wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AUBF MODULE 3 AND 4 QUIz

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following?

a)

Color

b)

Clarity

c)

Foam

d)

Odor

2.

The normal yellow color of urine is produced by

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Urobilinogen

d)

Urochrome

3.

The presence of bilirubin in a urine specimen produces a:

a)

Yellow foam when shaken

b)

White foam when shaken

c)

Cloudy specimen

d)

Yellow-red specimen

4.

A urine specimen containing melanin will appear

a)

Pale pink

b)

Dark yellow

c)

Blue-green

d)

Black

5.

Specimens that contain hemoglobin can be visually distinguished from those that contain RBCs because

a)

Hemoglobin produces a clear, yellow specimen

b)

Hemoglobin produces a cloudy pink specimen

c)

RBCs produce a cloudy red specimen

d)

RBCs produce a clear red specimen

6.

A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been

a)

Treated for a urinary tract infection

b)

Taking vitamin B pills

c)

Eating fresh carrots

d)

Taking antidepressants

7.

The presence of a pink precipitate in a refrigerated specimen is caused by:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Urobilin

c)

Uroerythrin

d)

Beets

8.

Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a

white precipitate after refrigeration will show:

a)

Amorphous urates

b)

Porphyrin

c)

Amorphous phosphate

d)

Yeast

9.

The color of urine containing porphyrins will be:

a)

Yellow-brown

b)

Green

c)

Orange

d)

Port wine

10.

Which of the following specific gravities would be most

likely to correlate with a pale yellow urine?

a)

1.005

b)

1.010

c)

1.020

d)

1.030

11.

A urine specific gravity measured by refractometer is

1.029, and the temperature of the urine is 14°C. The specific gravity should be reported as

a)

1.023

b)

1.027

c)

1.029

d)

1.032

12.

The principle of refractive index is to compare:

a)

Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids

b)

Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

c)

Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions

d)

Light scattering by particles in solution

13.

A correlation exists between a specific gravity by refractometer of 1.050 and a

a)

2+ glucose

b)

2+ protein

c)

First morning specimen

d)

Radiographic dye infusion

14.

A cloudy urine specimen turns black upon standing and

has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about

this specimen would be:

a)

Color

b)

Turbidity

c)

Specific gravity

d)

All of the above

15.

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.035 would be considered

a)

Isosthenuric

b)

Hyposthenuric

c)

Hypersthenuric

d)

Not urine

16.

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be considered

a)

Isosthenuric

b)

Hyposthenuric

c)

Hypersthenuric

d)

Not urine

17.

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could

indicate:

a)

Ketones

b)

Normalcy

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

An old specimen

18.

The microscopic of a clear red urine is reported as many

WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest?

a)

Urinary tract infection

b)

Dilute random specimen

c)

Hematuria

d)

Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

19.

Which of the following would contribute the most to a

urine osmolality?

a)

One osmole of glucose

b)

One osmole of urea

c)

One osmole of sodium chloride

d)

All contribute equally

20.

Which of the following colligative properties is not stated

correctly?

a)

The boiling pointing is raised by solute

b)

The freezing point is raised by solute

c)

The vapor pressure is lowered by solute

d)

The osmotic pressure is raised by solute

21.

An osmole contains:

a)

One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in one liter of solvent

b)

One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in one kilogram of solvent

c)

Two gram molecular weights of solute dissolved in one liter of solvent

d)

Two gram molecular weights of solute dissolved in one kilogram of solvent

22.

The unit of osmolality measured in the clinical laboratory

is the:

a)

Osmole

b)

Milliosmole

c)

Molecular weight

d)

Ionic charge

23.

In the reagent strip specific gravity reaction the polyelectrolyte:

a)

Combines with hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration

b)

Releases hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration

c)

Releases hydrogen ions in response to pH

d)

Combines with sodium ions in response to pH

24.

Which of the following will react in the reagent strip specific gravity test?

a)

Glucose

b)

Radiographic dye

c)

Protein

d)

Chloride

25.

The type of nephron responsible for renal concentration

is the

a)

Cortical

b)

Juxtaglomerular

26.

The function of the peritubular capillaries is:

a)

Reabsorption

b)

Filtration

c)

Secretion

d)

Both reabsorption and filtration

27.

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order:

a)

Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole

b)

Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole

c)

Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole

d)

Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole

28.

Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus by:

a)

Hydrostatic pressure

b)

Oncotic pressure

c)

Renin

d)

The glomerular filtration barrier

29.

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is responsible for all of the following except:

a)

Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole

b)

Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole

c)

Reabsorbing sodium

d)

Releasing aldosterone

30.

The primary chemical affected by the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system is:

a)

Chloride

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Hydrogen

31.

Secretion of renin is stimulated by

a)

Juxtaglomerular cells

b)

Angiotensin I and II

c)

Macula densa cells

d)

Circulating angiotensin-converting enzyme

32.

The hormone aldosterone is responsible for

a)

Hydrogen ion secretion

b)

Potassium secretion

c)

Chloride retention

d)

Sodium retention

33.

The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:

a)

1.005

b)

1.010

c)

1.015

d)

1.020

34.

For active transport to occur, a chemical:

a)

Must combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy

b)

Must be filtered through the proximal convoluted

tubule

c)

Must be in higher concentration in the filtrate than in the blood

d)

Must be in higher concentration in the blood than in the filtrate

35.

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Descending loop of Henle

c)

Ascending loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

36.

Glucose will appear in the urine when the:

a)

. Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dL

b)

Tm for glucose is reached

c)

Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded

d)

All of the above

37.

Concentration of the tubular filtrate by the countercurrent mechanism depends on all of the following except

a)

High salt concentration in the medulla

b)

Water-impermeable walls of the ascending loop of Henle

c)

Reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the ascending loop of Henle

d)

Reabsorption of water in the descending loop of Henle

38.

ADH regulates the final urine concentration by controlling:

a)

Active reabsorption of sodium

b)

Tubular permeability

c)

Passive reabsorption of urea

d)

Passive reabsorption of chloride

39.

Decreased production of ADH:

a)

Produces a low urine volume

b)

Produces a high urine volume

c)

Increases ammonia excretion

d)

Affects active transport of sodium

40.

Bicarbonate ions filtered by the glomerulus are returned

to the blood

a)

In the proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Combined with hydrogen ions

c)

By tubular secretion

d)

All of the above

41.

If ammonia is not produced by the distal convoluted

tubule, the urine pH will be:

a)

Acidic

b)

Basic

42.

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is

a)

Secretion of creatinine

b)

Improperly timed urine specimens

c)

Refrigeration of the urine

d)

Time of collecting blood sample

43.

Clearance tests used to determine the glomerular filtration rate must measure substances that are

a)

Not filtered by the glomerulus

b)

Completely reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Secreted in the distal convoluted tubule

d)

Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules

44.

Performing a clearance test using radionucleotides

a)

Eliminates the need to collect urine only

b)

Does not require an infusion

c)

Provides visualization of the filtration only

d)

Eliminates the need to collect urine and provides visualization of the filtration

45.

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:

a)

Serum creatinine

b)

Weight

c)

Age

d)

Gender

46.

An advantage to using cystatin C to monitor GFR is that:

a)

It does not require urine collection

b)

It is not secreted by the tubules

c)

It can be measured by immunoassay

d)

All of the above

47.

Solute dissolved in solvent will:

a)

Raise the vapor pressure

b)

Lower the boiling point

c)

Decrease the osmotic pressure

d)

Lower the freezing point

48.

Substances that may interfere with freezing point measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all of the following except:

a)

Ethyl alcohol

b)

Lactic acid

c)

Sodium

d)

Lipids

49.

Clinical osmometers use NaCl as a reference solution because

a)

1 g molecular weight of NaCl will lower the freezing point 1.86oC

b)

NaCl is readily frozen

c)

NaCl is partially ionized similar to the composition of urine

d)

1 g equivalent weight of NaCl will raise the freezing point 1.86oC

50.

The normal serum osmolarity is:

a)

50 to 100 mOsm

b)

275 to 300 mOsm

c)

400 to 500 mOsm

d)

3 times the urine osmolarity

51.

After controlled fluid intake, the urine-to-serum osmolarity ratio should be at least:

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

52.

To provide an accurate measure of renal blood flow, a test substance should be completely

a)

Filtered by the glomerulus

b)

Reabsorbed by the tubules

c)

Secreted when it reaches the distal convoluted tubule

d)

Cleared on each contact with functional renal tissue

53.

Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:

a)

Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased filtration of hydrogen ions

b)

Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased secretion of hydrogen ions

c)

Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia

d)

Inability to produce an acidic urine due to increased production of ammonia

54.

Tests performed to detect renal tubular acidosis after administering an ammonium chloride load include all of the following except

a)

Urine ammonia

b)

Arterial pH

c)

Urine pH

d)

Titratable acidity

55.

How many nephrons are found in an average kidney?

a)

13,000-15,000

b)

130,000-150,000

c)

1.3 million-1.5 million

d)

13 million-15 million

56.

Which component of the nephron is located exclusively in the renal medulla?

a)

Collecting tubule

b)

Distal tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Proximal tubule

57.

Which of the following is not a vascular characteristic of the kidney

a)

The afferent arteriole has a narrower lumen than the efferent arteriole

b)

The arteries are primarily end arteries, supplying specific areas of tissue, and they do not interconnect

c)

The arterioles subdivide into a capillary network, rejoin as an arteriole, and subdivide into a second capillary bed

d)

The vasa recta vessels deep in the renal medulla form the beginning of the venous renal circulation

58.

Formation of the ultrafiltrate in the glomerulus is driven by the

a)

hydrostatic blood pressure.

b)

oncotic pressure of the plasma proteins.

c)

osmotic pressure of the solutes in the ultrafiltrate

d)

pressures exerted by the glomerular filtration barrier

59.

Which of the following is a characteristic of renin, an enzyme secreted by specialized cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

a)

Renin stimulates the diffusion of urea into the renal interstitium.

b)

Renin inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and water in the nephron.

c)

Renin regulates the osmotic reabsorption of water by the collecting tubules.

d)

Renin causes the formation of angiotensin and the secretion of aldosterone

60.

The glomerular filtration barrier is composed of the

a)

capillary endothelium, basement membrane, and podocytes

b)

mesangium, basement membrane, and shield of negativity

c)

capillary endothelium, mesangium, and juxtaglomerular apparatus

d)

basement membrane, podocytes, and juxtaglomerular apparatus

61.

The ability of a solute to cross the glomerular filtration barrier is determined by its

1. molecular size.

2. molecular radius.

3. electrical charge.

4. plasma concentration

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct.

d)

All are correct

62.

The epithelium characterized by a brush border owing to numerous microvilli is found in the

a)

collecting tubules

b)

distal tubules.

c)

loops of Henle

d)

proximal tubules

63.

The kidneys play an important role in the

1. excretion of waste products.

2. regulation of water and electrolytes.

3. maintenance of acid-base equilibrium.

4. control of blood pressure and fluid balance

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct.

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

64.

What percent of the original ultrafiltrate formed in the urinary space actually is excreted as urine?

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

33%

65.

What differentiates tubular reabsorption from tubular secretion in the nephron?

a)

The direction of movement of the substance being absorbed or secreted is different

b)

Reabsorption is an active transport process, whereas secretion is a passive transport process

c)

Cell membrane–binding sites are different for the reabsorption and secretion of a solute

d)

The location of the epithelium in the nephron determines which process occurs

66.

During tubular transport, the movement of a solute against a gradient

a)

is called passive transport

b)

requires little to no energy

c)

involves specific cell membrane–binding sites

d)

may occur paracellularly, that is, between cells through intercellular spaces.

67.

