Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Ophtha SKRRSKRRRRRT

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the ff. are pressure-dependent?

a)

Uveoscleral outflow

b)

Trabecular outflow

2.

Which of the ff. functions as a one-way valve?

a)

Uveoscleral outflow

b)

Trabecular outflow

3.

Primary open angle glaucoma is generally--?

a)

Unilateral

b)

Bilateral

4.

Disc hemorrhages are more frequently seen in?

a)

Primary open angle glaucoma

b)

Primary angle closure glaucoma

c)

Normal tension-glaucoma

5.

Congenital glaucoma is more common in?

a)

Females

b)

Males

6.

Which of the following may decrease IOP?

a)

LSD

b)

Valsava maneuver

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Pregnancy

7.

T or F? Central vision is usually affected even in the beginning of disease progression.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Clouding in the cornea may indicate which of the ff.?

a)

Gradual rise in IOP

b)

Acute rise in IOP

9.

Acute angle closure can manifest as which of the ff.?

a)

Semi-constricted pupils

b)

Mid-dilated pupils

10.

A (+) swinging flashlight test (RAPD) indicates which of the ff.?

a)

b

b)

Beginning optic nerve damage

c)

Advanced optic nerve damage

11.

Which of the following is used to differentiate open angle from closed-angle type of glaucoma?

a)

Slit lamp examination

b)

Finger tonometry

c)

Gonioscopy

d)

Tonometry

12.

Which of the following is the gold standard for measuring IOP?

a)

Goldmann applanation tonometry

b)

Finger tonometry

c)

Gonioscopy

d)

Indirect lens

13.

Which is the normal cup to disc ratio?

a)

0.1-0.8

b)

0.1-0.6

c)

0.1-0.4

d)

0.2-0.8

14.

Indirect lens is used for?

a)

Stereoscopic ophthalmoscopy

b)

Measuring of optic disc size

c)

Visual field testing

d)

Assessing retinal and optic nerve anatomy

15.

In evaluating the optic nerve head, which should be assessed?

a)

Neuro-retinal rim

b)

Disc hemorrhages

c)

Vascular patterns

d)

Peripapillary atrophy

16.

Optic coherence tomography uses which of the following?

a)

High-coherence light

b)

interferometry

c)

Low-coherence light

d)

Direct lens

17.

A blind spot occupies the area defined by the optic nerve head and is typically ___ temporal to fixation.

a)

45 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

10 degrees

d)

15 degrees

18.

What are side effects of topical beta blockers?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bronchospasm

c)

Somnolence

d)

Nausea

19.

Which of the following drugs decrease aqueous humor production without affecting outflow?

a)

Brimonidine

b)

Dorzolamide

c)

Apraclonidine

d)

Acetazolamide

20.

Which of the following drugs decreases aqueous humor production and secondarily increases outflow?

a)

Brimonidine

b)

Apraclonidine

c)

Dorzolamide

d)

Acetazolamide

21.

Which of the following may cause allergic reactions?

a)

Apraclonidine

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Dorzolamide

d)

Acetazolamide

22.

Which of the following drugs decreased IOP by reducing aqueous production by inhibiting ion transport of the aqueous humor?

a)

Apraclonidine

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Dorzolamide

d)

Acetazolamide

23.

Which of the following may cause hypokalemia, acidosis, diarrhea, weight loss, cramps, numbness, altered state, malaise, anorexia, depression, renal calculi, blood dyscrasias?

a)

Apraclonidine

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Dorzolamide

d)

Acetazolamide

24.

Which of the following is the first-line agent of choice for glaucoma because it increases uveosacral outflow of aqueous?

a)

Acetazolamide

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Mannitol

d)

Latanoprost

25.

Which of the following drugs may cause a change in eye color from blue to green to brown?

a)

Carbachol

b)

Bimatoprost

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Glycerin

26.

Which of the following drugs narrow the iris muscle and constrict the pupil?

a)

Pilocarpine

b)

Mannitol

c)

Travoprost

d)

Acetazolamide

27.

Which of the following procedures forms a direct communication between the anterior and posterior chamber?

a)

Laser trabeculoplasty

b)

Trabeculectomy

c)

Glaucoma drainage surgery

d)

Peripheral iridectomy

28.

Which of the following procedures creates a passageway to bypass the normal drainage channels WITHOUT placing a drainage device?

a)

Trabeculectomy

b)

Peripheral iridotomy

c)

Laser trabeculoplasty

d)

Glaucoma drainage surgery

29.

Which of the following are considered antifibrotic agents that decrease the chances of fibrosis?

a)

Mannitol

b)

Betamethasone

c)

5-Fluorouracil

d)

Vincristine

30.

