wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NCM 112 Lecture (Oxygen-Transport)

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 7hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A new RN is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client whose anemia was caused by blood loss after surgery. Which action by the new RN requires that you, as charge nurse, intervene immediately?
a)
The new RN waits 20 minutes after obtaining the PRBCs before starting the infusion.
b)
The new RN starts an intravenous line for the transfusion using a 22-gauge catheter.
c)
The new RN primes the transfusion set using 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer’s solution.
d)
The new RN tells the client that the PRBCs may cause a serious transfusion reaction.
2.
A 32-year-old client with a history of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital during a sickle cell crisis. The physician orders all of these interventions. Which order will you implement first?
a)
Give morphine sulfate 4-8 mg IV every hour as needed.
b)
Start a large-gauge IV line and infuse normal saline at 200 mL/hour.
c)
Immunize with Pneumovax and Haemophilus influenzae vaccines.
d)
Administer oxygen at an F102 of 100% per non-rebreather mask.
3.
You are making a room assignment for a newly arrived client whose laboratory testing indicates pancytopenia. All of these clients are already on the nursing unit. Which one will be the best roommate for the new client?
a)
The client with digoxin toxicity
b)
The client with viral pneumonia
c)
The client with shingles
d)
The client with cellulitis
4.
A client admitted to the hospital with a sickle cell crisis complains of severe abdominal, hip, and knee pain. You observe an LPN accomplishing these client care tasks. Which one requires that you, as charge nurse, intervene immediately?
a)
The LPN encourages the client to use the ordered PCA.
b)
The LPN positions cold packs on the client’s knees.
c)
The LPN places a “No Visitors” sign on the client’s door.
d)
The LPN checks the client’s temperature every 2 hours.
5.
After receiving change-of-shift report about all of these clients, which one will you assess first?
a)
A 26-year-old with thalassemia major who has a short-stay admission for a blood transfusion
b)
A 44-year-old who was admitted 3 days previously with a sickle cell crisis and has orders for a CT scan
c)
A 50-year-old with newly diagnosed stage IV non-Hodgskin’s lymphoma who is crying and stating “I’m not ready to die.”
d)
A 69-year-old with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia who has an elevated oral temperature
6.
The nurse in the outpatient clinic is assessing a 22-year-old with a history of a recent splenectomy after a motor vehicle accident. Which information obtained during the assessment will be of most immediate concern to the nurse?
a)
The client engages in unprotected sex.
b)
The client has an oral temperature of 99.7o F
c)
The client has abdominal pain with light palpation.
d)
The client admits to occasional marijuana use.
7.
After receiving the change-of-shift report, which client will you assess first?
a)
A 20-year-old with possible acute myelogenous leukemia who has just arrived on the medical unit
b)
A 38-year-old with aplastic anemia who needs teaching about decreasing infection risk prior to discharge
c)
A 40-year-old with lymphedema who requests help to put on compression stockings before getting out of bed
d)
A 60-year-old with non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma who is refusing the ordered chemotherapy regimen
8.
The nurse is preparing to teach a client with microcytic hypochromic anemia about the diet to follow after discharge. Which of the following foods should be included in the diet?
a)
Eggs
b)
Lettuce
c)
Citrus fruits
d)
Cheese
9.
The nurse would instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain the best supply of vitamin B12?
a)
Whole grains
b)
Green leafy vegetables
c)
Meats and dairy products
d)
Broccoli and Brussels sprouts
10.
The nurse has just admitted a 35-year-old female client who has a serum B12 concentration of 800 pg/ml. Which of the following laboratory findings would cue the nurse to focus the client history on specific drug or alcohol abuse?
a)
Total bilirubin, 0.3 mg/dL
b)
Serum creatinine, 0.5 mg/dL
c)
Hemoglobin, 16 g/dL
d)
Folate, 1.5 ng/mL
11.
The nurse understands that the client with pernicious anemia will have which distinguishing laboratory findings?
a)
Schilling’s test, elevated
b)
Intrinsic factor, absent.
c)
Sedimentation rate, 16 mm/hour
d)
RBCs 5.0 million
12.
The nurse devises a teaching plan for the patient with aplastic anemia. Which of the following is the most important concept to teach for health maintenance?
a)
Eat animal protein and dark leafy vegetables each day
b)
Avoid exposure to others with acute infection
c)
Practice yoga and meditation to decrease stress and anxiety
d)
Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps during the day
13.
A client comes into the health clinic 3 years after undergoing a resection of the terminal ileum complaining of weakness, shortness of breath, and a sore tongue. Which client statement indicates a need for intervention and client teaching?
a)
“I have been drinking plenty of fluids.”
b)
“I have been gargling with warm salt water for my sore tongue.”
c)
“I have 3 to 4 loose stools per day.”
d)
“I take a vitamin B12 tablet every day.”
14.
A vegetarian client was referred to a dietician for nutritional counseling for anemia. Which client outcome indicates that the client does not understand nutritional counseling? The client:
a)
Adds dried fruit to cereal and baked goods
b)
Cooks tomato-based foods in iron pots
c)
Drinks coffee or tea with meals
d)
Adds vitamin C to all meals
15.
A client was admitted with iron deficiency anemia and blood-streaked emesis. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask in determining the extent of the client’s activity intolerance?
a)
“What activities were you able to do 6 months ago compared with the present?”
b)
“How long have you had this problem?”
c)
“Have you been able to keep up with all your usual activities?”
d)
“Are you more tired now than you used to be?”
16.
The primary purpose of the Schilling test is to measure the client’s ability to:
a)
Store vitamin B12
b)
Digest vitamin B12
c)
Absorb vitamin B12
d)
Produce vitamin B12
17.
The nurse implements which of the following for the client who is starting a Schilling test?
a)
Administering methylcellulose (Citrucel)
b)
Starting a 24- to 48 hour urine specimen collection
c)
Maintaining NPO status
d)
Starting a 72 hour stool specimen collection
18.
A client with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest of her life. What is the nurse’s best response?
a)
The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient acid.”
b)
“The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor.”
c)
“The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an excessive excretion of the vitamin because of kidney dysfunction.”
d)
“The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an increased requirement for the vitamin because of rapid red blood cell production.”
19.
A client is to receive epoetin (Epogen) injections. What laboratory value should the nurse assess before giving the injection?
a)
Hematocrit
b)
Partial thromboplastin time
c)
Hemoglobin concentration
d)
Prothrombin time
20.
A client states that she is afraid of receiving vitamin B12 injections because of the potential toxic reactions. What is the nurse’s best response to relieve these fears?
a)
"Vitamin B12 will cause ringing in the eats before a toxic level is reached.”
b)
“Vitamin B12 may cause a very mild skin rash initially.”
c)
“Vitamin B12 may cause mild nausea but nothing toxic.”
d)
“Vitamin B12 is generally free of toxicity because it is water soluble.”
21.
When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse monitors for changes in which of the following physiological functions?
a)
Bleeding tendencies
b)
Intake and output
c)
Peripheral sensation
d)
Bowel function
22.
A client with anemia may be tired due to a tissue deficiency of which of the following substances?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Factor VIII
c)
Oxygen
d)
T-cell antibodies
23.
Which of the following diagnostic findings are most likely for a client with aplastic anemia?
a)
Decreased production of T-helper cells
b)
Decreased levels of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
c)
Increased levels of WBCs, RBCs, and platelets
d)
Reed-Sternberg cells and lymph node enlargement
24.
Which of the following would the nurse identify as the priority nursing diagnosis during a toddler’s vasoocclusive sickle cell crisis?
a)
Ineffective coping related to the presence of a life-threatening disease
b)
Decreased cardiac output related to abnormal hemoglobin formation
c)
Pain related to tissue anoxia
d)
Excess fluid volume related to infection
25.
A child suspected of having sickle cell disease is seen in a clinic, and laboratory studies are performed. A nurse checks the lab results, knowing that which of the following would be increased in this disease?
a)
Platelet count
b)
Hematocrit level
c)
Reticulocyte count
d)
Hemoglobin level
26.

