wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Unit 3 - APES - Populations

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 5hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which factor below is least likely to affect birth and fertility rates today?

a)

number of people 60 or older

b)

cost of raising and educating children

c)

religious beliefs

d)

educational and employment opportunities for women

e)

average age at marriage

2.

A metropolitan region of 100,000 people has 2000 births, 500 deaths, 200 emigrants, and 100 immigrants over a 1-year period. Its population growth rate is

a)

1.2 percent.

b)

1.4 percent

c)

1.6 percent.

d)

1.8 percent.

e)

2.0 percent.

3.

Which of the following pairs of indicators best reflects the availability of health care in a country?

a)

Crude death rate and growth rate

b)

Crude death rate and crude birth rate

c)

Growth rate and life expectancy

d)

Infant mortality rate and life expectancy

e)

Infant mortality rate and crude death rate

4.

Which of the following characteristics are typical of developed countries?

I High technology use

II Low GDP

III Small-scale sustainable agriculture

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

5.

Which of the following statements about total fertility rate is correct

a)

TFR is equal to the crude birth rate minus the crude death rate.

b)

TFR is the average number of children each woman must have to replace the current population.

c)

TFR is generally higher in developed countries than in developing countries

d)

TFR is equal to the growth rate of a country

e)

TFR is the average number of children each woman will give birth to during her childbearing years.

6.

Even if a country reduces its birth rate and maintains replacement-level fertility, its population will still continue to grow for several decades because of

a)

lower death rates

b)

increased income.

c)

population momentum

d)

better health care.

e)

increased life expectancy.

7.

At current growth rates, which country will probably be the most populous in the world after 2050?

a)

China

b)

Brazil

c)

India

d)

Indonesia

e)

United States

8.

Which of the following countries best exemplifies phase 4 of a demographic transition?

a)

Argentina

b)

China

c)

India

d)

Mexico

e)

Japan

9.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in

a)

7 years

b)

10 years

c)

17 years

d)

15 years

e)

not enough information to tell

10.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

11.

A particular country has a Total Fertility Rate equal to replacement level fertility and emigration equal to immigration. Which of the following must be true?

a)

The population will begin shrinking within ten years, based on the Rule of 70.

b)

The population must be stable.

c)

The population will begin growing as soon as TFR = 2.1.

d)

Infant mortality must also be less than Crude Death Rate.

e)

There is not enough information to tell.

12.

Population size can be estimated using the formula

a)

CBR + Immigration + CDR + Emigration

b)

CBR + Immigration – CDR – Emigration

c)

CBR + Immigration + CDR – Emigration

d)

CBR – Immigration – CDR – Emigration

e)

CBR – Immigration + CDR – Emigration

13.

What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Limiting Factors

c)

Immigration

d)

Exponential Growth

14.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
15.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
16.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

17.

A population is...

a)

All members of one species in one area

b)

All members of all species that live in one area

c)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area

d)

None of these

18.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
19.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

20.
To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the
a)
area of the space
b)
birth and death rates
c)
carrying capacity
d)
height of the space
21.
Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called
a)
clumped dispersion.
b)
uniform dispersion.
c)
random dispersion
d)
scatter dispersion
22.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
23.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
24.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
25.
J-Shaped curves
a)
show a decline after an increase
b)
display populations that have reached carrying capacity
c)
represent exponential growth
d)
does not depend on the numbe rof resources
26.

Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.

a)

Intraspecific Competition

b)

Mutualsim

c)

Predation

d)

Commensalism

e)

Interspecific Competition

27.
Represents the biotic potential of the species
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
28.
Population distribution is
a)
often clumped in response to predation
b)
used by wildlife managers when regulating hunting and fishing
c)
measured relative to other species
d)
uniform in most tree species
29.
Which is true about a population's carrying capacity?
a)
it is denoted as "C"
b)
it is usually used when studying ecosystems
c)
it depends on a limiting resource
d)
it is controlled by density-independent factors
30.
Which population is typically regulated by density-independent factors?
a)
algae
b)
predators
c)
Paramecium bacteria
d)
birds
31.
Which does NOT have a significant effect on the number of offspring produced by a population?
a)
population distribution
b)
sex ratio
c)
age structure
d)
population size
32.
population growth using the exponential growth model
a)
increases at a constant rate
b)
applies to most populations only after a long time
c)
has an increasing intrinsic growth rate
d)
represents ideal conditions that rarely occur in natural populations
33.
An r-selected species characteristically has
a)
a type I survivorship curve
b)
few offspring
c)
a population near carrying capacity
d)
a fast population growth rate
34.
Which is true of a population overshoot?
a)
it occurs when reproduction quickly responds to changes in food supply
b)
it is followed by a die-off
c)
it is most likely to be experienced by K-selected species 
d)
it rarely occurs in species with type III survivorship curves
35.

Identify two main contributors for the dramatic increase in the world population over the last century.

a)

increased access to birth control

b)

development of modern medicine

c)

increased immigration

d)

introduction of the Industrial Revolution

36.

If a country has a crude birth rate of 22 and a crude death rate of 7, what is the Annual Growth Rate? AGR = (cbr-cdr)/10

a)

0.7%

b)

1.5%

c)

2.2%

d)

7.0%

37.

According to the graph, what can have the greatest impact on reducing global TFR?

a)

increasing access to healthcare

b)

increasing access to immigration

c)

women empowerment

38.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
39.

What is the dispersion pattern of herding animals, birds that flock together, and fish that form schools?

a)

clumped

b)

random

c)

uniform

d)

unpredictable

40.

If angel fish produce hundreds of young several times a year, which statement below is true?

a)

Angelfish have a k-strategy reproductive pattern

b)

Angelfish have an r-strategy reproductive pattern

c)

Angelfish probably have a low mortality rate

d)

Angelfish provide a lot of care for their young

41.

What term refers to the number of males and females in various reproductive age groups?

a)

age structure

b)

carrying capacity

c)

reproductive dispersal

d)

birth rates

42.

Type III survivorship is characterized by

a)

extremely high juvenile mortality

b)

mortality that is not age dependent

c)

most mortality occurring among the elderly

d)

most juveniles surviving to a critical age

43.
The highest natural increase rates are found in countries in which stage of the demographic transition model (DTM)?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
44.
The highest CDRs are found in countries in which stage of the DTM?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
45.
Which section would see exponential population growth?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
46.
The intrinsic growth rate of a population:
a)
directly affects environmental resistance.
b)
causes changes in birth rates without affecting death rates
c)
causes changes in death rates without affecting birth rates.
d)
is the maximum rate at which a population may increase.
47.
Use Figure 10-1.  Urban populations increased approximately ____% from 1950 to 2000.
a)
3
b)
8
c)
40
d)
68
48.
According to the population pyramid of this country, its population is most likely...
a)
growing slowly.
b)
growing rapidly.
c)
decreasing.
d)
not changing.
49.
What kind of growth is this country experiencing?
a)
Exponential Growth
b)
Stable Growth
c)
Declining Growth
50.

The basic facilities and services that support a community.

a)

arable land

b)

demographic transition

c)

infrastructure

d)

urbanization

51.

Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with a country that demonstrates the age structure diagram show above?

a)

There is a low infant mortality rate

b)

A high percentage of the population has access to medical care

c)

There is a low population growth

d)

There is a high total fertility rate

52.

What type of age structure diagram represents a population with negative growth rate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
53.

Countries undergoing rapid populations growth include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III

e)

I, II, and III

54.

Represents the biotic potential of the species

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

55.

Represents the maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a particular ecosystem on a long-term basis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

56.

