for an audit client

b)

The proposed engagement is not accounting related

c)

His recommendations are to be subjected to a review by the client

d)

He audits the financial statements of a subsidiary of the prospective client

11.

Management services of certified public accountants cover all of the following, except

a)

Project feasibility studies

b)

System design development and implementation

c)

Organizational development and planning

d)

Audit, tax, and legal services

12.

As business increases in complexity, the function of controllership has attained top level recognition in the corporate arena. Many areas related to finance and accounting have been identified with controllership. One area that violates basic internal control when assigned to controllership function is

a)

Credit collection

b)

Internal auditing

c)

Long-range financial planning

d)

Taxation and reporting to government agencies

13.

Which of the following is not a controller's function?

a)

In-charge of planning and control

b)

Protection of assets

c)

Interpretation and reporting on effects of external factors on the business

d)

Arranging short-term financing

14.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a "Staff" authority?

a)

It gives support, advises and services to line managers

b)

It is exercised laterally and upward

c)

It has authority to command action or give orders to subordinates

d)

None of the above

15.

A formal report in management accounting is covered by the guidelines of

a)

GAAP

b)

SEC

c)

Management

d)

PICPA

16.

The concept of "management by exception" refers to management's

a)

Consideration of only those items which vary materially from plans

b)

Consideration of only rare events

c)

Consideration of items selected a random

d)

Events that involve material amount

17.

Controllers are generally not concerned with

a)

Reporting to government

b)

Preparation of tax returns

c)

Protection of assets

d)

Investor relations

18.

The following characteristics refer to financial accounting except

a)

Provides information to external users

b)

Emphasizes on objective data

c)

Has no eternally imposed standards

d)

Generates general-purpose financial statements

19.

Which of the following characteristics does not relate to management accounting?

a)

Accounting reports may include non-monetary information

b)

It is subject to restrictions imposed by GAAP

c)

Reports are often based on estimates and are seldom useful for everything other than the purpose for which they are prepared

d)

It provides data for external users within the business organizations

20.

Management accounting

a)

is governed by generally accepted accounting principles

b)

draws from disciplines other than accounting

c)

is geared primarily to the past rather than the future

d)

places more emphasis on precision of data compared with financial accounting which does not place more emphasis on accuracy of information

21.

Management accounting is an integral part of the management process. As such, it provides essential information for the following objectives except

a)

Maintaining the current level of resources utilization as well as internal and external communication

b)

Measuring and evaluating performances

c)

Planning strategies and controlling current activities of the organization

d)

Enhancing objectivity in decision-making

22.

Which service is not provided by Investment Bank?

a)

Banking Service

b)

Insurance Service

c)

Consultancy Service

d)

Venture Capital Financing

23.

Which one is not a function of Merchant Banking

a)

Corporate Counselling

b)

Mutual Funds

c)

Manpower Staffing

d)

Working Capital Financing

24.

S.E.B.I Stands for

a)

Securities Exchange Bond of India

b)

Securities Exchange Board of India

c)

Securities of Exchange of Banks of India

d)

Securities of Exchequer of Bank of India

25.

S.E.B.I was established in the year

a)

1990

b)

1991

c)

1992

d)

1993

26.

N.S.E stands for

a)

National Securities of Exchange

b)

National Stock Exchange of Indian

c)

National Stock Exchange

d)

National Stock Economy of India

27.

Which is not a function of S.E.B.I

a)

Protect Interest of Investors

b)

Provide Platform for Brokers

c)

Regulate the Operations of Markets

d)

Provide Platform for Manipulation in Trading

28.

Which section under Company Law, powers to regulate and transfer securities

a)

23

b)

26

c)

27

d)

24

29.

Which is not a power of S.E.B.I

a)

Quasi Judicial

b)

Quasi Executive

c)

Quasi Administration

d)

Quasi Legislative

30.

Share trading takes place in which market

a)

Trading Market

b)

Commodity Market

c)

Secondary Market

d)

Primary Market

31.

I.P.O stands for

a)

Initial Private Offer

b)

Initial Public Offer

c)

International Public Offer

d)

Internal Private Offer

32.

What is the multitude source for face to face comunication

a)

vocabulary, sound, eye

b)

impression, perception, distraction

c)

vocabulary, tonality, body language, regional accent

33.

What are 3 types of intelligence define by Thorndike?

a)

Cognitive ability, concrete intelligence and social intelligence

b)

physical intelligence, emotionality intelligence and spiritual alert

c)

personality intelligence, perception intelligence, effective intelligence

34.

Below is the emotional intelligence element except

a)

Relationship management

b)

Energizers

c)

Self-awareness

d)

Brave

35.

