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EXAM 2 BMS PDA STUDY GUIDE Part 1

Total questions: 166

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Sugars are Poly-alcohols where the second to last carbon is in the _____________ conformation.

a)

Right Handed (D)

b)

Left Handed (L)

2.

The reference compound for naming D and L isomers of sugars is:

a)

Fructose

b)

Glucose

c)

Glyceraldehyde

d)

Ribose

e)

Sucrose

3.

What is this sugar?

a)

Erythrose

b)

Ribose

c)

Glyceraldehyde

d)

Glucose

e)

Mannose

4.

What is this sugar?

a)

Erythrose

b)

Glucose

c)

Galactose

d)

Ribose

e)

Glyceraldehyde

5.

What is this Sugar?

a)

Galactose

b)

Glucose

c)

Mannose

d)

Ribose

e)

Erythrose

6.

Which of the following structures is Glucose?

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.

Which of the following structures is Mannose?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.

Which of the following structures is Galactose?

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.

Which of the following is an epimeric pair?

a)

D-Glucose and D-Glucosamine

b)

D-Glucose and D-Mannose

c)

D-Glucose and L-Glucose

d)

D-Lactose and D-Sucrose

e)

L-Mannose and L-Fructose

10.

Which of these is Dihydroxyacetone?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

Which of the following structures is Fructose?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?

a)

Erythrose

b)

Fructose

c)

Glucose

d)

Glyceraldehyde

e)

Ribose

13.

When the linear form of glucose cyclizes, the product is a(n):

a)

anhydride

b)

glycoside

c)

hemiacetal

d)

lactone

e)

Oligosaccharide

14.

The alpha-D-Glucopyranose has the OH _____ of the first carbon.

a)

Up

b)

Left

c)

Down

d)

Right

15.

The beta-D-Glucopyranose has the OH _____ of the first carbon.

a)

Down

b)

Left

c)

Right

d)

Up

16.

Which of the following is an anomeric pair?

a)

D-glucose and D-fructose

b)

alpha-D-glucose and beta-D-glucose

c)

D-glucose and L-Glucose

d)

alpha-D-glucose and beta-L-glucose

17.

Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

a)

Glucose

b)

Starch

c)

Cellulose

d)

Sucrose

18.

Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?

a)

Fructose

b)

Glyceraldehyde

c)

Ribose

d)

Sucrose

19.

What is the common feature of a D-sugar?

a)

The second carbon has the -OH group on the left side

b)

The second carbon has the -OH group on the right side

c)

The second to last carbon has the -OH group on the left side

d)

The second to last carbon has the -OH group on the right side

20.

D-Glucose is called a reducing sugar because it undergoes an oxidation-reduction reaction at the anomeric carbon. One of the products of this reaction is:

a)

D-galactose

b)

D-gluconate

c)

D-glucuronate

d)

D-ribose

21.

Which of the following is a reduced glucose? (draw them to answer this question)

a)

fructose

b)

galactose

c)

gluconate

d)

glucitol

22.

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid? (draw them to answer this question)

a)

6-phospho-gluconate

b)

gluconate

c)

glucose

d)

glucuronate

e)

Muramic acid

23.

What is the name of this molecule?

a)

galactosamine

b)

glucanate

c)

glucitol

d)

glucosamine

24.

Trehalose

a)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 1 alpha)

b)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 4) Glc

c)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 2 beta) Fru

d)

Gal (beta 1 --> 4) Glc

25.

Maltose

a)

Gla (alpha 1 --> 1 alpha) Glc

b)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 4) Glc

c)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 2 beta) Fru

d)

Gal (beta 1 --> 4) Glc

26.

Sucrose

a)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 1 alpha) Glc

b)

Glc (alpha 1--> 4) Glc

c)

Glc (alpha 1--> 2 beta) Fru

d)

Gal (beta 1 --> 4) Glc

27.

