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PT/OT Unit 2 Test Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

T/F: Non-verbal communication does not tell you much about the patient's response to treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate when treating a patient with a vision impairment?

a)

speak loudly and clearly

b)

introduce yourself and your role as soon as you enter the room

c)

assist them with every activity

d)

demonstrate each exercise for the patient

3.

T/F: If you are treating a patient with a hearing impairment, you should always face them when speaking in case they rely on lip-reading.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

T/F: Listening is not a communication skill.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Informed consent can occur after the treatment has already started.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A _____________ is a set of specific written instructions to be followed by healthcare providers in the event that the patient is unable to make healthcare decisions due to illness or incapacity.

a)

patient bill of rights

b)

power of attorney

c)

living will

d)

HIPAA

7.

What 2 patient identifiers must be used when verifying you are treating the correct patient.

a)

last name, SSN

b)

full name, DOB

c)

last name, DOB

d)

SSN, DOB

8.

T/F: Documentation must be accurate and up to date at all times because it is scrutinized by funding sources such as insurance companies.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

During this phase of the patient/provider interaction, the provider is gathering information and conducting tests and measures.

a)

Examination

b)

Evaluation

c)

Intervention

d)

DIagnosis

e)

Prognosis

10.

The process of analyzing the information and data gathered during the patient/provider interaction is called:

a)

Examination

b)

Evaluation

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Prognosis

e)

Intervention

11.

The cluster of signs and symptoms given during the examination and evaluation process is called:

a)

Examination

b)

Evaluation

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Prognosis

e)

Intervention

12.

A prediction about the patient's level of improvement and how long it may take to reach the patient's goal is called:

a)

Examination

b)

Evaluation

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Prognosis

e)

Intervention

13.

The treatments and techniques used to address the patient's impairments and help them achieve their goals are called:

a)

Prognosis

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Intervention

d)

Modality

14.

The anacronym "SOAP" is a method of:

a)

handwashing

b)

cleaning

c)

hygeine

d)

documentation

15.

The anacronym "SOAP" stands for:

a)

subjective, objective, analysis, plan

b)

subjective, objective, assessment, progress

c)

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

d)

summary, objective, assessment, plan

16.

Which part of the SOAP note does the statement "My arm hurt so bad I could not sleep at night" belong?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

17.

Which part of the SOAP note does the statement "The patient had diminished sensation on the dorsum of the left foot " belong?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

18.

Which part of the SOAP note does the statement "The patient is progressing well towards their goal of returning to college-level basketball, but would benefit from continuing PT to address the impairment of decreased endurance with dynamic activities in order to reach this goal" belong?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

19.

Which part of the SOAP note does the statement "Progress leg press exercise to 200 lbs next visit" belong?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

20.

T/F: If you make a mistake in a written note, it is okay to use white-out to make your correction look neater.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

T/F: A PTA and COTA can perform and document an initial evaluation, treatment note/visit note, progress note, and a discharge summary.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

How often should a re-evaluation be performed by the PT or OT?

a)

2 month

b)

60 days

c)

30 days

d)

90 days

23.

T/F: PTAs and COTAs must document treatment notes for their patients.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

T/F: Therapy aides/rehab techs document treatment notes for patients.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

T/F: An addendum is name given to an entry correction in the electronic medical record.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

T/F: Labs, x-rays, test results, medications, and operative reports are visible in the electronic medical record.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Being cautious or wise in practical affairs is defined as:

a)

prudence

b)

veracity

c)

justice

d)

freedom

28.

A therapist stayed late at the clinic to fit in a patient that needed pain relief after a bad car accident. THe therapist is showing selflessness or:

a)

justice

b)

prudence

c)

equality

d)

altruism

29.

Treating a homeless patient in the same manner that you would treat a professional athlete is demonstrating the core value of:

a)

prudence

b)

altruism

c)

freedom

d)

equality

30.

The APTA and AOTA each have a ___________ to guide practitioners in professional behaviors and decision-making.

a)

state practice act

b)

state therapy law

c)

code of ethics

d)

guide to therapy practice

31.

A ________ is the standard that would be used by a reasonably prudent professional in a line of work and can be used to determine negligence in that profession.

a)

Practice Act

b)

Standard of Care

c)

Healthcare Law

d)

Code of Ethics

32.

T/F: Each state has a Practice Act which determines the scope of practice for that particular state in terms of who can provide specific services, tasks that can be delegated, and supervisory requirements.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

__________ is failure to do (or failure to avoid doing) something that a member in good standing of a profession would have done (or would have avoided doing) which causes subsequent harm to the patient.

a)

Abuse

b)

Negligence

c)

Maleficence

d)

Malpractice

34.

T/F: If PT is supervising a PTA, and the PTA's patient gets seriously injured during the treatment, the PT could be held liable.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

HIPPA stands for:

a)

Health Insurance Provider and Accountability Act

b)

Health Information Portability and Accountability Act

c)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

d)

Health Informatics Privacy and Accountability Act

36.

T/F: HIPPA ensures confidentiality and safety for patients through standards for patient healthcare information security, administrative simplification, and privacy of patient information.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

T/F: A DUI is considered a barrier crime for the PT and OT professions.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

___________ is the manner in which people are able to move around in their environment in order to participate in day to day tasks.

a)

Functional Mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

d)

Functional limitation

39.

T/F: IADL's require more thinking, planning, and cognitive abilities than ADLs.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

IADL is the abbreviation for:

a)

independent activity of daily living

b)

independent activity of daily life

c)

instrumental activity of daily living

d)

instructional activity of daily living

41.

Stair climbing is an example of:

a)

functional mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

42.

Feeding yourself with a spoon is an example of:

a)

functional mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

43.

Getting up out of a chair is an example of:

a)

functional mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

44.

Toileting is an example of:

a)

functional mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

45.

Driving is an example of:

a)

functional mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

46.

Preparing a meal is an example of:

a)

functional mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

47.

Wheelchair mobility is an example of:

a)

funcitonal mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

48.

Brushing your teeth is an example of:

a)

functional mobility

b)

ADL

c)

IADL

49.

T/F: PTs and OTs love the documentation aspect of their job.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

T/F: PTs do not have to perform toileting with their patients. That is a nursing and OT duty.

a)

True

b)

False