What is the most common type of anemia?

a)

sickle cell anemia

b)

aplastic anemia

c)

iron-deficiency anemia

d)

pernicious anemia

27.

Which type of anemia is caused by a lack of vitamin B12?

a)

pernicious anemia

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

iron-deficiency anemia

d)

aplastic anemia

28.

What is the main characteristic of sickle cell anemia?

a)

Low white blood cell count

b)

High red blood cell count

c)

Abnormal hemoglobin

d)

Normal hemoglobin

29.

Which type of anemia is inherited and affects the production of normal hemoglobin?

a)

Hemolytic Anemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Aplastic Anemia

d)

Iron-deficiency Anemia

30.

What is the cause of aplastic anemia?

a)

Excessive production of red blood cells

b)

Infection in the bone marrow

c)

Genetic mutation in the blood cells

d)

Decrease in the bone marrow's ability to produce RBC

31.

Which type of anemia is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells?

a)

hemolytic anemia

b)

iron-deficiency anemia

c)

aplastic anemia

d)

sickle cell anemia

32.

What is the treatment for iron-deficiency anemia?

a)

Blood transfusion and exercise

b)

Iron supplementation and dietary changes

c)

Vitamin C supplementation and rest

d)

Antibiotics and surgery

33.

Which type of anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor?

a)

pernicious anemia

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

iron-deficiency anemia

d)

aplastic anemia

34.

What is the main symptom of anemia?

a)

Dizziness

b)

Fatigue or tiredness

c)

Nausea

d)

Fever

35.

Which type of anemia is characterized by a decrease in all three types of blood cells?

a)

aplastic anemia

b)

iron-deficiency anemia

c)

sickle cell anemia

d)

pernicious anemia

36.

Iron is stored in the form of ?

a)

Transferin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Biliverdin

d)

Protoporphyrin

37.

Which of the following parameter is increased in IDA?

a)

Serum Iron

b)

Transferrin saturation

c)

Serum ferritin

d)

Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin

38.

What is the most common cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia?

a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

Chronic blood loss

c)

Excess iron intake

d)

Bone marrow

39.

Which of the following is not a common symptoms of Iron Deficiency Anemia?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Yellowing of skin

d)

Brittle nails

40.

What laboratory finding is most characteristic of Iron Deficiency Anemia?

a)

High hemoglobin

b)

Low ferritin level

c)

High mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

d)

High serum iron

41.

Which of the following populations is at the highest risk of developing Iron Deficiency Anemia?

a)

Post menopausal women

b)

Young men

c)

Pregnant women

d)

Middle-aged men

42.

Which vitamin enhances iron absorption?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin K

43.

Which of the following foods is the best for treating Iron Deficiency Anemia?

a)

White rice

b)

Red meat

c)

Dairy products

d)

Green tea

44.

Which of the following conditions can lead to iron malabsorption?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Migraine

c)

Celiac disease

d)

Osteoarthritis

45.

Which of the following blood test findings is commonly seen in Iron Deficiency Anemia?

a)

Increased MCV

b)

Increased serum ferritin

c)

Increased serum iron

d)

Increased TIBC

46.

A craving for non nutritive substances like ice, clay or dirt is known as :

a)

Glossitis

b)

Koilonychia

c)

Pica

d)

Hemochromatosis

47.

In Iron Deficiency Anemia, red blood cells typically appear :

a)

Microcytic and hypochromic

b)

Normochromic and normocytic

c)

Macrocytic and normochromic

d)

Spherocytic and hyperchromic

48.

Which of the following is a key substance required for the incorporation of vitamin B12 in the nuclear synthesis of red blood cells?

a)

EPO

b)

Transferrin

c)

Intrinsic factor

d)

Homocysteine

49.

Evidence of a megaloblastic anemia includes:

a)

Microcytic RBCs

b)

Thrombocytosis

c)

Decreased red cell precursors with other cell lines unaffected

d)

Pancytopenia

50.

All of the following are possible causes of low levels of intrinsic factor (IF) except :

a)

Gastrectomy

b)

Pernicious anemia

c)

Gastritis

d)

Kidney failure

51.

Which MCV range is indicative of pernicious anemia?

a)

70 -80

b)

85 - 95

c)

95-105

d)

110-120

52.

Which of the following RBC morphologies is classic in the megaloblastic anemias?

a)

Polychromasia

b)

Macro ovalocytes

c)

Macrocytes

d)

Hypochromia

53.

A macrocytosis that is not megaloblastic in origin can be have all of the following except:

a)

Macrocytes

b)

Pancytopenia

c)

Decreased RBC count only

d)

Hypersegmentation

54.

Which of the following describes the ineffective erythropoiesis seen with megaloblastic anemia?

a)

An increase in the M:E ratio

b)

A synthetic defect in hemoglobin

c)

Premature destruction of RBC precursors

d)

A DNA maturation defect

55.

Intrinsic factor is secreted by the:

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Ileum

c)

Duodenum

d)

Bone marrow

56.

The Schilling test continues to be a historic reference method for the determination of:

a)

IDA

b)

Pernicious anemia

c)

Folic acid deficiency

d)

Non megaloblastic anemia

57.

Macrocytic RBCs are routinely seen in all of the following except:

a)

Pernicious anemia

b)

Liver disease

c)

Response to anemic stress

d)

Thalassemia

58.

Which of the following is a clinical symptom specific to B12 deficiency?

a)

Fever

b)

Numbness and trouble with balance

c)

Pallor

d)

Splenomegaly

59.

All of the following may cause a non megaloblastic anemia except

a)

Alcoholism

b)

Pernicious anemia

c)

Liver disease

d)

Folate deficiency

60.

What is the typical shape of red blood cells in Sickle Cell Anemia?

a)

Donut Shaped

b)

Cresent Shaped

c)

Circular

d)

Rectangular

61.

How long do TYPICAL red blood cells take to break down and die?

a)

A few hours

b)

200 days

c)

20 days

d)

120 days

62.

True or False: Sickle Cell Anemia can be diagnosed before birth.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Why are red blood cells important?

a)

They aid in hydration

b)

They fight off infections

c)

They help deliver oxygen to the body

d)

They destroy and break down cells

64.

Which of the following is NOT something to specifically watch for in patients with sickle cell?

a)

Symptoms of Stroke

b)

Foot drop

c)

Vision Problems

d)

Swelling in hands and feet

65.

Which of the following is a big concern regarding sickle cell anemia?

a)

Nerve problems

b)

Blood clots

c)

Loss of Sensation

66.

Which genotype represents a patient that suffers from sickle cell disease, if A represents the normal allele?

a)

SS

b)

AS

c)

AA

d)

SA

67.

How many copies of the sickle cell gene are needed for a person to have the disorder?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

68.

Sickle cell is cause by

a)

a virus

b)

a parasite

c)

a gene (DNA)

d)

excessive cell phone use

69.

Dr. Allison found that people with sickle cell anemia were more common (check all that apply)

a)

in large cities

b)

near the ocean

c)

near lakes

d)

in the mountains

70.

The sickle-shaped cells can also stick to vessel walls, causing a blockage that slows or stops the flow of blood. When this happens, oxygen can't reach nearby tissues. The lack of oxygen can cause ______.

a)

Anemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Sickle Cell Trait

d)

Episodes of Pain

e)

Red Blood Cells

71.

The sickle-shaped cells can also ______ vessel walls, causing a blockage that slows or stops the flow of blood. When this happens, _____ can't reach nearby tissues.

a)

stick to, oxygen

b)

scrape, oxygen

c)

burst through, carbon dioxide

d)

scrape, carbon dioxide

e)

stick to, carbon oxygen

72.

Who is at risk for sickle cell disease?

a)

African Americans

b)

Hispanics

c)

Asians

d)

Native Americans

e)

Caucasians

73.

What is the primary cause of sickle cell anemia?

a)

A mutation in the hemoglobin gene

b)

A deficiency in iron

c)

A viral infection

d)

An autoimmune disorder

74.

Which of the following best describes the shape of red blood cells in sickle cell anemia?

a)

Round

b)

Oval

c)

Sickle-shaped

d)

Square

75.

What is the main symptom of sickle cell anemia?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Chronic pain

c)

Excessive bleeding

d)

Frequent infections

76.

How is sickle cell anemia inherited?

a)

Through a dominant allele

b)

Through a recessive allele

c)

Through a viral infection

d)

Through environmental factors

77.

Which population is most commonly affected by sickle cell anemia?

a)

Caucasians

b)

African Americans

c)

Asians

d)

Native Americans

78.

What is the role of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

a)

To carry oxygen

b)

To fight infections

c)

To clot blood

d)

To produce energy

79.

Which of the following treatments is commonly used for sickle cell anemia?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Blood transfusions

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Radiation therapy

80.

What complication can arise from sickle cell anemia due to blocked blood vessels?

a)

Stroke

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

Similar Resources on Wayground

Kuiz Kemerdekaan

80 questions

Kuiz Kemerdekaan

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

SBMPTN TPS JANUARI

75 questions

SBMPTN TPS JANUARI

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Grammar Second Partial Exam UASD Raisa Diaz

80 questions

Grammar Second Partial Exam UASD Raisa Diaz

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

QUIZ MSDM KELAS 17D

80 questions

QUIZ MSDM KELAS 17D

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Microeconomics

84 questions

Microeconomics

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

English : Starters

84 questions

English : Starters

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - Professional Dev...

PS5/IPA5 Quiz 1-2

82 questions

PS5/IPA5 Quiz 1-2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Pendidikan Kewarganegaraan

75 questions

Pendidikan Kewarganegaraan

quiz

Worksheet

•

University