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COPD/ Pulmonary Embolism/ ARDS

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term "pink puffer" refers to the client with which of the following symptoms?

a)

ARDS

b)

Chronic obstructive bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Asthma

2.

The underlying pathophysiology of COPD

a)

Inflamed airways that obstruct airflow

b)

Mucus secretions that block airways

c)

Overinflated alveoli that impairs gas exchange

d)

Characterized by all of the variations above

3.

The abnormal inflammatory response in the lungs occurs primarily in:

a)

Parenchyma

b)

Airways

c)

Pulmonary vasculature

d)

All of the above

4.

Two diseases common to the etiology of COPD

a)

Chronic bronchitits and emphysema

b)

TB and Pleural effusions

c)

Asthma and atelectasis

d)

Pneumonia and pleurisy

5.

The term "blue bloater) refers to which of the following conditions?

a)

ARDS

b)

Chronic obstructive bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Asthma

6.

The most important environmental risk factor for emphysema

a)

Allergens

b)

Infectious agents

c)

Air pollution

d)

Cigarette Smoking

7.

A 66 year old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is tachypneic, with a prolonged expiration phase. He has no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on his knees to support his chest and shoulder for breathing. This client has symptoms of which of the following disorder?

a)

Asthma

b)

Emphysema

c)

Chronic obstructive bronchitis

d)

ARDS

8.

Clients w obstructive bronchitis are given diuretic therapy. Which of the following reasons explain why?

a)

Reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand

b)

Reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function

c)

Reducing fluid volume improves clients' morbidity

d)

Restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production

9.

Teaching for a client with COPD should include which of the following topics?

a)

How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs with a stethoscope

b)

How to recognize signs of impending respiratory infection

c)

How to treat respiratory infections without going to the physician

d)

How to increase oxygen therapy

10.

A nurse plans care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, knowing that the client is most likely to experience what type of acid- base imbalance?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

11.

Causes of COPD (SATA)

a)

Smoking

b)

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

c)

Air pollution (occupational)

d)

Chest trauma

12.

PRIMARY symptom of COPD

a)

Barrel Chest

b)

Chronic Cough

c)

Sputum production

d)

Dyspnea

13.

In a patient with emphysema, ______ results from a more fixed position of the ribs from loss of elasticity

a)

Scar formation

b)

Barrel chest

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Wall destruction

14.

Single most cost effective intervention to reduce risk of developing COPD

a)

Smoking cessation

b)

Restrict exercise outdoors

c)

Wear a mask

d)

Resign

15.

Complications of COPD: (SATA)

a)

Respiratory insufficiency

b)

Cardiac failure

c)

Respiratory failure

d)

ARDS

16.

Helps confirm diagnosis of COPD, determine severity & monitor dse progression

a)

ABG

b)

DLCO test

c)

Alpha 1 anti trypsin defiency screening

d)

Pulmonary function studies

17.

Used to evaluate airway obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity

a)

ABG

b)

DLCO test

c)

Spirometry

d)

Alpha 1 trypsin screening

18.

Patient CXR with emphysema may reveal: (SATA)

a)

Hyperinflation of lungs

b)

Flattened diaphragm

c)

Increased retrosternal space

d)

Vascular markings/ bullae

19.

A patient CXR with bronchitis may reveal: (SATA)

a)

Increased bronchocascular markings

b)

Hyperinflation of lungs

c)

White out infiltrates bilaterally

d)

Flattened Diaphragm

20.

Test to determine cause of dyspnea whether functional abnormality is obstructive or restrictive, estimate degree of dysfunction and evaluate effects of therapy

a)

CXR

b)

Pulmonary function test

c)

DLCO test

d)

Bronchogram

21.

Most often ABG analysis in bronchitis and emphysema

a)

PaO2 is increased,PaCO2 is increased and PH is alkalotic

b)

PaO2 is decreased, PaCO2 is normal or increased. PH is normal or acidotic

22.

This test assess diffusion in lungs Carbon monoxide is used to measure gas diffusion across the alveocapillary membrane

a)

Lung Scan

b)

Cytologic examination

c)

CBC

d)

DLCO test

23.

______ the only obstructive disease that causes diffusion dysfunction

a)

Chronic obstructive bronchitis

b)

Emphysema

c)

ARDS

d)

Asthma

24.

Bronchogram in a patient with emphysema shows: (SATA)

a)

Show cylindrical dilation of bronchi on inspiration

b)

Enlarged mucous ducts

c)

Constricted bronchial expansion upon inspiration

d)

Bronchial collapse in forced expiration

25.

Bronchogram on patients with bronchitis may reveal:

a)

Enlarged mucous ducts

b)

Constricted mucous ducts

c)

Bronchial collapse on forced expiration

d)

Bronchial collapse on forced inspiration

26.

CBC results in patients with advanced emphysema:

a)

Decreased eosinophils

b)

Increased eosinophils

c)

Increased HGB

d)

Decreased HGB

27.

____ is measured to verify deficiency and diagnosis of primary emphysema

a)

Carbon Monoxide

b)

Alpha 1 antitrypsin

c)

Arterial Blood Gases

d)

Complete Blood Count

28.

ECG in patients with severe asthma

a)

Atrial dysrhytmias

b)

Tall, peaked P waves in leads I, III and AVF

c)

Right axis deviation, peaked P waves

d)

Vertical QRS axis

29.

ECG in patients with bronchitis

a)

Right axis deviation, peaked p waves

b)

Atrial dysrhythmias

c)

Vertical QRS axis

d)

V- Fib

30.

ECG in patients with emphysema AND bronchitis

a)

Peaked P waves, Atrial dysrhythmia

b)

Tall, peaked P waves in leads II, III and AVF

c)

Tall peaked P waves in AVF

d)

Tall peaked P waves in I, II, II and AVF

31.

ECG in patients with emphysema

a)

Atrial dysrhythmias

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Vertical QRS axis

d)

Peaked P wave in AVF

32.

Pharmacologic Treatment: Relieves bronchospasm by altering smooth muscle tone and reduce airway obstruction (SATA)

a)

Albuterol

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Levalbuterol

d)

Metaproterenol

33.

Pharmacologic treatment for COPD (SATA)

a)

Bronchodilators

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Vasodilators

d)

Alpha 1- antitrypsin augmentation therapy

34.

First line therapy of management of exacerbations

a)

Optimization of corticosteroids

b)

Hospitalization

c)

Optimization of vasodilators

d)

Optimization of bronchodilator

35.

Surgical management for COPD (SATA)

a)

Bullectomy

b)

Lung Transplantation

c)

Lung Volume Reduction Surgery

d)

Embolectomy

36.

In nursing management of COPD, instruct the patient in: (SATA)

a)

Restricting activities

b)

Deep breathing

c)

Inspiratory muscle training, diaphragmatic breathing & pursed lip breathing

d)

Direct & controlled coughing

37.

A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the ff clients are at risk for having a pulmonary embolism? (SATA)

a)

A client who has a BMI of 30

b)

A client who has a fractured femur

c)

A female client who is postmenopausal

d)

A client who has chronic atrial fibrilation

e)

A client who is a marathon runner

38.

A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who has acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states that she is anxious because she feels as if she cannot get enough air. Vital signs are 117/ min Heart Rate, 38/min Respiratory Rate,, 38.4 C (101.2 F) temperature and a blood pressure of 100/ 54 mmHg. Which of the following actions is priority action at this time?

a)

Notify the provider

b)

Administer heparin via IV

c)

Administer oxygen therapy

d)

Obtain spiral CT

39.

A male patients xray result reveals bilateral white- outs indicating ARDS. This syndrome results from:

a)

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

b)

Increased pulmonary capillary permeability

c)

Respiratory Alkalosis

d)

Renal failure

40.

A nurse is caring for a male client with ARDS. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note in the client?

a)

Pallor

b)

Low arterial PaO2

c)

Elevated arterial PaO2

d)

Decreased RR

41.

a client has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the clinical manifestations should the nurse expect? (SATA)

a)

Bradypnea

b)

Pleural Friction Rub

c)

Hypertension

d)

Petechae

42.

You're providing care to a patient who is being treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a 100% non- rebreather mask. Which of the following is a HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is developing ARDS?

a)

Patient is experiencing bradypnea

b)

The PaCO2 remains at 45mmHg

c)

Patient is tired and confused

d)

The patients BP is 180/96

43.

A male adult client is hospitalized for treatment of pulmonary embolism develops respiratory alkalosis. Which clinical findings commonly accompany respiratory alkalosis?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Lightheadedness and paresthesia

c)

Abdominal pain or diarrhea

d)

Hallucination or tinnitus

44.

A client is suspected of having pulmonary embolism. A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Decreased respiration

45.

A patient has been hospitalized in the ICU for a near drowning event. The patient's respiratory function has been deteriorating over the last 24 hours. The physician suspects acute respiratory distress syndrome. A STAT Xray is ordered. What finding on the CXR is indicative of ARDS?

a)

Infiltration on the upper lobes only

b)

normal cxr

c)

Enlargement of the heart with bilateral lower lobe infiltrates

d)

white-out infiltrates bilaterally

46.

Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing ARDS and has the worst prognosis?

a)

52 year old patient with pneumothorax

b)

69 year old female with sepsis caused by gram negative bacterial infection

c)

48 year old male being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis

d)

30 year old female with cystic fibrosis

47.

The nurse assesses a patient for pulmonary embolism. The nurse looks for the most frequent sign of:

a)

Cough

b)

Syncope

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Tachypnea

48.

The following are nursing interventions to prevent pulmonary embolism in a hospitalized patient EXCEPT

a)

Encourage pt to dangle his legs over the side of the bed for 30 mins 4x/day

b)

A liberal fluid intake

c)

Assisting patient to do leg elevation above the heart

d)

Use of elastic stocking esp decreased mobility would promote venous stasis

49.

You are caring for a patient with ARDS. As the nurse you know that prone positioning can be beneficial for some patients with this condition. Which findings below indicate this type of positioning was beneficial for your patient with ARDS? (SATA)

a)

Improvement in lung sounds

b)

Development of a V/Q mismatch

c)

PaO2 increased from59 mmHg to 82 mmHg

d)

PEEP needs to be titrated to 15mmHg of water

50.

A patient is experiencing respiratory failure due to pulmonary edema. The physician suspects ARDS but wants to rule out a cardiac cause. A pulmonary artery wedge pressure is obtained. As the nurse, you know that what measurement reading indicates that this type of respiratory failure is NOT cardiac related?

a)

>25mmHg

b)

<10mmHg

c)

>50mmHg

d)

<18mmHg

51.

Which of the following is a type of embolism?

a)

Traveling emboli

b)

Fat emboli

c)

Burn emboli

d)

Diabetic emboli

52.

An obstruction of the pulmonary artery or one of its branches by a thrombus and it is a common disorder related to DVT

a)

Deep Vein Thrombosis

b)

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

c)

Pulmonary Embolism

d)

Pneumonia

53.

This is a thrombus formation in the deep veins, usually in the calf or thigh but sometimes the arm especially in patients with peripherally inserted catheters

a)

Embolism

b)

ARDS

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Deep Vein Thrombosis

54.

Types of emboli (SATA)

a)

Fat Emboli

b)

Burn Emboli

c)

Air Emboli

d)

Septic Emboli

e)

Amniotic Fluid Emboli

55.

A type of emboli that usually come from intravenous devices

a)

Fat emboli

b)

Septic emboli

c)

Air emboli

d)

Amniotic fluic emboli

56.

A type of emboli that clogs the arteries (cholesterol or fatty substances)

a)

Septic emboli

b)

Fat emboli

c)

Burn emboli

d)

Amniotic Fluic emboli

57.

A type of emboli that originates from a bacterial invasion

a)

Septic emboli

b)

Air emboli

c)

Fat emboli

d)

Diabetic Emboli

58.

A type of emboli that's leaked towards the arteries

a)

Air emboli

b)

Septic emboli

c)

Travelling emboli

d)

Amniotic Fluid emboli

59.

Pathophysiology of Pulmonary Embolism

a)

Constriction, Obstruction, Impairment, Consequences, Failure

b)

Constriction, Impairment, Obstruction, Consequences, Failure

c)

Obstruction, Impairment, Constriction, Consequences, Failure

d)

Obstruction, Constriction, Impairment, Consequences, Failure

60.

Causes of Pulmonary Embolism (SATA)

a)

Genetic

b)

Trauma

c)

Surgery

d)

Hypercoagulable states

e)

Prolonged immobility

61.

Most frequent SYMPTOM of pulmonary embolism

a)

Chest Pain

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Dyspnea

62.

Most frequent SIGN of pulmonary embolism

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Bradycardia

63.

DVT prevention (SATA)

a)

Anticoagulant Therapy

b)

Sequential compression devices

c)

Mechanical prophylaxis

d)

Graduated compression stockings

e)

Avoid Venous stasis

64.

Complications of Pulmonary Embolism (SATA)

a)

Bronchial collapse

b)

Cardiogenic Shock

c)

Lung Failure

d)

Right Ventricular failure

65.

This test may show infiltration, atelectasis, elevation of diaphragm or pleural effusion on patients with PE

a)

Pulmonary angiogram

b)

CXR

c)

V/Q Scan

d)

Bronchoscopy

66.

ECG in patients with PE usually shows: (SATA)

a)

Tall, peaked P waves

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

PR- Interval depression

d)

Nonspecific T- wave changes

67.

A test that allows for direct visualization under flouroscopy of the arterial obstruction and accurate assessment of perfusion deficit

a)

V/Q scan

b)

ABG analysis

c)

Bronchoscopy

d)

Pulmonary Angiogram

68.

This evaluates the different regions of the lung and allows comparisons of the percentage of ventilation and perfusion in each area

a)

V/Q scan

b)

ABG

c)

Bronchoscopy

d)

CXR

69.

The PRIMARY method for managing acute DVT and PE

a)

Heparin

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Warfarin

d)

Protamine Sulfate

70.

Thrombolytic therapy in severely compromised patients with PE (SATA)

a)

Phospotransferase

b)

Urokinase

c)

Streptokinase

d)

Alteplase

71.

This is the surgical removal of the actual clot (PE) that is performed by the cardiovascular surgical team.

a)

Surgical Embolectomy

b)

Transvenous catheter embolectomy

c)

Interrupting the vena cava

72.

In performing a surgical embolectomy, the patient must be under:

a)

Transmyocardial Laser revascularization

b)

Anesthesia

c)

Coronary angioplasty

d)

Cardiopulmonary bypass

73.

It is a technique in which a vacuum cupped catheter is introduced transvenously into the affected pulmonary artery

a)

Central Venous Catheterization

b)

Aspiration catheterization embolectomy

c)

Transvenous Catheter Embolectomy

d)

Surgical Embolectomy

74.

This approach prevents dislodged thrombi from being swept into the lungs while allowing adequate blood flow.

a)

Interruption of the Vena Cava

b)

Aspiration Catheterization Embolectomy

c)

Surgical Embolectomy

d)

Transvenous Catheter Embolectomy

75.

It is a form of breathing failure that can occur in very ill or severely injured people

a)

ARDS

b)

COPD

c)

Bronchial Collapse

d)

Pneumonia

76.

Swelling of tissue in the lungs and build up of fluid in the tiny air saca that transfer oxygen to the bloodstream therefore leads to low blood oxygen levels

a)

COPD

b)

ARDS

c)

Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension

d)

IRDS

77.

Direct causes of ARDS (SATA)

a)

Burns

b)

Breathing smoke & Chemicals

c)

Breathing vomit

d)

Chest trauma

e)

Breathing salt water

78.

Indirect causes of ARDS

a)

Severe infection & Pneumonia

b)

Massive blood transfusion & pancreatitis

c)

Alcohol and substance overdose

d)

Lung and Bone marrow transplant

79.

Cigarette smokers, people with chronic lung disease and those who are over age 65 are more at risk of developing ARDS

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Symptoms of ARDS (SATA)

a)

SOB

b)

Fast, labored breathing

c)

Bluish skin or fingernail color

d)

Rapid pulse

e)

Jugular vein distension

81.

A CXR of a patient with ARDS shows _______ in the air sacs of both lungs and blood tests show ___________ in the blood

a)

Fluid, Low eosinophils

b)

Mass, Low WBC

c)

Fluid, Low oxygen

d)

Fluid, Low WBC

82.

Treatment of ARDS (SATA)

a)

Treatment of underlying cause

b)

Mechanical ventilation

c)

Monitoring blood chemistry and fluid levels

d)

Sedation for treatments

e)

Encourage deep breathing exercises