Lactose

a)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 1 alpha) Glc

b)

Glc (alpha 1 --> 4) Glc

c)

Glc (alpha 1 -->2 beta) Fru

d)

Gal (beta 1 --> 4) Glc

28.

Glc (linked by alpha 1-4 bonds)

a)

Glycogen

b)

Chitin

c)

Cellulose

d)

Amylose

e)

Amylopectin

29.

Glc (linked by alpha 1-4 bonds) with alpha 1-6 branch points - made in animals

a)

Amylose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Chitin

d)

Cellulose

e)

Amylopectin

30.

GalNAc (linked by beta 1-4 bonds)

a)

Amylose

b)

Cellulose

c)

Glycogen

d)

Amylopectin

e)

Chitin

31.

Glc (linked by beta 1-4 bonds)

a)

Cellulose

b)

Amylose

c)

Amylopectin

d)

Glycogen

e)

Chitin

32.

Glc (linked by alpha 1-4 bonds) with alpha 1-6 branch points - made in plants

a)

Glycogen

b)

Chitin

c)

Amylose

d)

Amylopectin

e)

Cellulose

33.

Glycogen is a heteropolysaccharide.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Glycan is a heteropolysaccharide.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Glycogen is a:

a)

homopolysaccharide

b)

disaccharide

c)

glycan

d)

monosaccharide

36.

Sucrose is a(n):

a)

glycan

b)

monosaccharide

c)

homopolysaccharide

d)

disaccharide

37.

Chondroitin sulfate is a(n):

a)

disaccharide

b)

homopolysaccharide

c)

glycan

d)

monosaccharide

38.

Mannose is a(n):

a)

glycan

b)

Monosaccharide

c)

disaccharide

d)

homopolysaccharide

39.

Which blood type has an extra GalNAc compared to type O?

a)

Type A Blood Antigen

b)

Type B Blood Antigen

40.

Which blood type has an extra Gal compared to type O?

a)

Type A Blood Antigen

b)

Type B Blood Antigen

41.

Which of the following is a heteropolysaccharide?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Chitin

c)

Hyaluroante

d)

Glycogen

e)

Starch

42.

Which of the following co-enzymes and/or vitamins are needed for pyruvate decarboxylase?

a)

lipoic acid

b)

niacin

c)

panthothenic acid (as Co-enzyme A)

d)

riboflavin

e)

thiamine

43.

Starting with glucose and going to 2 pyruvates, how many net ATP were produced?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

10

44.

Starting with glucose and going to 2 pyruvates, how many net NADH were produced?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

10

45.

2 pyruvates to 2 Acetyl-CoA produce _____ CO2 and _____ NADH.

a)

2, 4

b)

4, 4

c)

4, 2

d)

2, 2

e)

2, 6

46.

2 isocitrates to 2 alpha-ketoglutarates produce _____ CO2 and _____ NADH.

a)

4, 2

b)

2, 2

c)

6, 2

d)

2, 4

47.

Starting with 1 six carbon glucose, up to this point a total of ____ ATP, ____ CO2 and ____ NADH have been produced.

a)

2, 4, 6

b)

6, 2, 4

c)

4, 2, 6

d)

2, 6, 4

48.

In alpha-keto-glutarate dehydrogenase, 2 alpha-ketoglutarates to 2 succinyl-CoA's Produce ___ CO2 and ___ NADH

a)

2, 4

b)

6, 4

c)

2, 6

d)

2, 2

49.

In alpha-keto-glutarate dehydrogenase: Starting with 1 six carbon glucose, up to this point, a total of ___ ATP, ___CO2 and ___ NADH have been produced.

a)

2, 2, 4

b)

8, 6, 2

c)

2, 4, 6

d)

2, 6, 8

50.

2 succinyl-CoA's to 2 succinates produce ___ GTP and ___ CoA's

a)

2, 4

b)

2, 2

c)

1, 2

d)

2, 6

51.

Starting with 1 six carbon glucose, up to this point, a total of ___ ATP, ___ GTP, ___ CO2 and ___ NADH have been produced.

a)

2, 2, 6, 8

b)

2, 6, 2, 8

c)

6, 8, 2, 2

d)

8, 2, 6, 2

52.

Succinate Dehydrogenase: 2 succinates to 2 fumarates produce ___ FADH2

a)

4

b)

2

c)

6

d)

8

53.

Succinate Dehydrogenase: Starting with 1 six carbon glucose up to this point a total of ___ ATP, ___ GTP, ___ CO2, ___ FADH2 and ___ NADH have been produced.

a)

2, 6, 2, 2, 8

b)

8, 2, 2, 6, 2

c)

2, 2, 6, 2, 8

d)

2, 8, 2, 6, 2

54.

Malate Dehydrogenase: 2 malates to 2 oxaloacetates produce: ___ NADH

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

55.

Malate Dehydrogenase: Starting with 1 six carbon glucose, up to this point a total of ___ ATP, ___ GTP, ___ CO2, ___ FADH2, and ___ NADH have been produced.

a)

2, 2, 6, 2, 2,

b)

2, 4, 6, 2, 2

c)

2, 2, 6, 2, 10

d)

2, 6, 6, 4, 2

56.

If we convert all GTP to ATP, how does the following change? Starting with 1 six carbon glucose, up to this point a total of ___ ATP, ___ CO2, ___ FADH2, and ___ NADH have been produced

a)

6, 2, 4, 8

b)

2, 3, 2, 5

c)

2, 2, 4, 6

d)

4, 6, 2, 10

57.

ETC will convert FADH2 into 1.5 ATP and NADH into 2.5 ATP.

Starting with 1 six carbon glucose, up to this point a total of up to ____ ATP, and ___ CO2 are produced.

(a)  

58.

When ATP is high in a cell, how does this affect the CAC?

a)

the CAC slows down

b)

No effect

c)

the CAC speeds up

59.

Which of the following lists of CAC intermediates is in the correct order?

a)

pyruvate, acetyl-CoA, citrate, isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, fumarate, succinate, malate, oxaloacetate

b)

pyruvate, citrate, acetyl-CoA, isocitrate, succinyl-CoA, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinate, fumarate, malate, oxaloacetate

c)

pyruvate, acetyl-CoA, citrate, isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate, oxaloacetate

d)

pyruvate, succinyl-CoA, citrate, isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, acetyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate, oxaloacetate

60.

Which of the following lists of enzymes of the CAC are in the correct order?

a)

pyruvate dehydrogenase, citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha-keto-glutarate dehydrogenase, succinate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, fumarase, malate dehydrogenase

b)

pyruvate dehydrogenase, citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha-keto-glutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, malate dehydrogenase

c)

pyruvate dehydrogenase, citrate synthase, aconitase, alpha-keto-glutarate dehydrogenase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, malate dehydrogenase

d)

pyruvate dehydrogenase, citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha-keto-glutarate dehydrogenase, fumarase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, malate dehydrogenase

61.

What reduced molecule is oxidized at site I?

a)

ATP

b)

FAD

c)

NADH

d)

FADH2

62.

Which of the following toxins are known to inhibit site I?

a)

Cyanide

b)

DNP

c)

oligomycin

d)

rotenone

63.

What class of drugs are known to inhibit the synthesis of Ubiquinone?

a)

steroids

b)

statins

c)

sulfonylureas

d)

beta-blockers

64.

Which of the following is an inhibitor for site II?

a)

Rotenone

b)

Cyanide

c)

Malonate

d)

Antimycin A

65.

What drug is known to inhibit site III?

a)

Antimycin A

b)

DNP

c)

Oligomycin

d)

Rotenone

66.

Site 4 is inhibited by:

a)

Antimycin A

b)

Cyanide

c)

DNP

d)

rotenone

67.

Which of the following is a Proton Gradient Uncoupling agent?

a)

atractyloside

b)

Dinitrophenol

c)

Oligomycin

d)

Antimycin A

68.

ATP/ADP antiporter inhibitor:

a)

rotenone

b)

Dinitrophenol

c)

cyanide

d)

atractyloside

69.

ATP synthase inhibitor:

a)

Antimycin A

b)

Oligomycin

c)

Atractyloside

d)

rotenone

70.

What is the ultimate electron acceptor?

a)

Fe3+

b)

O2

c)

CO2

d)

K+

71.

If a fatty acid has a double bond, what is the configuration of that double bond?

a)

trans

b)

D

c)

cis

d)

L

72.

Last carbon of a fatty acid is referred to as:

a)

Omega

b)

Carbon #3

c)

Beta

d)

Alpha

73.

Carbon that is 2 carbons away from the carboxylic carbon is referred to as:

a)

alpha

b)

Carbon #2

c)

Beta

d)

Carbon #1

74.

Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

a)

C16:0

b)

C18:0

c)

C16:1

d)

C20:0

75.

Which of the following is an Omega-3-Fatty acid?

a)

C20:4

b)

C18:1

c)

C18:3

d)

C16:0

76.

Which of the following is an Omega-6-Fatty acid?

a)

C20:4

b)

C16:0

c)

C18:1

d)

C18:3

77.

Which of the following is an Omega-9-Fatty Acid

a)

C18:3

b)

C16:0

c)

C18:1

d)

C20:4

78.

Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?

a)

C18:3

b)

C20:4

c)

C18:1

d)

C16:0

79.

What functional groups connects the fatty acids to the glycerol?

(a)  

80.

Glycerol can be described as:

a)

ketone

b)

Poly alcohol

c)

peptide

d)

reduced sugar

e)

hemiacetal

81.

Which of the following decreases the fluidity of a fat?

a)

increasing the temperature

b)

increasing the length of fatty acids

c)

increasing the number of double bonds

82.

What is Olestra?

a)

amino acids held together by peptide bonds

b)

a polymer of glucose

c)

fatty acids esterified to glycerol

d)

fatty acids esterified to sucrose

e)

a fatty acid esterified to cholesterol

83.

What is Olestra?

a)

a drug that blocks the digestion of triglycerides

b)

a low calorie fat substitute

c)

a drug that blocks the digestion of starch

d)

a low calorie sugar substitute

e)

a drug to lower cholesterol

84.

What is the difference between storage fat and membrane lipid?

a)

Membrane lipids are phosphodiglycerides while storage fat are triglycerides

b)

Membrane lipids are triglycerides while storage fat are phosphodiglycerides

85.

Which of the following structures would you find on a phosphodiglyceride?

a)

a polar head group

b)

a ketone group

c)

glycerol esterified to 2 fatty acids

d)

phosphate esterified to glycerol

e)

unsaturated fatty acid esterified to glycerol

86.

Which functional group change do you find on a plasmalogen compared to a phosphodiglyceride?

a)

an ether at position 2 rather than an ester

b)

an ether at position 1 rather than an ester

87.

Which of the following is similar to a diglyceride, but has a carbon-carbon bond at position 1 and an amide at position 2?

a)

plasmalogen

b)

olestra

c)

sphingolipid

d)

diglyceride

88.

Which of the following is similar to a diglyceride but has an ether at position 1?

a)

Plasmalogen

b)

olestra

c)

sphingolipid

d)

triglyceride

89.

Which of the following has 6 fatty acids esterified to sucrose?

a)

plasmalogen

b)

sphingolipid

c)

phosphodiglyceride

d)

Olestra

90.

Which of the following has 2 fatty acids esterified to glycerol with phosphate esterified on the 3rd position?

a)

olestra

b)

phosphodiglyceride

c)

diglyceride

d)

triglyceride

91.

Which of the following is 2 fatty acids esterified to glycerol?

a)

sphingolipid

b)

diglyceride

c)

plasmalogen

d)

triglyceride

92.

Which of the following has 3 fatty acids esterified to glycerol?

a)

triglyceride

b)

diglyceride

c)

sphingolipid

d)

olestra

93.

What type of molecule is a blood group antigen?

a)

proteoglycan

b)

glycolipid

c)

glycoprotein

d)

a phosphodiglyceride

94.

Glycolipids are oligosaccharide sugars which are usually attached to which type of lipid?

a)

cholesterol

b)

fatty acid

c)

sphingolipid

d)

phosphodiglyceride

95.

Which of the following blood types has an extra Galactose N Acetate (GalNAc)?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type O

96.

Which of the following blood types has an extra Galactose (Gal)?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type O

97.

Which blood type has one less monosaccharide compared to the other two types?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type O

98.

Defects of the beta-galactosidase enzyme causes which disease?

a)

Gaucher's disease

b)

Tay-Sachs disease

c)

generalized gangliosidosis

d)

Fabry's disease

99.

Defects of the glucocerebrosidase enzyme causes which disease?

a)

Gaucher's disease

b)

Niemann-Pick disease

c)

Fabry's disease

d)

Tay Sachs disease

100.

Defects of the hexosaminisases A and B enzyme causes which disease?

a)

Tay-Sachs disease

b)

Fabry's disease

c)

Gaucher's disease

d)

Sandhoff's disease

101.

Defects of the hexosaminidase A enzyme causes which disease?

a)

Gaucher's disease

b)

Tay-Sachs disease

c)

generalized gangliosidosis

d)

Niemann-Pick disease

102.

Defects of the alpha-galactosidase A enzyme causes which disease?

a)

Niemann-Pick disease

b)

Fabry's disease

c)

generalized gangliosidosis

d)

Standhoff's disease

103.

Defects of the spingomyelinase enzyme causes which disease?

a)

Sandhoff's disease

b)

Fabry's disease

c)

Niemann-Pick disease

d)

Gaucher's disease

104.

Which following disease results in failure to place a mannose-6-phosphate on to a lysosomal glycoprotein enzyme?

a)

Tay Sachs disease

b)

I-cell disease

c)

generalized gangliosidosis

d)

Gaucher's disease

105.

Which of the following diseases results in a defect in hexamidase A?

a)

Tay Sachs disease

b)

I-cell disease

c)

generalized gangliosidosis

d)

gaucher's disease

106.

Which of the following diseases results in a defect in beta-galactosidase?

a)

I-Cell disease

b)

Tay Sachs disease

c)

Gaucher's disease

d)

generalized gangliosidosis

107.

Which of the following diseases results in a defect in glucocerebrosidase?

a)

I-cell disease

b)

Gaucher's disease

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

Generalized gangliosidosis

108.

Which of the following molecules is made from cholesterol? (pick all that apply)

a)

Cortisol

b)

Vitamin E

c)

Estrogen

d)

Testosterone

e)

Vitamin D

109.

Which of the following has 5 carbons?

a)

CoQ10

b)

isoprenoid

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Rickets

110.

Which of the following has 10 isoprene units?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Vitamin D

c)

CoQ10

d)

Isoprenoid

111.

Which of the following is made from cholesterol?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Isoprenoid

c)

CoQ10

d)

Rickets

112.

Which of the following results in a Vitamin D deficiency?

a)

Rickets

b)

Cholesterol

c)

CoQ10

d)

Isoprenoid

113.

Which of the following has 4 fused rings?

a)

Isoprenoid

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Cholesterol

d)

CoQ10

114.

At which stage of the cell cycle does Cell Division take place?

a)

M

b)

S

c)

G1

d)

G0

115.

At which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?

a)

M

b)

G2

c)

G1

d)

S

116.

At which stage of the cell cycle is the cell so highly specialized that it can no longer be divided?

a)

G2

b)

G-TD

c)

S

d)

G0

117.

At which point of the cell cycle is protein synthesis needed for DNA replication?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

M

118.

At which point of the cell cycle is protein synthesis needed for cell division?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

119.