Rearrange the 5 level of listening

a)

for application, to tell my story, for judgement, to understand, not listening

b)

not listening, for judgement, to tell my story, for application, to understand

c)

for judgement, not listening, to tell my story, to understand, for application

36.

What is the good listening ability?

a)

Talking when other person trying to explain

b)

Concentrate on what other person saying

c)

Just nod our head during the conversation

d)

Show the boring expression

37.

How many percentage that non verbal give impact the communication?

a)

60%

b)

35%

c)

70%

d)

65%

38.

Below is the element of 7 habits of highly effctive people except

a)

The habit of withdrawal

b)

The habit of creative cooperation

c)

The habit of renewal

d)

The habit of choice

39.

Benefit of using thinking hat

a)

Reduce comunication

b)

View problem as disadvantages

c)

Maximize productive collaboration

d)

Make meetings more longer

40.

What is intrapersonal intelligence?

a)

Self-centered

b)

Selfish

c)

Self-management

d)

Self-unawareness

41.

Element of energizers except

a)

Motivation

b)

Positive

c)

Attitude

d)

Passion

42.
1
a)
A) Vande Bharat Express
b)
B) Shatabdi Express
c)
C) Tejas Express
d)
D) Rajdhani Express
43.
2
a)
A) Bengaluru
b)
B) New Delhi
c)
C) Mumbai
d)
D) Chennai
44.
3
a)
A) Send a mission to Mars
b)
B) Land a spacecraft on the Moon's south pole
c)
C) Build a space station
d)
D) Launch a manned space mission to the ISS
45.
4
a)
A) Uttar Pradesh
b)
B) Rajasthan
c)
C) Himachal Pradesh
d)
D) Punjab
46.
5
a)
A) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
b)
B) Reliance Industries
c)
C) HDFC Bank
d)
D) Adani Enterprises
47.
6
a)
A) Bangalore
b)
B) Chennai
c)
C) Goa
d)
D) Delhi
48.

C language was developed by?

a)

Charless babbage

b)

Guindo Van Rossum

c)

Dennis Ritchie

d)

Tom Cruise

49.

Java was developed at

a)

Sonic Solutions

b)

Sun Microsystems

c)

Tata Consultancy Services

d)

Centrum Wiskunde & Informatica

50.

Python is a/an

a)

Object Oriented Language

b)

Interpreter

c)

High-level

d)

All of the above

51.

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

int num = 5;

printf("%d", num++ * 2);

return

0;

}

a)

11

b)

10

c)

10.000000

d)

9

52.

Correct the syntax of for loop if it's wrong

For(I=0;I<6;;I++)

a)

For(I=0:I<6;I++)

b)

for(I=0;i<6;I++)

c)

For(I=0;i<6;I++)

d)

for(I=0;I<6;I++)

53.

What C library should be included for the dynamic memory allocation?

a)

stdio.h

b)

stdlib.h

c)

conio.h

d)

iostream.h

54.

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

int a = 5;

int b = 10;

int c = a++ + b--;

printf("%d", c);

retu

rn 0;

}

(a)  

55.

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

int x = 5;

int y = 3;

int z = x % y;

printf("%d", z);

return 0;

}

(a)  

56.

State Financial Corporations (SFC) was established to overcome_________

a)

unemployment

b)

financial hurdles

c)

marketing problem

d)

HR problems

57.

who established SFC?

a)

GOI

b)

Commercial Bank

c)

HDFC

d)

NGO

58.

There are at present ______SFCs

a)

19

b)

18

c)

25

d)

20

59.

KSFC stands for______

a)

Karnataka State Financial Corporation

b)

Karnataka State Financial Commission

c)

Karnataka State Fund Corporation

d)

Karnataka Small Financial Corporation

60.

SFC grant loans to industrial concerns and repayable within a period not exceeding _____________years

a)

20

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15

61.

Objectives of SFC

*Financial assistance for_________,________

*Promote______

a)

expansion, rehabilitation

self-employment

b)

raw material,transportation

industries

c)

importing,exporting

ancillary

62.

KSFC finances up to Rs. 200 lakhs for ________

a)

cooperative society, joint stock

b)

partnership, sole proprietor firms

c)

family business

63.

hire purchase assistance

merchant banking facilities

underwriting of shares

bill discounting etc

these facilities are provided by_____

a)

KSFC

b)

SFC

c)

SIDBI

d)

SBI

64.

SIDBI was established on _______

a)

April 1st ,1991

b)

May 2nd ,1980

c)

April 2nd ,1995

d)

April 2nd ,1990

65.

Equity fund scheme - interest free loan for a period of years

a)

6 to 8

b)

5 to 7

c)

10 to 12

d)

1 to 7

66.

Equity fund scheme

Stree Shakti Package

Composite loan scheme

Margin money scheme

Mahila Udyam Nidhi Scheme

Export finance schemes


These are the schemes of ____

a)

SBI

b)

SFC

c)

KSFC

d)

KSSIDC

67.

KSSIDC stands for

a)

Karnataka State Small Industries Development Corporation

b)

Karnataka State Small Industries District Corporation

c)

Karnataka State Small Industries Development Center

68.

KSSIDC is an agency promoted by the _________

a)

Government of India

b)

Government of Karnataka

c)

Government of Kerala

d)

Government of Tamil Nadu

69.

KSSIDC has also opened ____________ in all the districts of the state

a)

small business

b)

raw material depots

c)

selling centers

d)

sheds

70.

KSIIDC

a)

Karnataka State Investment and Development Corporation

b)

Karnataka State Industrial Investment and Development Corporation

c)

Karnataka State Industrial Investment and Development Commission

d)

Kerala Industrial Investment and Development Corporation

71.

_____is one of the first public financial institution set up in 1948

a)

IFCI

b)

SBI

c)

SFC

d)

KSIIDC

72.

IFCI stands for______

a)

Industrial Finance Corporation Of India

b)

Indian Financial Corporation of India

c)

Independent Financial Corporation of India

d)

Industrial Financial Commission of India

73.

green-field industrial projects means

a)

infrastructure Project

b)

development project

c)

expansion project

d)

diversification project

74.

DIC stands for_____

a)

District Industries Centre

b)

Development Industries Centre

c)

District Industries Commission

75.

SISI stands for______

a)

Small Institute services of India

b)

Small scale Institute of India

c)

Small Industries Services Institute

76.

The functions and activities of DICs are monitored by the ________

a)

Directorate of Industries

b)

GOI

c)

IFCI

d)

Commercial bank

77.

TCO stands for

a)

Technical Consultancy Organisations

b)

Term consultancy organisation

c)

Tata Consultancy Organisation

d)

Technical Corporate Organisation

78.

Maximum number of people that can be joined in Joint Liability Groups is____

a)

5

b)

4

c)

20

d)

30

79.

_ is a place where the required facilities and factory accommodation are provided by the government to the entrepreneurs to establish their industries there

(a)  

80.

This type of industrial estates caters to all types of industries

a)

General industrial estates

b)

Ancillary Industrial Estates

c)

Special type industrial estates.

81.

constructed mainly for very small firms engaged in repair work.

a)

The Workshop –bay

b)

Flatted factory estates

c)

Ancillary Industrial Estates

82.

Identify the Company

a)

GlaxoSmithKline

b)

AstraZeneca

c)

Aurobindo Pharma

d)

Astellas

83.

Identify the Company

a)

Novartis

b)

AstraZeneca

c)

Aurobindo Pharma

d)

Roche

84.

Identify the Company

a)

Gilead

b)

Biocon

c)

Merck

d)

Allergan

85.

Identify the Company

a)

Tata Consultancy Services

b)

WNS

c)

ZS

d)

IQVIA

86.

Identify the Company

a)

Sanofi

b)

Boehringer Ingelheim

c)

Alembic

d)

Ajanta Pharma

87.

Identify the Company

a)

Torrent

b)

Biogen

c)

Sun Pharma

d)

Bharat Biotech

88.

Identify the Company

a)

Aurobindo Pharma

b)

Ajanta Pharma

c)

Amgen

d)

Astellas

89.

Identify the Company

a)

Dr.Reddy's

b)

Merck

c)

Alembic

d)

Ranbaxy

90.

Identify the Company

a)

Dr.Reddy's

b)

Elly Lilly

c)

Alkem Laboratories

d)

Roche

91.

Identify the Company

a)

Torrent Pharma

b)

Apex Pharma

c)

Hetero Pharma

d)

J.B Chemicals

92.
Who from the following can be an ideal FC? 1. The one who has a large network. 2. The one who is willing to invest time. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
Only 1
b)
Only 2
c)
Both - 1 and 2
93.
Quality recruitment will help you with early FC success, better productivity and higher retention. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
FALSE
b)
True
94.
Which of the following is true? Select the correct answer from the list below.
a)
An FC needs to undergo 25 hours of training. He needs to pass the exam to solicit life insurance business from customers.
b)
An FC is a person who is Circle Head and above in designation and logs in all business sourced.
c)
An FC is a manager who handles rewards and recognition.
95.
One can recruit other insurer's agent as an FC at HDFC Life. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)

FALSE

b)

True

96.
One can recruit other general insurance agent as an FC at HDFC Life. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)

FALSE

b)

True

97.
An HDFC Life employee can also be recruited as an FC. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
FALSE
b)
True
98.
A person can take 2 life insurance agency of different insurer simulataneously. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
True
b)
False
99.
Knowing __________ of a PFC will help you pitch the agency career better. Select the correct answer from the list below.
a)

insurance coverage

b)

liabilities

c)

assets

d)

core motives

100.
Your pitch to generate interest in agency career for all professionals should be the same. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
True
b)
False
101.
All retirees will have same core motives in life. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
True
b)
False
102.
It will be good to have a mix of different categories on FCs in a team. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
True
b)
False
103.
Recruitment of FCs should never stop in your career as an agency FLS. Identify whether the above statement is true or false.
a)
True
b)
False
104.
Which of the following parameters detemine the quality of the FCs you want to recruit?
a)
Age,Education
b)
Age ,Education,Qualification
c)
Age ,Education,Qualification,gender,marital status
105.
Industry average of Lead to conversion raio for a good performing Sales person is
a)
10:5:1
b)
40:5:1
c)
20:5:1
106.
"Need to Feel useful" refers to which core motive?
a)
Recognition
b)
Personal preference
c)
Personal satisfaction
107.

What are the primary responsibilities of an HR consultant?

a)

Providing guidance on HR policies and procedures, managing employee relations, conducting training and development programs, and ensuring compliance with employment laws

b)

Developing marketing strategies

c)

Handling customer complaints

d)

Managing IT infrastructure

108.

Why is it important for an HR consultant to have strong communication skills?

a)

To make the job more difficult

b)

To avoid interacting with employees, managers, and other stakeholders

c)

To have more time for paperwork

d)

To effectively interact with employees, managers, and other stakeholders.

109.

How does an HR consultant contribute to the recruitment process?

a)

By providing expertise in marketing and advertising

b)

By handling payroll and benefits administration

c)

By organizing team-building activities

d)

By providing expertise in sourcing, screening, and selecting candidates, as well as advising on best practices and compliance with employment laws.

110.

What competencies are required for an HR consultant to effectively handle employee relations?

a)

Customer service experience

b)

Public speaking

c)

Conflict resolution, communication, negotiation, understanding of labor laws and regulations

d)

Technical coding skills

111.

Explain the role of an HR consultant in implementing and managing employee benefits programs.

a)

Analyzing organization's needs, researching available options, and making recommendations for competitive benefits packages

b)

Conducting performance appraisals for employees

c)

Managing the company's social media accounts

d)

Handling customer complaints and inquiries

112.

What are the key skills needed for an HR consultant to conduct effective training and development programs?

a)

Fluency in multiple foreign languages

b)

Proficiency in computer programming

c)

Strong communication skills, knowledge of adult learning principles, instructional design expertise, and the ability to assess training needs

d)

Experience in animal training techniques

113.

How does an HR consultant ensure compliance with labor laws and regulations?

a)

Staying updated on the latest laws, conducting regular audits, providing training, and implementing policies and procedures

b)

Not providing any training or policies

c)

Relying on outdated information

d)

Ignoring labor laws and regulations

114.

Discuss the importance of confidentiality and ethical behavior for an HR consultant.

a)

Confidentiality and ethical behavior are important for maintaining trust and privacy of sensitive employee information, and ensuring fair treatment and compliance with laws and regulations.

b)

Ethical behavior is not necessary as long as HR consultants follow laws and regulations

c)

HR consultants should prioritize sharing sensitive employee information with others

d)

Confidentiality and ethical behavior are not important for an HR consultant

115.

Explain the role of an HR consultant in performance management and appraisal processes.

a)

The HR consultant is responsible for organizing office events and parties.

b)

The HR consultant focuses on recruiting new employees and conducting interviews.

c)

The HR consultant handles the company's financial management and budgeting.

d)

The HR consultant provides expertise in designing and implementing performance management and appraisal processes.

116.

What are the challenges faced by HR consultants in today's dynamic work environment?

a)

Managing diverse workforce, adapting to technological changes, and addressing employee well-being

b)

Focusing only on cost-cutting measures

c)

Ignoring employee feedback

d)

Implementing outdated HR practices

117.

These companies sell their products to retailers

a)

employment agency

b)

staff

c)

consultant

d)

suppliers

118.

These organisation finds new employees for you

a)

consultant

b)

employment agency

c)

colleagues

d)

suppliers

119.

