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SEP 1123 EQUIPMENT OPERATIONS

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of distillation column?

a)

To remove moisture from the gas stream.

b)

To separate two or more substances in liquid mixtures at different boiling point.

c)

To transfer heat from one body to another body.

d)

To separate two or three components mixture by gravitational force, differential density and fluid insolubility.

2.

Following are the types of continuous distillation columns EXCEPT

a)

Based on the nature of feed that they are processing (binary and multi-component column)

b)

Based on where the extra feed exists when it is used to help with the separation (extractive and azeotropic)

c)

Based on the column externals (boiler and condenser)

d)

Based on the number of product stream that they have (Multi-product column)

3.

What is the function of tray (plate) installed in the distillation column?

a)

To allow the mixing between liquid and vapor.

b)

To increase retention time of the liquid and vapor in the distillation column.

c)

To maximize the internal space in the distillation column.

d)

To efficiently contact the vapor and liquid in distillation column.

4.

Shutdown of the distillation is normally performed before plant turnaround started. What are the general sequences of distillation shutdown?

I - Reduce the temperature of reboiler.

II - Block the top and bottom products flow lines.

III - Block the flow of feed.

a)

III, II and I

b)

I, II and III

c)

III, I and II

d)

II, I and III

5.

The wide range of commercial packings and their variations in geometry introduce significant empiricism into the design of packed columns. What are the general optimization rules of fundamental mass-transfer and pressure-drop principles?

I - Maximizing theoretical stages per height of section or column.

II - Minimizing pressure drop per theoretical stage of separation.

III - Maximizing the operating range of the column that results in reasonable performance.

IV - Maximizing the number of tray used.

a)

II, III and IV

b)

I, III, and IV

c)

I, II and IV

d)

I, II and III

6.

What are the criteria of selecting the solvent in absorption process?

I - Capacity or dissolving power for the required solute.

II - Insolubility factor between solvent and solute. 

III - High selectivity or separation factor.

IV - Should have less vapor pressure.

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

7.

Following are the classification of absorption EXCEPT

a)

Laminar

b)

Discontinuous

c)

Continuous

d)

Turbulent

8.

There are a few internal common devices in tray and packed columns. What is the function of mist extractor?

a)

to physically support the packed bed and prevent the downward migration of packing pieces

b)

to prevent fluidization of the packings and restrict packing movement

c)

to remove liquid droplets entrained in the vapour stream before the stream leaves the top of the column

d)

to collect liquid from between packed beds

9.

Following are the factors that affect absorption efficiency EXCEPT

a)

Solvent purity

b)

Operating pressure

c)

Operating flowrate

d)

Operating temperature

10.

What are the sequences of general normal shutdown of an absorption?

I - Reduced stripper temperature to atmospheric.

II - Closed rich feed gas to the absorber.

III - Reduced the column pressure to atmospheric.

IV - Stop the solvent pump.

a)

II, III, I and IV

b)

I, II, III and IV

c)

III, II, I and IV

d)

IV, I, II, and III

11.

What is adsorption?

a)

one or several solutes are absorbed from the gas phase into a liquid phase

b)

a separation process in which certain components of a fluid phase are transferred to the surface of a solid adsorbent

c)

process of heat transfer from one medium to another

d)

separation process caused by gravitational force, fluid insolubility and differential density

12.

What are the factors that affecting the efficiency of adsorption and regeneration?

I - operating pressure

II - operating temperature

III - always operate the system above dew point temperature

operating flowrate

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

13.

What are the sequences of regeneration process in adsorption system?

I - drying

II - cooling

III - desorbing

a)

III, II and I

b)

I, II and III

c)

III, I and II

d)

I, III and II

14.

Following are the principles of adsorption and regeneration EXCEPT

a)

Depressurizing

b)

Heating

c)

Cooling

d)

purging

15.

Following are the typical reactors used in the chemical hydrocarbon and oil refining sectors EXCEPT

a)

batch stirred tank reactors 

b)

continuous feed plug flow reactors

c)

continuous feed fluidized bed reactors

d)

batch discontinuous reactors

16.

Which is the CORRECT statement related to continuous feed fluidized bed reactors?

a)

reactors where reactants are mixed, then passed through a fixed catalyst bed

b)

reactors where the reactants and the catalyst are mixed to react in a fluidized bed

c)

reactors where reactants mix, react and then flow through multiple compartments in the reactor

d)

reactants (and possibly a catalyst) are added to the reactor vessel and mixed by an agitator for a predetermined reaction time period

17.