Which of the following procedures are reserved for advanced cases of glaucoma only?

a)

Laser trabeculoplasty

b)

Cyclodestructive procedures

c)

Enucleation

d)

Glaucoma drainage surgery

31.

Which of the following should be assessed FIRST in examination?

a)

Fundoscopy

b)

Damage to cannaliculi

c)

Visual acuity

d)

Slit lamp examination

32.

(+) RAPD indicates which of the ff.?

a)

Vitreous hemorrhage

b)

Damage to optic nerve

c)

Corneal pathologies

d)

Lens opacities

33.

What should you assess for in the "worm's eye view" examination for exophthalmos?

a)

Inferior-most portion of the sclera

b)

Superior-most portion of the cornea

c)

Posterior-most portion of the sclera

d)

Anterior-most portion of the cornea

34.

When globe rupture is suspected, is it okay to place topical medications?

a)

Yas

b)

Nah

35.

From outer to inner, which is the correct order of the layers of the eyelid?

a)

Skin, conjunctiva, tarsus, orbicularis

b)

Skin, conjunctiva, orbicularis, tarsus

c)

Skin, tarsus, conjunctiva, orbicularis

d)

Skin, orbicularis, tarsus, conjunctiva

36.

Deep lacerations with fat prolapse in the upper lid can damage which muscle?

a)

Levator muscle

b)

Orbicularis oculi

c)

Corrugator muscle

d)

Procerus

37.

A minor hematoma appears as which of the ff.? 

a)

Retrobulbar hemorrhage

b)

Black eye

c)

Battle sign

38.

Which is the most common orbital fracture?

a)

Medial orbital wall fracture

b)

Orbital blow-out floor fracture

39.

An orbital blow-out floor fracture causes which of the ff.?

a)

Limited downward gaze

b)

Limited lateral gaze

c)

Limited upward gaze

d)

Limited medial gaze

40.

Which causes the most severe chemical injuries?

a)

Strong acids

b)

Strong alkalis

c)

Datu puti

41.

Which structure contains corneal epithelial stem cells so damage to this area can cause disruption in the normal repopulation of the corneal epithelium?

a)

Descemet's membrane

b)

Endothelium

c)

Ciliary body

d)

Limbus

42.

Damage to which structure will cause scar formation?

a)

Corneal stroma

b)

Bowman's layer

43.

Which should you use to irrigate the ocular surface in cases of chemical injuries?

a)

Balanced saline solution

b)

Dextrose

c)

Hypotonic solutions

44.

Which kind of filter should be used for the slit lamp in assessing for corneal abrasion?

a)

Yellow filter

b)

White light

c)

Blue filter

d)

Green filter

45.

Should you patch the eye to promote healing in corneal abrasion?

a)

I guesss

b)

NO

46.

Which can aid in the healing of corneal abrasions within 2-3 days?

a)

Steroids

b)

Topical antibiotics

c)

NSAIDs

47.

How soon should surgical repair be done in bigger lacerations brought about by corneal trauma?

a)

Within 72 hours

b)

Within 1 week

c)

Within 48 hours

d)

Within 36 hours

48.

When fundoscopy cannot be done, which can be performed?

a)

Orbital CT scan

b)

Slit lamp examintation

c)

Tonometry

d)

Perimetry

49.

In hyphema, rebleeding usually occurs when between?

a)

1-5 days

b)

3-7 days

c)

2-4 days

d)

1-8 days

50.

Surgical intervention may be needed when IOP is persistently greater than?

a)

22mmHg

b)

70mmHg

c)

60mmHg

d)

55mmHg

51.

Which could cause an irregular or pear-shaped pupil?

a)

Uveal prolapse

b)

Scleral damage

c)

Iris damage

d)

Lens prolapse

52.

When globe rupture is suspected, what should be given ASAP?

a)

Prophylactic antibiotics

b)

IV fluids

c)

Tetanus prophylaxis

d)

Mannitol

53.

Which type of cellulitis is being described?

(-) pain

normal vision

fever

a)

Preseptal cellulitis

b)

Orbital cellulitis

54.

Which of the following is an emergency?

a)

Central retinal artery occlusion

b)

Corneal abrasion

c)

Acute angle closure glaucoma

d)

Chronic angle closure glaucoma

55.

Which of the following is typically elevated in temporal arteritis?

a)

CRP

b)

Procalcitonin

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

ESR

56.

Which of the following describes glaucoma?

a)

Characteristic optic neuropathy

b)

High IOP

c)

Cherry red spot

d)

Hemorrhage