These people work with you

a)

suppliers

b)

customers

c)

colleagues

d)

staff

120.

These people pay for the services of a professional person or organization

a)

clients

b)

colleagues

c)

staff

d)

consultant

121.

This expert outside the company helps you with problems

a)

clients

b)

consultant

c)

employment agency

d)

colleagues

122.

These people buy our products

a)

colleagues

b)

suppliers

c)

customers

d)

consultant

123.

These people are the employees of a company

a)

customers

b)

consultants

c)

colleagues

d)

staff

124.

Choose the correct preposition that completes the question.

Which company do you work ___?​

a)

with

b)

on

c)

for

d)

in

125.

Which department / area do you work ___?

a)

with

b)

on

c)

for

d)

in

126.

Who do you work ___ inside and outside the company?

a)

with

b)

on

c)

for

d)

in

127.

What sort of projects do you work___?

a)

with

b)

on

c)

for

d)

in

128.

What sort of problems do you deal ___?

a)

with

b)

on

c)

for

d)

in

129.

---------------- are the people who has developed ERP package

a)

Vendors

b)

Consultants

c)

Both

130.

--------------------- invested huge amount of time and efforts in research and development to create packaged solution.

a)

Consultant

b)

Vendor

c)

Client

d)

None of these

131.

They are also like a “GAP” between ERP package and actual business processing.

a)

Vendor

b)

Consultant

c)

Client

d)

Top Management

132.

The main function of the ERP ------------------ is to help organizations move to ERP software.

a)

Vendor

b)

Consultant

c)

Client

d)

All of the above

133.

ERP Consultant is responsible for

a)

ERP Implementation

b)

ERP Upgrade

c)

ERP Support

d)

All of the above

134.

Which of the following are roles of an ERP Consultant

a)

Driving Change Management:

b)

Managing Implementation:

c)

Providing Training:

d)

Sharing Industry Knowledge:

135.

An ERP ---------------- consultant helps you to identify the existing business process that needs to be addressed through the ERP

a)

Implementation Consultant

b)

Functional Consultant

c)

Software Consultant

d)

Technical Consultant

136.

An ERP ------------------ consultant is responsible for providing a consultative approach to the successful and timely implementation of the ERP software.

a)

Functional Consultant

b)

Implementation Consultant

c)

Software Consultant

d)

Technical Consultant

137.

ERP finance consultant will still play the role of an ERP consultant but will focus on the ----------------- modules.

a)

finance and HR

b)

finance and accounting

c)

finance and production

d)

finance and Payroll

138.

----------------------- is a like a LINK responsible for fixing any problem

a)

Vendor

b)

Consultant

c)

Both

d)

None of these

139.

a person who provides expert advice

a)

limelight

b)

miserable

c)

consultant

d)

offend

140.

very unhappy or uncomfortable

a)

consultant

b)

limelight

c)

miserable

d)

offend

141.

focus of public attention

a)

consultant

b)

betray

c)

offend

d)

limelight

142.

cause someone to feel upset, annoyed

a)

miserable

b)

offend

c)

limelight

d)

betray

143.

to do or say something that causes someone to no longer trust

a)

consultant

b)

miserable

c)

betray

d)

offend

144.

to formally enter someone for an award or honor

a)

nominate

b)

limelight

c)

consultant

145.

Which is the correct spelling?

a)

constultant

b)

consultant

c)

konsultent

d)

conseltant

146.

Which is the correct spelling?

a)

miserable

b)

meserible

c)

misterible

d)

miserible

147.

Which spelling is correct?

a)

lime light

b)

lamelight

c)

lamplight

d)

limelight

148.

Which spelling is correct?

a)

ofend

b)

affend

c)

offend

d)

oufend

149.

Which spelling is correct?

a)

beetrey

b)

beetray

c)

beitrey

d)

betray

150.

Which spelling is correct?

a)

nominate

b)

nomenate

c)

namenate

d)

nahminate

Similar Resources on Wayground

CAPM 1 (2022)

150 questions

CAPM 1 (2022)

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Rev Test 3 - DISA

155 questions

Rev Test 3 - DISA

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

GS Softline - 2024

150 questions

GS Softline - 2024

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

HƯỚNG DẪN DU LỊCH – ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN THI

150 questions

HƯỚNG DẪN DU LỊCH – ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN THI

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Professional Education / June 2022 - 150 Items

150 questions

Professional Education / June 2022 - 150 Items

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Types of Business Organisation

150 questions

Types of Business Organisation

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

GENERAL EDUCATION - PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION - SET B

150 questions

GENERAL EDUCATION - PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION - SET B

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development