Following are the typical problems that may occur in a reactor system EXCEPT

a)

tube rupture

b)

off specification products

c)

a runaway reaction

d)

very low reactor temperatures due to endothermic process

18.

One of the reactor problem is runaway reaction. It can be caused by the following factors EXCEPT

a)

loss of heating

b)

loss of agitation

c)

loss of reaction retarding chemicals.

d)

excessive concentrations of catalyst

19.

In what condition, the emergency shutdown will be initiated for a reactor?

a)

event of fire

b)

event of major spill

c)

event of runaway reaction

d)

power failure

e)

loss of catalyst

20.

Gas testing must be carried out before anyone enters the vessel to ensure the atmosphere is not toxic, explosive or oxygen deficient. This activity is performed during reactor maintenance shutdown. Is TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

21.

Following are the mechanism of heat transfer EXCEPT

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

heating

d)

radiation

22.

The diagram illustrated the heat transfer mechanism of..........................

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

heating

d)

radiation

23.

What are the features need to be considered in designing heat exchanger?

I - Material of greater conductivity

II - Larger contact area

III - Longer duration of contact

IV - Type of fluid used to transfer heat

a)

I, II and III

b)

II, III and IV

c)

I, II and IV

d)

I, III and IV

24.

Tubes’ materials of shell and tube heat exchanger type are usually made of steel, bronze, aluminum and copper. Is it TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

25.

How many passes does the above heat exchanger has?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

26.

Furnaces referred to as fired process heaters, are basically enclosed structures that produce heat by the combustion of fuels. Is it TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

27.

Following are the typical classification of furnace EXCEPT

a)

Natural Draft

b)

Forced Draft Furnaces

c)

Balanced Draft Furnaces

d)

Induced Draft Furnaces

28.

What are the factors affecting heat transfer?

I - Flame temperature

II - Temperature difference between the outside of tubes and the fluid inside

III - Surface of tubes exposed to the flame or hot gas

IV - Pressure difference through the furnace tube wall

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

29.

Following are the items of the furnace operating conditions and monitoring EXCEPT

a)

Draft

b)

Fuel

c)

Flue gas temperature

d)

Process fluid pressure and flow

30.

Hot spot is an overheated part of a furnace tube caused by insufficient process fluid flow or by flame impingement. Is it TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

31.

What are the functions of the pump?

I - To move liquid from low elevation to a high elevation

II - To move liquid from a low pressure area to high pressure area

III - To compress the liquid in order to increase pressure difference

IV - To move liquid in a given amount of time

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

32.

What is the purpose of the pump is arranged as in the diagram?

a)

to increase the discharge head

b)

to increase the discharge pressure

c)

to decrease the discharge temperature

d)

to increase the discharge capacity

33.

What are the type of reciprocating displacement pumps?

I - Piston type

II - Plunger type

III - Lobe type

IV - Sliding vane type

V - Diaphragm type

VI - Direct-acting type

a)

I, II, III, IV, and V

b)

I, II, V and VI

c)

II, III, IV, V and VI

d)

I, II, III, IV, V and VI

34.

Multi-stage compressors are those in which compression from initial to final pressure is completed in two or more distinct steps or stages. Is it TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

35.

The principal elements of a reciprocating gas compressor are cylinder, heads, pistons, inlet valves, discharge valves and impeller. Is it TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

The gas generator in gas turbine is composed of three major components. What are they?

 

I - Air Compressor

II - Combustion Chamber(s)

III - Gas Generator Turbine Wheels which drive the Air Compressor

IV - Fuel system

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

37.

To start the gas generator in gas turbine, it is necessary to rotate the compressor to produce an initial air flow, provide a flow of fuel to the burners and provide a means of supplying the air/fuel mixture. Is it TRUE or FALSE

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

A steam turbine is a device that converts the thermal energy of steam into mechanical energy by using it to turn the blades of a rotor. Is it TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

The impulse or reaction turbine is classified depending on the way in which steam is supplied and removed. What is the type of turbine in the given diagram?

a)

Mixed Pressure Turbine

b)

Extraction Turbine

c)

Condensing Turbine

d)

Non-condensing or Back Pressure Turbine

40.

Excessive bearing clearance is one of the vibration problem due to loose parts. Remedy action to solve this problem is by adding shims as required to tighten bearing and replace worn parts as required. Is it TRUE or FALSE?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE