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610 E2

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which viruses can be segmented?

a)

dsDNA

b)

ssDNA

c)

RNA

2.

Which option matches the virus to its preferred latency site?

a)

HHV-1 - trigeminal nerve

b)

HHV-1 - sacral ganglion

c)

HSV-2 - trigeminal nerve

d)

HSV-1 - no preferred site

3.

(Select all correct options) What are the complications of HSV1 and 2?

a)

HSV-1 Encephalitis

b)

HSV-2 Mollaret's Encephalitis

c)

Herpetic neuralgia following dermatomes

d)

Herpetic Whitlow

4.

Preferred diagnostic for HSV1/2?

a)

Tzanck staining

b)

Electron microscopy

c)

Antibody testing

d)

PCR

5.

(T/F) Acyclovir is the DOC for herpes but is worthless for other viruses if they don't have the correct enzymes.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which HHVs are RNA viruses?

a)

HHV 6 and 7 only

b)

HHV 3

c)

All of them

d)

None of them

7.

Which of the herpesviridae have at least one major vaccine?

a)

HHV-3 (Varicella Zoster)

b)

HHV-1 (oral cold sores)

c)

HHV-8 (Kaposi's)

d)

HHV-6 (Roseola/Sixth Disease)

8.

Select all correctly matched HHVs

a)

HHV-8 - Kaposi's

b)

HHV-4 - Epstein-Barr

c)

HHV-4 - Mononucleosis

d)

HHV-5 - Cytomegalovirus

9.

What HHV is associated with latency in the spinal cord and dorsal root ganglion?

a)

Kaposi's Sarcoma

b)

Norovirus

c)

Varicella Zoster (Shingles)

d)

Mono

10.

Select some of the complications of Varicella Zoster

a)

Postherpetic Neuralgia

b)

Ramsey Hunt Syndrome (auditory nerve infection)

c)

Zoster ophthalmicus

d)

Fever blisters

11.

Choose the best interventions for severe shingles

a)

PCR a vesicle, give opiates/acyclovir

b)

Antibody testing, give fluids

c)

Antibody testing, give hydrocortisone cream

d)

PCR a vesicle, give Abreva

12.

Select the complication for CMV

a)

Hypertensive crisis

b)

Splenomegaly and rupture

c)

Mollaret's encephalitis

d)

Fatal pneumonia

13.

Select the preferred cells for infection by the listed virus.

a)

HHV-4 - pharyngeal and B cells

b)

HHV-5 - epithelium, T cells, macrophages

c)

HHV-7 - astrocytes

d)

HHV-8 - onychocytes

14.

Which of the following was only recently discovered in HIV and Mediterranean patients?

a)

Norovirus

b)

Roseola

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Kaposi's Sarcoma

15.

Which of the following is a great diagnostic for someone with a suspected respiratory virus?

a)

Simplex PCR

b)

Multiplex PCR

c)

Cytogam

d)

Viral culture

16.

(True/False) The immunocompromised tend to have more severe complications with HHVs, including dissemination, pancytopenia, and hepatitis.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What is the preferred initial infection site of HHV-3 (VZV)?

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

T cells

c)

Osteoclasts

d)

Retinal rods and cones

18.

Select all of the risk factors for shingles reactivation

a)

>50 yrs old

b)

chronic liver disease

c)

chronic kidney disease

d)

stress

19.

What is the only DNA Respiratory virus covered?

a)

Parainfluenza

b)

Metapneumovirus

c)

Adenovirus

d)

SARS CoV 2

20.

Which respiratory virus is associated with conjunctivitis as a less common manifestation?

a)

Adenovirus

b)

Rhinovirus

c)

Metapneumovirus

d)

Croup

21.

What is the only covered hepatic virus without a vaccine

a)

Hep A

b)

Hep B

c)

Hep C

d)

Hep D

22.

What arbovirus is known for microcephaly and is spread by Aedes?

a)

Chikunguya

b)

Rabies

c)

SLEV

d)

Zika

23.

Which arbovirus is a Flavivirus spread by Aedes that can't be treated with NSAIDs?

a)

Chikungunya

b)

Dengue

c)

Zika

d)

Rabies

24.

Which Arenviridae arbovirus spread by Mastomys rodents is notable for being treatable with ribavirin?

a)

Ebola

b)

Dengue

c)

SLEV

d)

Lassa

25.

Which arbovirus is treatable by HRIG?

a)

Rabies

b)

Zika

c)

SLEV

d)

JEV

26.

What two step regimen is used to confirm HIV?

a)

CD4 -> PCR

b)

ELISA -> PCR

c)

Culture x2

d)

ELISA -> Western Blot

27.

Which of the following are true for Hep B?

a)

Hepadnavirus

b)

Can use a vaccine, IVIG, and antivirals

c)

Often requires a liver transplant

d)

Dane Particle >6 mo, + total anti-HBc means chronic

28.

Which of the following are useful for innate Hep A immunity?

a)

Antibodies and complements

b)

Granulocytes and Macrophages

c)

IFNS, NKs, cytotoxic T

d)

Plasma cells and IgM

29.

Which of the hepatitis viruses uses hepatocytes and Kupffer cells to replicate by budding?

a)

Hep A

b)

Hep B

c)

Hep C

d)

Hep D

30.

What is the most common bloodborne infection in the US?

a)

Hep A

b)

Hep B

c)

Hep C

d)

Hep D

31.

Which of the following are curable with antivirals?

a)

Hep A

b)

Hep B

c)

Hep C

d)

Hep D

32.

Which of the following is an incorrect major risk factor for fungal infection?

a)

Induction chemotherapy for hematologic cancer

b)

Hemodialysis

c)

Hematopoietic stem cell transplant

d)

Solid organ transplant

33.

Which of the following isn't a dimorphic fungus?

a)

Histoplasmosis

b)

Mucormycosis

c)

Coccidiomycosis

d)

Sporotrichosis

34.

What is the main sterol of fungi?

a)

Ergosterol

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triglyceride

d)

Cholecalciferol

35.

What is the easiest primary method of diagnosing superficial fungal infections?

a)

Blood culture x2

b)

direct visualization with KOH

c)

Serum antigen

d)

Cutaneous dye test

36.

Which two mycoses are known for transmission through plant material breaking the skin?

a)

Sporotrichosis

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Histoplasmosis

d)

Chromoblastomycosis

37.

What transmission pathway is shared by Histoplasmosis, Blastomycosis, and Coccidiomycosis?

a)

Fecal-oral

b)

Animal bites

c)

Scrapes

d)

Inhalation

38.

Which of the following is not easily diagnosable by culture, CR, or the occasional urine antigen?

a)

Chromoblastocytosis

b)

Blastomycosis

c)

Coccidiomycosis

d)

Histoplasmosis

39.

A transplant patient develops retinitis and esophagitis. Your team suspects a herpes virus. Which one could it be?

a)

HHV-5

b)

Mononucleosis

c)

HHV-7

d)

HSV-2

40.

Is the chickenpox vaccine protective against shingles?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe?

d)

Yes but incorrectly

41.

What's the initial step for influenza infection?

a)

M2 ion channels allow protons into cell

b)

RNA polymerase (endonuclease) starts replication

c)

Hemagglutinin - Sialic Acid binding

d)

Neuraminidase attachment to endothelial M protein

42.

Select the incorrectly matched pair:

a)

Coxsackievirus - Hand Foot & Mouth Disease

b)

HSV-2 - genital ulcers

c)

Parainfluenza - croup

d)

Adenovirus - flu

43.

Which of the following is not involved in ebola replication?

a)

T cells

b)

endothelial cells

c)

monocytes

d)

macrophages

44.

Check all of the arboviruses with vaccines:

a)

Japanese Encephalitis Virus

b)

Rabies

c)

Lassa

d)

Dengue

45.

Your lab reports a systemic infection of yeast cells with a positive galactomannan antigen. What fungal infection is it?

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease

c)

Aspergillosis

d)

Cryptococcosis

46.

Your lab reports a sputum microscopy with septate hyphae and conidia. Sputum culture shows powdery mold. What infection do you think it is?

a)

Aspergillosis

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Cryptococcosis

d)

Zygomycosis

47.

Which mycotic infection is only diagnosable by Gram stain and PCR?

a)

Aspergillosis

b)

Mucormycosis

c)

Oral thrush

d)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

48.

Check all of the features of the atypical fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci

a)

Can be used to diagnose AIDs

b)

Unresponsive to antifungals and fungal media

c)

Treated with antibiotics

d)

Lacks ergosterol

49.

A patient with remarkably rapid bone destruction receives blood cultures. Lab reports cotton candy like colonies. What do you diagnose them with?

a)

Aspergillosis

b)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

c)

Zygomycosis

d)

Oral thrush (please don't select this)

50.

Candida albicans is described as the most isolated pathogen in the Candida family. What does this mean?

a)

It is dissimilar from others in the family

b)

It is the most likely to be the primary pathogen on a culture

c)

It is diagnosable with latex agglutination

d)

It is an AIDs-defining illness

51.

Lab reports a positive India Ink stain. What pathogen does this refer to?

a)

Herpes 2

b)

Cryptococcus

c)

Blastomycosis

d)

Mucormycosis

52.

Why are singleplex and multiplex PCR tests not used often for influenza?

a)

Too expensive

b)

Unsensitive

c)

Not specific

d)

Not available for influenza

53.

What best describes antigenic shifts for influenza?

a)

Primarily in Type B Influenza

b)

Improper use of antibiotics

c)

Smaller changes

d)

Requires zoonotic intermediate

54.

Which of the following is not a risk factor for influenza mortality?

a)

Elderly

b)

Chronic liver or kidney disease

c)

Lack of PCR testing

d)

Infancy

55.

Select the two major post-influenza pneumonia pathogens:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

56.

What pathogen uses ACE2 to enter cells?

a)

Coronavirus

b)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

c)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

d)

Mucormycosis

57.

