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Interns' Monthly Exam LE

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In this foot deformity, the heel is off the gound

a)

pes varus

b)

pes valgus

c)

pes equinus

d)

pes cavus

2.

Partial tearing of this ligament occurs at its tibial and femoral attachment and is a result of forces abduction of the tibia in the femur:

a)

Lateral Collateral Ligament

b)

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

c)

Medial Collateral Ligament

d)

Posterior Cruciate Ligament

3.

The following statements are true of the patella, except:

a)

Decreases pressure and distribute forces on the femur

b)

It is unable to prevent damaging forces on the quadriceps tendon in resisted knee flexion

c)

Increases the leverage of the quadriceps femoris

d)

When knee is flexed, it provides bony protection to the distal joint surfaces of the femoral condyles

4.

The fibula functions as follows:

a)

Give origin to muscles

b)

Act as a lateral "splint" for the ankle joint

c)

Acts as a puller for tendons passing behind it at the ankle

d)

All of the above

5.

This ligament is useful in preventing the femur from being extended beyond the point at which the lower limb is in line with the trunk thus ensuring that little or no muscular effort is required to prevent one from rolling over at one's hip joint:

a)

Transverse Ligament of the acetabulum

b)

Ischiofemoral Ligament

c)

Puboischeal ligament

d)

Iliofemoral Ligament

6.

This ligament supports the head of the talus, and when over-stretched, it will reduce the amount of longitudinal arc resulting in flatfoot deformity:

a)

Calcaneonavicular Ligament

b)

Deltoid Ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular Ligament

d)

Talofibular Ligament

7.

The only tarsal bone with no muscle attachment:

a)

Cuboid

b)

Talus

c)

Navicular

d)

Calcaneus

8.

The following statements are true of the plantar aponeurosis, EXCEPT:

a)

It is firm when the MTP joint is manually placed in 45 degrees of hyperextension

b)

It is an attachment for intrinsic muscles of the foot and facial covering for others

c)

It helps prevent displacement of the calcaneus from the metatarsal heads and collapse of the arches

d)

It is a series of fascial bands on the dorsum and sides of the foot

9.

Almost the whole of the broad sacral plexus narrows down to form a huge branch, called:

a)

Femoral Nerve

b)

Obturator Nerve

c)

Sciatic Nerve

d)

Saphenous Nerve

10.

Since terminal knee extension requires sacral rotation of the tibia on the femur, initiation of knee flexion requires the reverse action of medial rotation of the tibia on the femur. This action is performed by:

a)

Popliteus

b)

Semitendinosus

c)

Articularis Genu

d)

Plantaris

11.

This muscle is is proximally attached to anterior superior spine of ilium and attached distally; it is innervated by the femoral nerve and flexes, externally rotates and abducts the hip as well as flexes and medially rotates the knee

a)

Rectus femoris

b)

Sartorius

c)

Pectineus

d)

Tensor Fascia Latae

12.

The ball of the foot corresponds to the:

a)

Sole of the foot

b)

Heads of metatarsals

c)

Base of metatarsals

d)

Calcaneus

13.

In the process of rising up from the sitting position, the following muscles are active, except:

a)

Iliopsoas

b)

Triceps Surae

c)

Gluteus Max

d)

Quadriceps Femoris

14.

The blood supply of the posterior thigh muscles comes mainly from:

a)

Popliteal Artery

b)

Inferior Gluteal Artery

c)

Femoral Artery

d)

Profunda Femoris Artery

15.

Closed packed position of the knee

a)

25 degrees flexion

b)

Full extension

c)

Full Flexion

d)

10 degrees flexion

16.

The femoral nerve arises from which of the following nerve roots

a)

L2, L3

b)

L4, L5, S1

c)

L1, L2, L3

d)

L2, L3, L4

17.

The longest muscle in the body

a)

Sartorius

b)

Iliacus

c)

Biceps Femoris

d)

Quadriceps Femoris

18.

Open pack position of the hip:

a)

30 degrees flexion, 30 degrees abduction, slight external rotation

b)

30 degrees flexion, 20 degrees adduction, 10 degrees external rotation

c)

Extension, abduction, external rotation

d)

Extension, adduction, external rotation

19.

A foot deformity that presents with calluses over the tip of the distal phalanx and dorsal surface of the DIP joint of the 2nd toe

a)

Hammer toe

b)

Turf toe

c)

Mallet toe

d)

Hammer toe

20.

When performing the MMT assessment of a major hip muscle group on a patient who sustained obturator nerve palsy, if the therapist notes a grade of poor (2/5), what position is utilized for this grade?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Standing

d)

Side lying

21.

To perform mobilization, the knee must be in what position?

a)

Full flexion

b)

Full extension

c)

10 degrees flexion

d)

25 degrees flexion

22.

What special test has the highest sensitivity in detecting ACL injuries

a)

Anterior Drawer Test

b)

Mcmurray Test

c)

Lachman's Test

d)

None of the above

23.

The average total range of motion for knee axial rotation

a)

20 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

40 degrees

d)

60 degrees

24.

The hip hiking muscle:

a)

Quadratus Lumborum

b)

Iliopsoas

c)

Transverse Abdominis

d)

Erector Spinae

25.

Course of the anterior cruciate ligament

a)

Upward, backward, medial

b)

Upward, forward, lateral

c)

Upward, forward, medial

d)

Upward, backward, lateral

26.

Not a characteristic of a hamstring muscle:

a)

Supplied by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve

b)

Inserts into the tibia and fibula

c)

Extends the hip and flexes the knee

d)

Arises from the ischial tuberosity

27.

Function of the cruciate ligaments, except:

a)

Limit rotational movements of the knee

b)

Tense in all positions of the knee especially in extreme flexion and extension

c)

Prevent anteroposterior displacement of the joint

d)

None of the Above

28.

A muscle that complements the posterior cruciate ligament and helps prevent forward subluxation of the femur hen doing knee bends:

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Popliteus

c)

Plantaris

d)

Vastus Medialis

29.

Open pack position of the ankle

a)

10 degrees plantarflexion

b)

20 degrees plantar flexion

c)

full dorsiflexion

d)

20 dorsiflexion

30.

Most commonly injured ligament of the ankle:

a)

Anterior Talofibular Ligament

b)

Posterior Talofibular Ligament

c)

Anterior Tibiofibular Ligament

d)

Deltiod Ligament

31.

Components of open kinematic chain foot pronation, except:

a)

Calcaneal Eversion

b)

Talar Adduction

c)

Talar Dorsiflexion

d)

None of the above

32.

Keystone of medial longitudinal arch:

a)

Navicular

b)

Calcaneus

c)

Cuboid

d)

Talus

33.

The ilioinguinal nerve is derived from:

a)

T10

b)

T12

c)

L1

d)

L2-L4

34.

Floor of the femoral triangle, except:

a)

Adductor Brevis

b)

Pectineus

c)

Iliacus

d)

Psoas Minor

35.

Muscle that is NOT responsible for hip flexion:

a)

Iliopsoas

b)

Pectineus

c)

Vastus Lateralis

d)

Sartorius

36.

Special test for iliopsoas contracture:

a)

Tripod Test

b)

Thompson Test

c)

Thomas Test

d)

Flamingo Test

37.

Medial Longitudinal Arch, except:

a)

None, all are correct

b)

Navicular

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Cuboid

38.

Medial Meniscus, except:

a)

C- shaped

b)

More mobile

c)

Deeper

d)

Commonly Injured than lateral meniscus

39.

This tuberosity receives the weight of the body when one sits up:

a)

Superior Ramus

b)

Ischial Tuberosity

c)

Lesser Sciatic Notch

d)

Greater Sciatic Notch

40.

The security of the ankle joint is a result of an immobile act, non-rigid union of the following joint:

a)

Inferior Talofibular joint

b)

SuperiorTalofibular joint

c)

Calcaneocuboid joint

d)

Subtalar joint

41.

The hindfoot is composed of the following bones:

a)

Navicular, Cuboid and 3 cuneiforms

b)

Metatarsals and phalanges

c)

None of these

d)

Talus and Calcaneus

42.

In actions such as jumping with knees bent, the femur has a marked tendency to slide forwards off the plateau-like tibial surface. This ligament resists this tendency:

a)

Posterior Cruciate Ligament

b)

Lateral Collateral Ligament

c)

Medial Collateral Ligament

d)

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

43.

If the angle is greater than 180 degrees on the medial side of the knee when weight bearing on one leg, the condition is referred to as:

a)

Genu Valgum

b)

Genu Varus

c)

Coxa Valga

d)

Coxa Vara

44.

Common Origin of Gracilis, Adductor brevis and Adductor magnus:

a)

Inferior Ramus of Pubis

b)

Ramus of Ischium

c)

Ischial Tuberosity

d)

Body of Pubis

45.

Which of these joints comprise the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle?

a)

Anterior Talofibular Ligament

b)

Posterior Talofibular Ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular Ligament

d)

All of the above

e)

Both A and B only

46.

Immediately below the sacroiliac joint, the greater sciatic notch allows this nerve to pass:

a)

Sciatic Nerve

b)

Common Peroneal Nerve

c)

Gluteal Nerve

d)

Femoral Nerve

47.

Capsular Pattern of the knee joint:

a)

Full Extension

b)

Flexion < Extension

c)

Flexion = Extension

d)

Flexion > Extension

48.

To increase dorsiflexion, what gliding motion is applied to the talus?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

49.

Transverse tarsal arch, except:

a)

Cuboid

b)

Talus

c)

Head of metatarsals

d)

Cuneiform

50.

The patellar tendon of the quadriceps femoris attaches distally on this large roughened area which is anterior on the tibia and below the tibial condyles. This palpable structure is:

a)

Crest of tibia

b)

Tibial Tubercle

c)

Tibiofemoral joint line

d)

None of these

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