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A2 Physics Revision Quiz 2021

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to capacitance if you decrease the area of the metal plates?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

remains the same

d)

depends on charge present

2.

What is the voltage across the plates of the capacitor if the capacitance is 10 uF and the Charge stored is 30 uC?

a)

0.333 V

b)

3 V

c)

300 V

d)

30 V

3.

If the capacitor is CONNECTED to the battery, what remains constant if the area of the metal plates is increased?

a)

Voltage across the metal plates

b)

Capacitance

c)

Charge stored in the capacitor

d)

Energy stored in the capacitor

4.

When 3 capacitors are added in series each with a value 25μF the combined capacitance will be

a)

8.3μF

b)

75μF

c)

25μF

d)

more data is needed

5.

When 3 capacitors are added in parallel, each with value 15μF

a)

45μF

b)

5μF

c)

15μF

d)

150μF

6.

The total capacitance for this circuit

a)

3.4μF

b)

0.29μF

c)

12.8μF

d)

12.2μF

7.

The 3 capacitors shown each have a value of 20μF. The total capacitance of this combo is

a)

60μF

b)

6.7μF

c)

16.7μF

d)

20μF

8.

Definition of Farad

a)

1 Farad is the capacitance of a conductor, which has potential difference of 1 volt when it carries a charge of 1 coulomb

b)

1 Farad is the capacitance of a capacitor, which has potential difference of 1 volt when it carries a charge of 1 coulomb

c)

1 Farad is the capacitance of a conductor, which has potential difference of 1 volt when it allows a current of 1 ampere to flow

d)

none of these statements is correct

9.

If an object is in oscillatory motion, what must be true if it's in simple harmonic motion?

a)

Its motion is along the path of a circle

b)

acceleration is proportional to the displacement and always directed to the fixed point

c)

Its potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy

d)

acceleration is proportional to the displacement

10.

Which of the following is not an example of SHM?

a)

A simple pendulum

b)

A vibrating spring

c)

A marble on a concave surface

d)

Bouncing on a trampoline

11.

In any system in SHM, the restoring force acting on the mass in the system is directly proportional to

a)

the displacement

b)

the length of the pendulum

c)

the mass

d)

the frequency

12.

What does the gradient equal for an Acceleration - Displacement graph, for an object doing SHM?

a)

–ωt2

b)

periodx2π

c)

-ω2

d)

velocity

13.

An object undergoes SHM and its motion is modeled by this equation: x = 2.2sin(0.04t)

a)

the period is 2.2

b)

the amplitude is 0.04

c)

the frequency is 0.0064

d)

the angular frequency is 2.2x0.04

14.

What force acts on a satellite?

a)

centrifugal force

b)

gravitational force

c)

tangential force

d)

no net force

15.

An object is moved from A to B in the gravitational field of Earth. The distance between the centre of Earth and B is twice that of A. If the gravitational potential energy of the object at A is –2.0 MJ, what is the gravitational potential energy of the object at B?

a)

zero

b)

-0.5MJ

c)

-1.0MJ

d)

-4.0MJ

16.

A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius R around Earth. The time required to complete one revolution is T. What would be the kinetic energy of the satellite?

a)

GMm/R

b)

GMm/2R

c)

mR/T

d)

2m(R/T)2

17.

The equation for gravitational potential

a)

-GM/r

b)

GM/r2

c)

ΔGMm/r

d)

-ΔGMm/r

18.

The velocity for a satellite in orbit

a)

√(GM/r)

b)

GM/r2

c)

GM/r

d)

√(GM/r2)

19.

The relationship between gravitational potential energy and gravitational potential

a)

ΔEp=mΦ

b)

Ep=mΦ2

c)

ΔEp=Gm/Φ

d)

ΔEp=-GmΦ

20.

Given that the Earth has a mass = 6.0 x 1024 kg and G = 6.67 x 10-11 how far away would you have to be in order for the gravitational field strength to be 5.0 Nkg-1?

a)

6400 km

b)

8900 km

c)

80 billion metres

d)

7500 km

21.

How far from the right charge will the electrostatic force be zero?

Left charge is 4Q. Right charge is Q. d1= 20cm

a)

6.7 cm

b)

10.0 cm

c)

13.3 cm

d)

16.7 cm

22.
What will happen to the Electrostatic Force between 2 objects if the distance between them is is quadrupled?
a)
the force will decrease to 1/16 the original strength
b)
the force will increase by 1/16
c)
the force will increase by 4
d)
the force will decrease to 1/4 the original strength
23.

The relationship between work and potential

a)

W=VQ

b)

W=ΔE

c)

W=kQ1Q2/r2

d)

V=q/4πεor2

24.

If two identical charges are placed 4 m apart, what would the electric field be at the point directly between them?

a)

8 N/C

b)

more information is needed

c)

0 N/C

d)

16 N/C

25.
Which represents the acceleration of the ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
26.
What is the force that causes centripetal acceleration when a car goes around a curve?
a)
Friction
b)
Gravity 
c)
Normal
d)
Tension
27.
Assuming Andromeda rotates at a uniform rate, which stars are moving the fastest?
a)
Stars closest to center
b)
Stars furthest from the center
c)
Stars with the hottest temperature
d)
Stars with the coldest temperature
28.
When a ball attached to string is swung in a vertical circle
a)
the tension is always equal to the centripetal force
b)
the tension is greatest at the top
c)
the tension is greatest at the bottom
d)
the tension is greatest halfway up
29.
If the radius of the string is .3 meters long and the stopper makes 5 revolutions per second, what is the speed of the stopper? 
a)
9.4 m/s
b)
6.8 m/s
c)
11.7 m/s
d)
3.5 m/s
30.

A satellite is said to be in geosynchronous orbit if it rotates around the earth once every day. For the earth, all satellites in geosynchronous orbit must rotate at a distance of 4.23×107 meters from the earth's center. What is the magnitude of the acceleration felt by a geosynchronous satellite?

a)

9.8 ms-2

b)

8.9 ms-2

c)

0.224 ms-2

d)

0.563 ms-2

31.

ω is defined as

a)

the angular impulse

b)

the angular momentum

c)

the angular change in position

d)

the change in angular displacement per unit time

32.

The definition of the radian

a)

the angle subtended at the centre of a circle by an arc length equal in length to the radius

b)

the angle suspended at the centre of a circle by an arc length equal in length to the pendulum

c)

the angle subtended at the centre of a square by an arc length equal in length to the radius

d)

the angle subtended by an arc length equal in length to the diameter of a circle

33.

An electron is moving north in a region where the magnetic field is south. The size of the magnetic force exerted on the electron is:

a)

zero

b)

Bev

c)

Bqv

d)

ma

34.
A magnetic field exerts a force on a charged particle:
a)
always 
b)
never 
c)
if the particle is moving across the field lines
d)
if the particle is moving along the field lines 
35.
An electron travels due north through a vacuum in a region of uniform magnetic field  that is also directed due north. It will: 
a)
be unaffected by the field 
b)
speed up
c)
slow down
d)
follow a right-handed corkscrew path 
36.

The SI unit of magnetic field is

a)

Weber

b)

Gauss

c)

Tesla

d)

Farad

37.

A wire carries a current out of the page. When viewed from above, what direction is the magnetic field?

a)

out of the page

b)

left

c)

clockwise

d)

anti-clockwise

38.
What does the following represent?
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
a)
A crowd with binoculars
b)
A bunch of coaxial cables 
c)
Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you
d)
Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you
39.
What does the following represent?
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
a)
A crowd with binoculars
b)
A bunch of coaxial cables 
c)
Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you
d)
Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you
40.

The correct formula for magnetic field strength near a current carrying conductor that is L metres long

a)

F/IL

b)

FIL

c)

IL

d)

BIL

41.

μoI/2πr is the formula for magnetic flux density near a current carrying conductor. μo stands for

a)

permeability of free space

b)

permittivity of free space

c)

permission of free space

d)

production of magnetism in free space

42.

The mass which is lost during a nuclear reaction is called the

a)

mass

b)

effective mass

c)

mass defect

d)

mass of proton

43.

Nuclear Fission

a)

is a process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two lighter nuclei. Accompanied with the release of enormous amount of energy from the mass defect

b)

is a self-sustaining reaction in which the products of the reaction can initiate another similar reaction. Accompanied with the release of enormous amount of energy from the mass defect

c)

is a process of combination of two lighter nuclei to form a heavier nuclei. Accompanied with the release of enormous amount of energy from the mass defect

44.

This is a

a)

chain reaction

b)

nuclear fusion reaction

c)

nuclear fission reaction

d)

atomic mass defect reaction

45.

Radium-226 undergoes alpha decay to become radon-222. The equation is :

Ra→ Rn + He2+ + energy


Calculate the energy released if


Ra-226 = 226.025406 u

Rn-222 = 222.017574 u

He-4 = 4.002603 u

a)

7.81 x 10 - 11 J

b)

7.81 x 10 - 12 J

c)

7.81 x 10 - 13 J

d)

7.81 x 10 - 14 J

46.

Definition of binding energy

a)

the work needed to separate the constituent nucleons of a nucleus to infinity

b)

the work produced to separate the constituent nucleons of a nucleus to infinity

c)

the work needed to separate the constituent nucleons of a nucleus to the outer shell

d)

the energy created when separating the constituent nucleons of a nucleus to infintiy

47.

Which statement is incorrect?

a)

Light nuclei such as Hydrogen can shed excess mass and energy by joining together to form larger more stable nuclei that have a greater binding energy per nucleon

b)

Heavy nuclei such as Uranium tend to split up into smaller more stable nuclei with less binding energy per nucleon

c)

Light nuclei such as Hydrogen can shed excess mass and energy by joining together to form larger more stable nuclei that require less binding energy per nucleon

d)

Heavy nuclei such as Uranium tend to split up into smaller more stable nuclei with larger binding energy per nucleon

48.

Given the following data, calculate the energy released when Helium nucleus is formed by individual protons and neutrons:

proton = 1.007 u

neutron = 1.008 u

helium = 4.005 u

a)

3.74x10-12J

b)

1.25x10-20J

c)

23.3MeV

d)

78meV

49.

How many Uranium-238 nuclei are there in 200 grams?

a)

5.1x1023

b)

2.5x1025

c)

5.0x1023

d)

5.06x1023

50.

What percentage of rubidium-87 atoms will be left after four half lives?

a)

25.0%

b)

12.5%

c)

6.25%

d)

3.125%

51.

Due to radioactive decay, an igneous rock sample now contains one-fourth of the amount of potassium-40 that it originally contained. The age, in years, of this rock sample is approximately... (half-life of K-40 : 1.3 billion years)

a)

0.7 x 109 years

b)

1.3 x 109 years

c)

2.6 x 109 years

d)

5.2 x 109 years

52.

How much of an 800-gram sample of potassium-40 will remain after 3.9 × 109 years of radioactive decay? (K-40 : λ=1.69x10-17s-1)

a)

50 grams

b)

100 grams

c)

200 grams

d)

400 grams

53.

Mn-57 decays into Fe-57 with a half-life of 1.9 hours. If No=1.5x1016 determine the time at which the ratio of :

(Number of Fe/ Number of Mn ) = 9

a)

6.31 hours

b)

8.63 hours

c)

9.88 hours

d)

5.82 hours

54.

On a transformer with 100 volts applied to the primary, 200 turns in the primary, and a secondary with 100 turns, the secondary voltage is ____________________ volts.

a)

75

b)

100

c)

125

d)

50

55.

Unless otherwise noted, the calculations in AC circuits use _____.

a)

peak value

b)

median values

c)

phase values

d)

rms values

56.

In sine wave terminology, the root-mean-square value is _____.

a)

1.41 × peak value

b)

0.707 × peak value

c)

3.14 × peak value

d)

6.370 × peak value

57.

Maximum AC voltage is generated by rotating coils of wire when the conductor is moving _____.

a)

across the field at 90°

b)

with the field at 0° and 180°

c)

across the field at a 45° angle

d)

against the field at 180°

58.

The product of the rms voltage and the rms current is _____.

a)

average power

b)

true power

c)

peak power

d)

the power factor

59.

Given I = 200sin120πt

a)

Io = 200A and f = 60Hz

b)

Io = 282A and f = 120Hz

c)

Io = 200A and f = 120Hz

d)

Io = 141A and f = 85Hz

60.

Given I = 200sin120πt and V = 150sin120πt

a)

P0= 3000 W

b)

P = 30 000sin2120πt

c)

PAV = 15000 W

d)

none of these is correct

61.

For an ideal gas several assumptions are made about the particles including

a)

they collide elastically with each other and the container wall

b)

they experience significant intermolecular forces

c)

the volume they occupy as individual particles is insignificant compared to the volume of the container

d)

there are a very large number of particles inside the container

62.

An ideal gas has a density of 2.0 kgm-3 at a pressure of 2.2 x 105 Pa and a temperature of 295 K. Calculate the mean square speed of the gas atoms.

a)

330 kms-1

b)

110 000 ms-1

c)

373 ms-1

d)

19 ms-1

63.

This is the

a)

root mean square speed

b)

mean square speed

c)

mean square root speed

d)

squared root mean speed

64.

For an ideal gas trapped inside a container of fixed volume, which of these statements is true?

a)

all particles are moving rapidly and randomly

b)

particles exchange momentum with the wall over very short time frames

c)

all particles are moving idly and haphazardly

d)

the particle volume accounts for most of the space in the container

65.

Select all true statements

a)

nR = Nk

b)

NA = 6.022 x 1023

c)

k = R/NA

d)

3/2RT = NAEk

66.

Which of the following is the ideal gas equation?

a)

pV = nRT

b)

pT = nRV

c)

pR = nRV

d)

pn = VRT

67.

How many atoms are there in a mole of helium gas?

a)

6.02 × 1013

b)

6.02 × 1023

c)

1.20 × 1014

d)

1.20 × 1024

68.

A bar of gold has a mass of 1.00 kg. Calculate the number of moles of gold in the bar. (Relative atomic mass of gold = 197.)

a)

1.97 × 10−3 mol

b)

0.197 mol

c)

5.08 mol

d)

5.08 × 10−3 mol

69.

In the equation
 pV=13Nm<c2>pV=\frac{1}{3}Nm<c^2> 

what is the origin of the factor  13\frac{1}{3}  ?

a)

molecules move in 1-dimensional space

b)

molecules move in 2-dimensional space

c)

molecules move in 3-dimensional space

d)

molecules move in 4-dimensional space

70.
When applying the first law of thermodynamics to a system, when is heat a positive quantity?
a)
when the system does work
b)
when the system has work done on it
c)
when the system absorbs heat
d)
when the system loses heat
e)
when no work is done either on the system or by the system
71.

25 °C in kelvins

a)

298.45 K

b)

248.15 K

c)

298.15 K

72.

What does R stand for

a)

Ideal gas constant

b)

Real gas constant

c)

Temperature constant

d)

Ideal gas law

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