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Coagulation Final Review

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the circulating lifespan of platelets?

a)

2-3 days

b)

5-6 days

c)

9-10 days

d)

120 days

2.

ADP, serotonin and calcium are released from which type of granules?

a)

Dense

b)

Alpha

c)

Beta

d)

Gamma

3.

What factor is responsible for platelet adhesion?

a)

von Willebrand's Factor

b)

Tissue Factor

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Thrombin

4.

What proportion of platelets are in the circulating blood?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

100%

5.

When a vessel contracts in response to damage, what is it called?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Vasoconstriction

6.

The peripheral zone of the platelet has a fluffy outer coating called _.

a)

The membrane

b)

Open canalicular system

c)

Dense tubular system

d)

Glycocalyx

7.

If a blue top specimen is only half full, how would that affect coagulation testing?

a)

Shorten

b)

Unaffected

c)

Prolonged

8.

The platelet receptor for fibrinogen is _.

a)

Thromboxane A2

b)

Platelet Factor 3

c)

GPIb

d)

GPIIb/IIIa

9.

Platelet aggregation refers to platelets binding to_.

a)

the vessel wall

b)

epithelial cells

c)

other platelets

d)

smooth muscle

10.

What stages are involved in hemostasis?

a)

Platelet Plug Formation

b)

Fibrin Clot Formation

c)

Fibrinolysis

d)

All of the Above

11.

Factors II, VII, IX, and X are:

a)

in the intrinsic pathway

b)

vitamin K dependent

c)

made in the bone marrow

d)

unaffected by heparin

12.

Factors XII, XI, HMWK, and PK belong to which group of factors?

a)

Contact

b)

Prothrombin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

All of the Above

13.

What is the inactive form of a coagulation factor called?

a)

Kininogen

b)

Bradykinin

c)

Plasmin

d)

Zymogen

14.

Where are the coagulation factors produced?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Bone Marrow

15.

What is the process of breaking down a fibrin clot into soluble fragments called?

a)

Fibrinolysis

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Coagulation

d)

Inflammation

16.

What protein is the driving force of fibrinolysis?

a)

Fibrin

b)

Thrombin

c)

Plasmin

d)

D-Dimer

17.

What is the common name for Factor IX?

a)

Christmas Factor

b)

von Willebrand's Factor

c)

Hageman Factor

d)

Calcium

18.

Which factor activates the extrinsic pathway?

a)

Thrombin

b)

Fibrin

c)

Tissue Factor

d)

Hageman Factor

19.

The common name for factor VI is:

a)

Christmas Factor

b)

Fitzgerald Factor

c)

Stuart-Prower Factor

d)

None of the Above

20.

Which test monitors the extrinsic pathway?

a)

PT

b)

PTT

c)

Thrombin Time

d)

D-Dimer

21.

What are small, pinpoint lesions <3mm called?

a)

Petechiae

b)

Purpura

c)

Ecchymosis

d)

Thrombus

22.

This type of ITP develops shortly after a viral infection in children.

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

23.

Bernard Soulier Syndrome has a normal platelet aggregation response to:

a)

ADP, collagen, epinephrine

b)

Ristocetin

24.

von Willebrand's and Bernard Soulier Syndrome are disorders of platelet:

a)

Secretion

b)

Aggregation

c)

Adhesion

25.

What disease state is associated with agranular platelets?

a)

Defective Thromboxane A2 Synthesis

b)

Gray Platelet Syndrome

c)

Scott Syndrome

d)

Storage Pool Disease

26.

A splenectomy will cause the platelet count to be:

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

Normal

27.

Which two disease states are microangiopathic hemolytic anemias?

a)

Acute ITP and HUS

b)

Chronic ITP and TTP

c)

TTP and HUS

d)

Acute and Chronic ITP

28.

ADP, epinephrine, collagen, and ristocetin are used in what test?

a)

Bleeding Time

b)

PT

c)

PTT

d)

Platelet Aggregation Studies

29.

Which of the following is a disorder of platelet aggregation?

a)

Bernard Soulier Syndrome

b)

Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia

c)

von Willebrand's Disease

d)

Storage Pool Disease

30.

TTP and HUS are disease that result from thrombi developing within the blood vessels.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Which test is useful for monitoring thrombolytic drugs such as streptokinase?

a)

PTT

b)

FDP and D-DImer

c)

Bleeding Time

d)

PT

32.

Which result would be abnormal in Hemophilia A?

a)

PT

b)

Platelet count

c)

Factor VIII: vWF activity

d)

Factor VIII activity

33.

Which anticoagulant alters the synthesis of Vitamin K dependent factors?

a)

Coumadin

b)

Heparin

c)

Aspirin

d)

Ibuprofen

34.

What is the minimum amount of factor activity need to produce a normal PT and PTT?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

100%

35.

Which factor deficiency has an abnormal PT, but not a normal PTT?

a)

II

b)

VII

c)

IX

d)

X

36.

What test monitors heparin therapy?

a)

PT

b)

Bleeding Time

c)

PTT

d)

Platelet Aggregation

37.

Factor V Leiden mutation resists the action of:

a)

Thrombin

b)

Plasmin

c)

Antithrombin III

d)

Protein C and Protein S

38.

DIC is associated with:

a)

Schistocytes

b)

Positive D-Dimer

c)

Prolonged PT, PTT

d)

All of the Above

39.

A mixing study does not correct the results of a PTT. What does this indicate?

a)

Circulating Inhibitor

b)

Factor Deficiency

40.

Thrombolytic agents are designed to:

a)

Inhibit Factors XII and XI

b)

Inhibit Thromboxane A2

c)

Prevent Platelet Aggregation

d)

Activate Plasmin