At which point of the cell cycle is the cell not growing or preparing for division?

a)

G0

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

M

120.

What is a molecule needed to progress from one stage to the next?

(a)  

121.

Which is a part of the cell cycle that prevents movement to the next stage of the cell cycle unless a requirement is met?

(a)  

122.

Which cyclin is needed for the movement from G1 to S?

a)

Cyclin A-CDK2

b)

Cyclin B-CDK2

c)

Cyclin E-CDK2

123.

Which molecule blocks Cyclin E-CDK2?

a)

p53 via p21

b)

Vitamin E

c)

Zymogen

124.

People with a mutation of p53 are at risk for which of the following?

a)

diabetes

b)

cancer

c)

ulcers

d)

obesity

125.

A sequence of events resulting from a cell's inappropriate entry into mitosis resulting in apoptosis is referred to as a:

(a)  

126.

(a)   inhibits the action of cyclin allowing for DNA repair or apoptosis

127.

Which of the following choices represent the correct order of the cell cycle?

a)

G1, M, S, G2

b)

S, G1, G2, M

c)

G1, S, M, G2

d)

G1, S, G2, M

128.

Which of the following are in the correct order?

a)

Prophase, Metaphase, Prometaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

b)

Prophase, Prometaphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

c)

Prophase, Prometaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

d)

Prometaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

129.

At which stage does the nuclear envelope disintegrate?

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

130.

At which stage do the chromosomes condense?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

131.

At which stage does the DNA move to an equatorial region of the cell?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prometaphase

132.

At which stage does the DNA pairs separate?

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

133.

At which stage does the cell divide?

a)

Telophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

134.

Programmed cell death is referred to as:

(a)  

135.

Which of the following is a regulatory protein in the cascade of insulin and insulin-like growth factors?

a)

Gain of function mutation

b)

Ras

c)

proto-oncogene

d)

oncogene

136.

Which of the following is a mutation to a regulatory protein which causes it to have increased function?

a)

Gain-of-Function Mutation

b)

Ras

c)

oncogene

d)

proto-oncogene

137.

Which of the following is a normal gene which, when altered by a mutation, becomes an oncogene?

a)

Ras

b)

Gain-of-Function mutation

c)

Oncogene

d)

Proto-oncogene

138.

Which of the following is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer?

a)

proto-oncogene

b)

Gain-of-Function mutation

c)

Ras

d)

Oncogene

139.

If solute X requires active transport to move into the cell and solute Y uses passive transport to enter the cell, where are X and Y at higher concentrations?

a)

X - Outside, Y - Inside

b)

X - Inside, Y - Inside

c)

X - Inside, Y - Outside

d)

X - Outside, Y - Outside

140.

If solute Y leaves the cell in exchange for Na+ entry, and solute X enters the cell when an "X" channel opens, where are X and Y at higher concentrations?

a)

X - Outside, Y - Outside

b)

X - Inside, Y - Outside

c)

X - Outside, Y - Inside

d)

X - Inside, Y - Inside

141.

Calculate the Nernst potential for K+ under the following conditions:

Intracellular K+: 150mM and Extracellular K+: 2mM

a)

114mV

b)

63mV

c)

-114mV

d)

-63mV

142.

Lipids in a membrane can move quickly in which way?

a)

into the cytoplasm

b)

lateral diffusion on one side of the membrane

c)

flip-flop diffusion from one side to the other

d)

into the extracellular matrix

143.

Which of the following factors Increase membrane fluidity?

a)

a decrease in temperature

b)

an increase in the amount of unsaturation

c)

an increase in the length of the fatty tails

144.

Which of the following statements about membranes is true?

a)

most plasma membranes contains more than 70% protein

b)

steroids are found in membranes

c)

Membranes consist of a single layer of lipids

d)

free fatty acids make up most of the membrane surface

145.

Which of the following is a protein in bedded into a membrane?

a)

serpentine proteins

b)

peripheral proteins

c)

integral proteins

d)

transmembrane proteins

146.

Which of the following are proteins that pass through a membrane multiple times?

a)

Integral proteins

b)

peripheral proteins

c)

serpentine proteins

d)

transmembrane proteins

147.

Which of the following are proteins attached to a membrane, but the amino acids don't penetrate the membrane?

a)

integral proteins

b)

transmembrane proteins

c)

serpentine proteins

d)

peripheral proteins

148.

Which of the following are integral proteins that pass all the way through a protein?

a)

transmembrane proteins

b)

peripheral proteins

c)

serpentine proteins

d)

integral proteins

149.

A protein channel permits specific ions to passively (no input of energy) pass through a membrane.

a)

ionophore

b)

simple diffusion

c)

ion channel

d)

facilitated diffusion

150.

A protein channel permits specific molecules or ions to pass through a membrane, but requires the input of energy, usually in the form of ATP.

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

Secondary active transport

c)

simple diffusion

d)

Primary active transport

151.

Molecules can dissolve into and back out of the membrane.

a)

ion channel

b)

simple diffusion

c)

secondary active transport

d)

facilitated diffusion

152.

A molecule that can bind to an ion and then dissolve into and across a membrane.

a)

ion channel

b)

ionophore

c)

secondary active transport

d)

simple diffusion

153.

A protein channel permits specific molecules or ions to pass through a membrane, but requires the input of energy from an ion gradient.

a)

primary active transport

b)

ion channel

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

secondary active transport

154.

A protein channel permits specific molecules to passively (no input of energy) pass through a membrane.

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

primary active transport

c)

simple diffusion

d)

secondary active transport

155.

Which molecule is needed to facilitate the movement of water into and out of a cell to balance osmolarity on both sides of the membrane

(a)  

156.

Uses ATP to pump protons (H+) out and potassiums in, needed to acidify the stomach lumen

a)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of eukaryotes

b)

F type of ATPase of the mitochondria

c)

V type of ATPase of the vesicles

d)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of the stomach parietal cells

157.

Uses ATP to pump 3 sodiums out and 2 potassiums in, needed to polarize a cell

a)

V type of ATPase of the vesicles

b)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of eukaryotes

c)

F type of ATPase of the mitochondria

d)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of the stomach parietal cells

158.

Is primary active transport running in reverse to make ATP from a proton gradient

a)

F type of ATPase of the mitochondria

b)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of eukaryotes

c)

F type of ATPase of the mitochondria

d)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of the stomach parietal cells

159.

Uses ATP to pump protons (H+) into the vesicle

a)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of the stomach parietal cells

b)

F type of ATPase of the mitochondria

c)

V type of ATPase of the vesicles

d)

P type of ATPase of the plasma membrane of eukaryotes

160.

Secondary active transport found on the luminal side of intestinal cells

a)

Glucose Sodium Symporters

b)

GluT 1 Transporters

c)

GluT 4 Transporters

d)

GluT 3 Transporters

161.

Facilitated glucose transporters that are insulin sensitive and found on muscle and fat cells

a)

GluT 5 Transporters

b)

Glucose Sodium Symporters

c)

GluT 4 Transporters

d)

GluT 3 Transporters

162.

N-type Acetyl Choline Receptor Inhibitor

a)

Saxitoxin

b)

Vanadate

c)

Curare

d)

Ouabian

163.

Sodium-Potassium ATPase Inhibitor

a)

Ouabain

b)

Curare

c)

Tetrodotoxin

d)

Vanadate

164.

Voltage-gated sodium channel Inhibitor (from red tide bacteria)

a)

Tetrodotoxin

b)

Ouabain

c)

Saxitoxin

d)

Vanadate

165.

Voltage-gated sodium channel inhibitor (from puffer fish)

a)

Curare

b)

Ouabain

c)

Saxitoxin

d)

Tetrodotoxin

166.

P-type ATPase Inhibitor

a)

Ouabain

b)

Vanadate

c)

Saxitoxin

d)

Curare

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