Which of the following is a true statement about the total fertility of a society?

a)

The total fertility of a society is the difference between the crude birth rate and the crude death rate.

b)

The total fertility of a society is the number of children necessary for a couple to replace themselves in the next generation.

c)

The total fertility of a society is positively correlated with the average education of women.

d)

The total fertility of a society is negatively correlated with the number of women of child-bearing age.

e)

The total fertility of a society decreases as the society progresses through the demographic transition.

57.

Which of the following is most typically associated with the transition from a rural to an urbanized society?

a)

Reduced birth rates

b)

Reduced need for sewage-treatment facilities

c)

Increased rates of population growth

d)

Increased air quality in urban areas

e)

Increased stabilization of microclimate in urban areas

58.

The current global human population is about 6.1 billion and is growing at an annual rate of 1.35 percent. If world population were to grow at this rate for the next year, approximately how many people would be added?

a)

8 × 105

b)

8 × 106

c)

8 × 107

d)

8 × 108

e)

8 × 109

59.

If a country has a crude birth rate of 24 per 1,000 and a crude death rate of 8 per 1,000, the natural annual percent increase of its population is

a)

0.6%

b)

1.6%

c)

3%

d)

16%

e)

32%

60.

The total fertility rate in country A was 6.8 in 1980. Which of the following statements best supports the change in the total fertility rate in country A between 1980 and 2015?

a)

The total fertility rate increased as a result of improved health care and better nutrition.

b)

The total fertility rate remained constant even though there was improved access to clean water.

c)

The total fertility rate decreased as a result of a delay in age of first marriage and increased contraceptive use.

d)

The total fertility rate decreased as a result of increased infant mortality rate.

61.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically

a)

grow slowly

b)

produce few offspring

c)

reach sexual maturity quickly

d)

have long life spans

e)

are very protective of their offspring

62.

Correct statements about the northern spotted owl include which of the following?

I. It is a pioneer species that is an opportunistic feeder.

II. It is dependent on mature, old-growth forest for its habitat.

III. It is a carnivore at or near the top of the food chain.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

II and III

63.

Which of the following characteristics in the table best supports the claim that:

Country A is a more developed country and that Country

B is a less developed country?

a)

population size

b)

land area

c)

infant mortality rate

d)

net migration rate

64.

The crude growth rate, r , of a population is calculated by

a)

multiplying the existing population size by life expectancy

b)

dividing the crude birth rate by 2

c)

dividing the doubling time by 70

d)

adding the crude birth rate to the crude death rate

e)

subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate

65.

Cycads are gymnosperms that were diverse and abundant during the Mesozoic era. Extant species of cycads share many traits with those from the Mesozoic era. Cycads bear cones, are long-lived with slow growth rates, show late reproductive maturity, and have very few offspring. Based on this description, the cycads are

a)

K-strategists with a Type I survivorship curve.

b)

r-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

c)

K-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

d)

r-strategists with a Type II survivorship curve.

66.

In a certain country, the birth rate is high, the death rate is high, and there are many children that are part of the workforce. The country is most likely in which of the following stages of the demographic transition?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

67.

During which stage of the demographic transition shown above does a population begin to experience an explosive increase in growth?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

e)

After Stage 4

68.

In a human population undergoing the demographic transition, which of the following generally decreases first?

a)

Birth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Average family size

d)

Life expectancy

e)

Level of education

69.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

e)

35 years

70.

Factors that affect the total fertility rate of a human population include which of the following?

I. Cultural traditions

II. Government policies and economic incentives

III. Education level and economic opportunities for females

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

e)

I, II and III

71.

What is a primary producer?

a)

autotrophs (plants, algae, phytoplankton)

b)

heterotrophs

c)

carnivores

d)

herbivores

72.

What is an omnivore?

a)

animals that eats plants

b)

animal that eat meat

c)

animal that eats both plants and meat

73.

What is a generalist species?

a)

Species with a broad range of tolerance

b)

Species with a narrow range of tolerance

74.

A metropolitan region of 100,000 people has 2000 births, 500 deaths, 200 emigrants, and 100 immigrants over a 1-year period. Its population growth rate is

a)

1.2 percent.

b)

1.4 percent

c)

1.6 percent.

d)

1.8 percent.

e)

2.0 percent.