Substances bound to plasma proteins in the blood can be eliminated in the urine by

a)

glomerular secretion.

b)

glomerular filtration.

c)

tubular secretion

d)

tubular reabsorption.

68.

Which statement characterizes the ability of the renal system to regulate blood pH?

a)

The renal system has a slow response with complete correction of the pH to normal

b)

The renal system has a fast response with complete correction of the pH to normal.

c)

The renal system has a slow response with only partial correction of the pH toward normal.

d)

The renal system has a fast response with only partial correction of the pH toward normal

69.

The kidneys excrete excess alkali (base) in the urine as

a)

ammonium ions

b)

ammonium salts

c)

sodium bicarbonate.

d)

titratable acids

70.

Which of the following substances is secreted into the tubular lumen to eliminate hydrogen ions?

a)

Ammonia (NH3)

b)

Ammonium ions (NH4+ )

c)

Disodium phosphate (Na2HPO4)

d)

Monosodium phosphate (NaH2PO4)

71.

The renal threshold level for glucose is 160 to 180 mg/dL. This corresponds to the

a)

rate of glucose reabsorption by the renal tubules.

b)

concentration of glucose in the tubular lumen fluid

c)

plasma concentration above which tubular reabsorption of glucose occur

d)

plasma concentration above which glucose is excreted in the urine

72.

When too much protein is presented to the renal tubules for reabsorption, it is excreted in the urine because

a)

the renal threshold for protein has not been exceeded

b)

the maximal tubular reabsorptive capacity for protein has been exceeded

c)

protein is not normally present in the ultrafiltrate and cannot be reabsorbed.

d)

the glomerular filtration barrier allows only abnormal proteins to pass.

73.

More than 66% of filtered water, sodium, and chloride and 100% of filtered glucose, amino acids, and proteins are reabsorbed in the

a)

collecting tubules

b)

distal tubules

c)

loops of Henle.

d)

proximal tubules.

74.

Water reabsorption occurs throughout the nephron except in the

a)

cortical collecting tubule

b)

proximal convoluted tubule

c)

ascending limb of the loops of Henle.

d)

descending limb of the loops of Henle

75.

The process solely responsible for water reabsorption throughout the nephron is

a)

osmosis

b)

the urea cycle

c)

the countercurrent exchange mechanism.

d)

the countercurrent multiplier mechanism

76.

Antidiuretic hormone regulates the reabsorption of

a)

water in the collecting tubules

b)

sodium in the collecting tubules

c)

sodium in the distal convoluted tubule

d)

water and sodium in the loop of Henle.

77.

The final concentration of the urine is determined within the

a)

collecting ducts

b)

distal convoluted tubules

c)

loops of Henle.

d)

proximal convoluted tubules

78.

Which of the following solutes are present in the largest molar amounts in urine?

a)

Urea, chloride, and sodium

b)

Urea, creatinine, and sodium

c)

Creatinine, uric acid, and ammonium

d)

Urea, uric acid, and ammonium

79.

The concentration of which substances provides the best means of distinguishing urine from other body fluids?

a)

Creatinine and urea

b)

Glucose and protein

c)

Uric acid and ammonia

d)

Water and electrolytes

80.

What is the definition of the osmolality of a solution?

a)

The density of solute particles per liter of solvent

b)

The mass of solute particles per kilogram of solvent

c)

The number of solute particles per kilogram of solvent

d)

The weight of solute particles per liter of solvent

81.

The excretion of large volumes of urine (>3 L/day) is called

a)

glucosuria.

b)

hyperuria.

c)

polydipsia.

d)

polyuria.

82.

The daily volume of urine excreted normally ranges from

a)

100 to 500 mL/day

b)

100 to 1800 mL/day

c)

500 to 1800 mL/day

d)

1000 to 3000 mL/day

83.

Which of the following groups would be expected to have the greatest 24-hour excretion of creatinine?

a)

Infants

b)

Children

c)

Women

d)

Men

84.

Which of the following groups would be expected to have the greatest 24-hour excretion of creatinine?

a)

Infants

b)

Children

c)

Women

d)

Men

85.

A 24-hour urine collection is preferred for determination of creatinine clearance because of diurnal variation in the

a)

glomerular filtration rate.

b)

plasma creatinine.

c)

creatinine excretion.

d)

urine excretion.

86.

Which of the following is an endogenous substance used to measure glomerular filtration rate?

a)

Urea

b)

Creatinine

c)

Inulin

d)

p-aminohippurate

87.

A fluid deprivation test is used to

a)

determine renal plasma flow.

b)

investigate the cause of oliguria

c)

assess renal concentrating ability

d)

measure the glomerular filtration rate

88.

A single substance can impart different colors to

urine depending on the

1. amount of the substance present.

2. storage conditions of the urine.

3. pH of the urine.

4. structural form of the substance

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct.

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

89.

Which of the following urine characteristics provides the best rough indicator of urine concentration and body hydration?

a)

Color

b)

Clarity

c)

Foam

d)

Volume

90.

Which of the following pigments deposits on urate and uric acid crystals to form a precipitate described as “brick dust”?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Urobilin

c)

Uroerythrin

d)

Urochrome

91.

Select the urine specimen that does not indicate the possible presence of blood or hemoglobin

a)

Clear, red urine

b)

Cloudy, brown urine

c)

Clear, brown urine

d)

Cloudy, amber urine

92.

Select the urine specimen that does not indicate the possible presence of blood or hemoglobin

a)

Clear, red urine

b)

Cloudy, brown urine

c)

Clear, brown urine

d)

Cloudy, amber urine

93.

A urine that produces a large amount of white foam when mixed should be suspected to contain increased amounts of

a)

bilirubin

b)

protein

c)

urobilin

d)

urobilinogen

94.

A urine that produces a large amount of white foam when mixed should be suspected to contain increased amounts of

a)

bilirubin

b)

protein

c)

urobilin

d)

urobilinogen

95.

Which of the following substances can change the

color of a urine and its foam?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Myoglobin

d)

Urobilin

96.

Which of the following substances can change the

color of a urine and its foam?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Myoglobin

d)

Urobilin

97.

The clarity of a well-mixed urine specimen that has visible particulate matter and through which news print can be seen but not read should be described as

a)

cloudy

b)

flocculated

c)

slightly cloudy

d)

turbid

98.

Which of the following methods is an indirect

measure of specific gravity?

1. Reagent strip

2. Urinometry

3. Refractometry

4. Harmonic oscillation densitometry

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

99.

The principle of the reagent strip method for measuring specific gravity is based on

a)

the pKa of a polyelectrolyte decreasing in proportion to the ionic concentration of the specimen

b)

the pH of a polyelectrolyte decreasing in proportion to the ionic concentration of the specimen

c)

the pKa of a polyelectrolyte increasing in proportion to the ionic concentration of the specimen

d)

he pH of a polyelectrolyte increasing in proportion to the ionic concentration of the

100.

Which of the following will not influence the volume

of urine produced?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Exercise

c)

Caffeine ingestion

d)

Carbohydrate ingestion

101.

Which of the following will not influence the volume

of urine produced?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Exercise

c)

Caffeine ingestion

d)

Carbohydrate ingestion

102.

Which of the following specific gravity values is physiologically impossible?

a)

1.000

b)

1.010

c)

1.020

d)

1.030

103.

Match the urine odor to the condition given: Diabetes mellitus

a)

Ammonia-like

b)

Bleach

c)

Faintly aromatic

d)

Pungent, fetid

e)

Sweet, fruity

104.

Match the urine odor to the condition given: Starvation

a)

Ammonia-like

b)

Bleach

c)

Faintly aromatic

d)

Pungent, fetid

e)

Sweet, fruity

105.

Match the urine odor to the condition given: Normal urine

a)

Ammonia-like

b)

Bleach

c)

Faintly aromatic

d)

Pungent, fetid

e)

Sweet, fruity