When treating oral thrush, what dosage form is preferred?

a)

Oral fluconazole tablets

b)

IV Anidulafungin

c)

Nystatin swish & swallow suspension

d)

Continuous daily Amphotericin B + Flucytosine

58.

Which of the following is acceptable for a severe unidentified fungal infection?

a)

Swish & spit Nystatin suspension

b)

IV Voriconazole

c)

Topical miconazole powder

d)

Piperacillin-Tazobactam

59.

Which of the two HSV are most likely to be transmitted perinatally?

a)

HSV-1

b)

HSV-2

60.

What herpesvirus reactivates along dermatomes?

a)

Coxsackievirus

b)

HHV-3/Varicella Zoster

c)

Rabies

d)

Arenaviridae

61.

A middle aged patient with no vaccination history comes into your pharmacy wishing to be vaccinated. Disregard additional conditions and states. Which of the following are reasonable vaccines to recommend?

a)

Influenza

b)

Varicella Zoster

c)

Rotavirus

d)

Adenovirus

62.

What is the primary infective stage of a Protozoa?

a)

Cyst

b)

Trophozoite

c)

Ameoba

d)

Sporozoa

63.

What best describes Entamoeba hystolytica?

a)

A small arthropod infesting scalps diagnosed by direct examination

b)

An intestinal Protozoan causing bloody diarrhea diagnosable by cultures, antigens, and PCR

c)

A fecal-oral Protozoan survivable for months in cold water and diagnosed by trophozoites in unformed stool

d)

A coccidia Protozoa frequent to waterparks and diagnosed by acid fast staining

64.

What best describes Giardia lamblia?

a)

A small arthropod infesting scalps diagnosed by direct examination

b)

An intestinal Protozoan causing bloody diarrhea diagnosable by cultures, antigens, and PCR

c)

A fecal-oral Protozoan survivable for months in cold water and diagnosed by trophozoites in unformed stool

d)

A coccidia Protozoa frequent to waterparks and diagnosed by acid fast staining

65.

(Select multiple) What best describes Cryptosporidium parvum?

a)

A small arthropod infesting scalps diagnosed by direct examination

b)

An intestinal Protozoan causing bloody diarrhea diagnosable by cultures, antigens, and PCR

c)

An AIDs-defining illness and diagnosable by intestinal biopsy

d)

A coccidia Protozoa frequent to waterparks and diagnosed by acid fast staining

66.

Which of the following isn't applicable to Trichomonas vaginalis?

a)

A flagellate STI

b)

Diagnosable by microscopy and pap smear

c)

Causes frothy, green vaginal discharge and penile irritation

d)

Acquired by inhalation

67.

Which of the following Protozoans are mostly diagnosed post-mortem?

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Naegleria fowleri

c)

Isospora belli

d)

Toxocariasis

68.

A patient is experiencing rapid encephalitis and severe pulmonary symptoms following swimming in a quarry with an open wound. What do you expect?

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Ascaris lumbricoides

c)

Naegleria fowleri

d)

Schistosoma

69.

You overhear a provider mention a positive stained CSF and IgG for ocular lesions. What would you presume the infection to be?

a)

Toxoplasmosis

b)

Taeniasis

c)

Malaria

d)

Hookworm

70.

Which of the following is incorrect?

a)

Plasmodium is the pathogen for malaria

b)

Most human adults are infected with a herpesvirus

c)

Toxoplasmosis and Cryptosporidiosis are AIDs-defining illnesses

d)

Anti-Toxoplasmosis IgG is protective but not indicative of infection

71.

Which of the following is a potential pathogen of neurocysticercosis?

a)

Taenia spp.

b)

Toxocara canis

c)

Dane particles

d)

Dengue

72.

Which of the following is a generally true statement regarding parasitology?

a)

Increased helminths usually means increased symptoms

b)

GI Protozoans are typically very difficult to treat

c)

Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus are considered pinworms

d)

The butt tape stick method is a useful treatment for Enterobius vermicularis

73.

Which of the following parasites is incorrectly matched?

a)

T. catii - Taeniasis

b)

Enterobius vermicularis - pinworm

c)

FLAs - brain eating amoebas

d)

T. vaginalis - a concern for pregnant people changing cat litter

74.

An NP on ID consult asks for your help regarding an MRI showing multiple small abnormalities on a patient presenting with abnormalities. Which of the following would be a wrong response?

a)

Likely to be neurocysticercosis caused by a Taenia spp.

b)

Recommend antiparasitics ASAP to prevent mortality

c)

Get a stool culture

d)

Recommend examination for extraneural cysts

75.

What is a reasonable immune response to Ascariasis?

a)

Elevated eosinophils

b)

Lowered IFNs and TH17

c)

Decreased IgE production

d)

Alpha and Beta IFN utilization

76.

Which of the following would suggest an intracellular fungal infection as opposed to an extracellular?

a)

IFN gamma production

b)

Lack of neutrophil and monocyte activity compared to macrophages

c)

CD4 Th2 decreased production

d)

Hypoactivity of CD8 cells

77.

Select all of the following that are potentially GI viruses:

a)

Norovirus

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Parainfluenza

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