75.

Which of the following pairs of indicators best reflects the availability of health care in a country?

a)

Crude death rate and growth rate

b)

Crude death rate and crude birth rate

c)

Growth rate and life expectancy

d)

Infant mortality rate and life expectancy

e)

Infant mortality rate and crude death rate

76.

Which of the following variables increase population size?

a)

Deaths

b)

Emigration

c)

Immigration

77.

Small populations that lead to a greater likelihood of harmful alleles spreading in a population is a result of

a)

metapopulation

b)

genetic inbreeding

c)

k-selected communities

78.

This type of species puts energy into reproduction not survival.

a)

r-selected

b)

k-selected

c)

s-selected

d)

j-selected

79.

This type of species has many offspring with little to no parental care.

a)

k-selected

b)

r-selected

c)

s-selected

d)

j-selected

80.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an r-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

81.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an k-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

82.

Bacteria, algae, and dandelions are an example of

a)

r-selected species

b)

k-selected species

c)

s-selected species

83.

This type of species population remains close to carrying capacity (k) over long periods of time.

a)

r-selected

b)

k-selected

c)

s-selected

84.

This type of species population is controlled by density-dependent factors

a)

r-selected

b)

k-selected

c)

j-selected

85.

humans, polar bears, and elephants are an example of

a)

r-selected species

b)

k-selected species

c)

j-selected species

86.

Which type of survivorship curve represents animals that have constant mortality?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

87.

Which type of survivorship curve represents organisms that produce many offspring that mainly die early in life

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

88.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of rapidly growing populations?

a)

Short generation time

b)

Long length of reproductive life

c)

Low fecundity

d)

Reproduce early in life

89.

The definition of fecundity is...

a)

number of offspring

b)

amount of generation time

c)

the carrying capacity

d)

exponential growth

90.

A J-curve represents

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

c)

no growth

91.

When a population goes over the carrying capacity this is known as

a)

oscillation

b)

overshoot

c)

dieback

d)

exponential

92.

As a population reaches carrying capacity what happens to mortality

a)

increases

b)

decreases

93.

As a population reaches carrying capacity what happens to fecundity?

a)

Increases

b)

decreases

94.

Which type of species would you expect to have a s-curve graph?

a)

k-selected

b)

r-selected

c)

s-selected

95.

When a population rises and falls in a predictable pattern this is known as what type of fluctuation

a)

stable

b)

irrupt

c)

cyclic

d)

irregular

96.

What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Limiting Factors

c)

Immigration

d)

Exponential Growth

97.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

98.
Which threat to biodiversity is being displayed?
a)
overexploitation
b)
invasive species
c)
pollution
d)
habitat fragmentation
99.
Lichens and mosses that first live in uninhabited areas are examples of
a)
secondary species
b)
non-native species
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax species
100.
Which of these would NOT be true of a specialist species?
a)
They are more likely to go extinct during changes to an ecosystem. 
b)
They have a very narrow niche.
c)
They often lose in competition for resources to generalists. 
d)
They often feed on a very specific diet. 
101.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
102.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists

Similar Resources on Wayground

Unit 11: Cardiovascular System Test

97 questions

Unit 11: Cardiovascular System Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

STS-MIDTERM

100 questions

STS-MIDTERM

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

ESRT Review - Earth Science Regents

100 questions

ESRT Review - Earth Science Regents

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

AP Bio Unit 1 (Chemistry of Life) Review

100 questions

AP Bio Unit 1 (Chemistry of Life) Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

Unit 10 & 11 Heat, Gas Laws

103 questions

Unit 10 & 11 Heat, Gas Laws

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Yr10 Science 2020

102 questions

Yr10 Science 2020

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

100+ Questions on Chemical Bonding

103 questions

100+ Questions on Chemical Bonding

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

HBS EOC Review

101 questions

HBS EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade