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Worksheets

Path - Allergy/Immunology

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which plasma protein system results in the formation of a clot that function to stop blood flow and traps bacteria in the site of infection?

a)

coagulation system

b)

complement system

c)

kinin system

2.

Which plasma protein system results in activation of inflammatory cells and contributes to bronchoconstriction?

a)

complement system

b)

coagulation system

c)

kinin system

3.

In the complement system, C3a functions mainly as:

a)

membrane attack complex

b)

recognition of antigen-antibody complexes

c)

opsonin

d)

chemotactic factor

4.

Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

a)

pain

b)

heat

c)

swelling

d)

jaundice

5.

Which plasma protein system results in the direct lysis of bacterial membranes by a protein complex?

a)

coagulation system

b)

complement system

c)

kinin system

6.

Which individual likely has the most functional immune system?

a)

24 yo painter

b)

4 month old infant

c)

84 yo former wrestler

7.

Which component of the complement system forms part of the membrane lysis complex?

a)

C3b

b)

C3a

c)

C1

d)

C5b

8.

Which of the following represents the innate immune system's first line of defense ?

a)

mucus

b)

complement system

c)

histamine release

d)

formation of fibrin

9.

Which of the following is a characteristic of system symptoms of inflammation as opposed to local symtpoms?

a)

heat

b)

fever

c)

redness

10.

Opsonization is a process by which the immune system "tags" a foreign microbe allowing macrophages to find and phagocytize it. Which of the following products of the complement system acts as an opsonin?

a)

C3a

b)

C3b

c)

C5b

d)

C1

11.

Which of the following types of hypersensitivity produces a delayed reaction due to the development of memory T cells?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

12.

In this type of hypersensitivity reaction specific cells or tissue are recognized as antigen and most of the damage is related to the activity of tissue macrophages.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

13.

Which of the following types of hypersensitivity can result in skin reactions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

14.

Circulating complexes of soluble antigen and IgG/IgM deposit in tissue, activate complement, and initiate damage by neutrophils occurs in:

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

15.

Which of the following correctly pairs hypersensitivity type with symtoms/disease?

a)

Type I: Graves Disease

b)

Type II: poison ivy reaction

c)

Type III: SLE

d)

Type IV: allergic rhinitis

16.

The role of histamine is most prevalent in which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

17.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

18.

Which of the following immunoglobulin is predominantly found in normal body secretions?

a)

IgM

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgA

19.

The central lymphoid organ for B lymphocytes is the:

a)

lymph nodes

b)

spleen

c)

thymus

d)

bone marrow

20.

Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody produced upon SECONDARY exposure?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgD

d)

IgA

21.

At which site does clonal selection occur?

a)

tonsils

b)

thymus

c)

liver

d)

bone marrow

22.

Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after transfusion of donor antibodies in IVIG? (IV administration of donor IgG)

a)

passive-adaptive

b)

active-innate

c)

passive-innate

d)

active-adaptive

23.

Which of the following secrete antibodies?

a)

helper T cells

b)

B cells

c)

cytotoxic T cells

d)

plasma cells

24.

Which of the following blood group is considered the "universal donor"?

a)

AB

b)

A

c)

B

d)

O

25.

A disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens is referred to as:

a)

Alloimmunity

b)

Allergy

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Autoimmunity

26.

SLE is an example of:

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Immune deficiency

c)

Transfusion reaction

d)

Autoimmune disease

27.

Hemolytic anemia of the newborn is most likely in which of the following scenarios?

a)

Rh- mom; Rh+ fetus

b)

Rh+ mom; Rh- fetus

c)

Rh- mom; Rh- fetus

d)

Rh+ mom; Rh+ fetus

28.

altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host

a)

hypersensitivity

b)

allergy

c)

autoimmunity

d)

alloimmunity

e)

immunodeficiency

29.

an exaggerated response against/hypersensitivity to an environmental antigen

a)

immunodeficiency

b)

allergy

c)

autoimmunity

d)

alloimmunity

30.

directed against beneficial foreign tissues (ex: transfusions, transplants)

a)

hypersensitivity

b)

allergy

c)

autoimmunity

d)

alloimmunity

e)

immunodeficiency

31.

immunity is insufficient to protect the host

a)

hypersensitivity

b)

autoimmunity

c)

alloimmunity

d)

immunodeficiency

32.

Cell is destroyed by antibodies and complement [mechanism of type II reactions]

a)

Mechanism 1

b)

Mechanism 2

c)

Mechanism 3

d)

Mechanism 4

e)

Mechanism 5

33.

antibody causes cell destruction through phagocytosis by macrophages [mechanisms of type II reactions]

a)

Mechanism 1

b)

Mechanism 2

c)

Mechanism 3

d)

Mechanism 4

e)

Mechanism 5

34.

Antibody and complement attract neutrophils [mechanisms of type II reactions]

a)

Mechanism 1

b)

Mechanism 2

c)

Mechanism 3

d)

Mechanism 4

e)

Mechanism 5

35.

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) [mechanisms of type II reactions]

a)

Mechanism 1

b)

Mechanism 2

c)

Mechanism 3

d)

Mechanism 4

e)

Mechanism 5

36.

Causes target cell to malfunction (not destroyed) [mechanisms of type II reactions]

a)

Mechanism 1

b)

Mechanism 2

c)

Mechanism 3

d)

Mechanism 4

e)

Mechanism 5

37.

IgE mediated

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

38.

effector cells: mast cells

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

39.

Complement is involved? No

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

40.

Rate of development? Immediate

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

41.

seasonal allergic rhinitis

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

42.

Initial Phase of Type I hypersensitivity reactions

a)

occurs within 5-30 mins

b)

occurs 2-8 hrs later without additional exposure

c)

changes are vascular leakage, vasodilation, smooth muscle contraction, and granular secretion

d)

more intense infiltration of white blood cells (can include epithelial cell damage)

43.

Late Phase of type I hypersensitivity reactions:

a)

occurs within 5-30 mins

b)

occurs 2-8 hrs later without additional exposure

c)

changes are vascular leakage, vasodilation, smooth muscle contraction, and granular secretion

d)

more intense infiltration of white blood cells (can include epithelial cell damage)

44.

tissue-specific

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

45.

IgG, IgM

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

46.

effector cells: macrophages and neutrophils

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

47.

Complement is involved? Frequently

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

48.

autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, graves disease

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

49.

TB skin test

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

50.

immune-complex mediated

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

51.

effector cells: only neutrophils

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

52.

SLE

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

53.

Tissue damage associated w Type III reaction is due to

a)

C3a activation

b)

C3b activation

c)

lysosomal enzymes from C3b

d)

lysosomal enzymes from C5a

e)

lysosomal enzymes from C5b

54.

cell-mediated

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

55.

rate of development? delayed

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

56.

No immunoglobulins

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

57.

contact sensitivity to poison ivy and metals

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

58.

atopic dermatitis

a)

Immediate (type I)

b)

Delayed (type IV)

59.

contact dermatitis

a)

Immediate (type I)

b)

Delayed (type IV)

60.

locally acting secreted immunoglobulins

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

61.

low concentration in blood; are surface receptors on developing B lymphocytes

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

62.

immunoglobulins that mediate allergic response

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

e)

IgE

63.

substance released by damaged cells that activates coagulation

a)

tissue factor

b)

plasmin

64.

enzyme that degrades fibrin polymers in clots

a)

tissue factor

b)

plasmin

65.

eliminate virus-infected cells

a)

eosinophils

b)

mast cells

c)

natural killer cells

d)

macrophages

e)

neutrophils

66.

release chemicals that initiate the inflammatory response

a)

eosinophils

b)

mast cells

c)

natural killer cells

d)

macrophages

e)

neutrophils

67.

type of chemical barrier

a)

defensins

b)

kinins

68.

chemicals involved in the inflammatory response

a)

defensins

b)

kinins

69.

antibodies and antigens [complement system]

a)

classical pathway

b)

lectin pathway

c)

alternative pathway

70.

mannose-containing bacterial carbohydrates [complement system]

a)

classical pathway

b)

lectin pathway

c)

alternative pathway

71.

gram-negative bacterial and fungal cell wall polysaccharides [complement system]

a)

classical pathway

b)

lectin pathway

c)

alternative pathway

72.

Emily, age 6, has an infected finger and has just been given an antibiotic. Her mother is very worried because the finger is red and swollen. After a nurse tells her these signs will go away as the infection and inflammation resolves, Emily's mother asks, "Isn't inflammation really bad for you?". She needs to know that inflammation does what?

a)

creates serious delays in wound healing

b)

causes pain and tissue destruction

c)

promotes the spread of bacteria to the other tissue

d)

neutralizes and destroys microorganisms

73.

A new nurse asks, "why is fever associated with inflammation? what causes it?" choose the best response.

a)

inflammatory chemicals called cytokines cause fever

b)

mast cell degranulation causes fever

c)

infection, especially bacterial infection, cause fever

d)

macrophage chemotaxis causes fever

74.

neonate does not develop an infection bc he has maternal antibodies that he received in breastmilk

a)

active acquired immunity

b)

passive acquired immunity

75.

child does not develop an infection bc she has been immunized against it

a)

active acquired immunity

b)

passive acquired immunity

76.

man does not develop an infection bc he was infected with that same microorganism previously and recovered

a)

active acquired immunity

b)

passive acquired immunity

77.

woman does not develop an infection bc she was given gamma globulin after being exposed to an infected person

a)

active acquired immunity

b)

passive acquired immunity

78.

child develops systemic anaphylaxis after eating peanut butter

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

79.

adult develops rejection of a transplanted heart

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

80.

adult develops rash on legs from poison ivy after hiking in shorts

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

81.

adult develops hemolysis after mismatched blood transfusion

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

82.

adolescent develops systemic anaphylaxis after being stung by a wasp

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV