wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

610 Exam 3

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the reason that Gram positive organisms are purple in a Gram stain?

a)

The thicker peptidoglycan is too saturated with purple dye to be displaced

b)

The peptidoglycan prevents penetration of purple dye

c)

Diluting the purple dye with alcohol reacts with the outer membrane

d)

The bacterial biofilm promotes metabolism of pink dye

2.

(Multiple answers) Which of the following are characteristics of Gram positive organisms?

a)

Large peptidoglycan stains purple

b)

Teichoic acid

c)

Outer membrane with porins

d)

Periplasmic space

3.

(Multiple answers) Gram negatives have which of the following attributes?

a)

Large peptidoglycan stains purple

b)

Teichoic acid

c)

Outer membrane with porins

d)

Periplasmic space

4.

You're an ID lab supervisor and your tech just informed you they think Legionella, a fastidious pathogen, just grew in a standard agar plate. What do you think?

a)

No, fastidious organisms won't grow under standard conditions

b)

Get out of my lab

c)

I appreciate and agree with your judgement

d)

Legionella is an acid fast organism and therefore can't grow on agar plates

5.

Which of the following is not a typical investigative method for a micro lab who just received blood cultures x2 for a standard bacteremia?

a)

Pulse field gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR singleplex/multiplex

c)

MALDI-TOF MS

d)

MacConkey and Chocolate agar

6.

(Multiple answers) Which of the following are structures involved in bacterial walls?

a)

NAM-NAM crosslinked by pentapeptides

b)

NAM-NAG links

c)

Transpeptidase/Penicillin Binding Protein

d)

D-Ala-D-Ala linking pentapeptides

7.

Which of the following is an incorrect characteristic of real-time polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) for microbial identification?

a)

Can test for one or more targets

b)

Generally cheaper than culturing pathogens

c)

Greatly decreases the time to narrow antimicrobial therapy

d)

Confirmative but not quantifying

8.

What correctly describes a selective culture?

a)

Inhibits some groups of microbes

b)

An all-in-one answer to fastidious organisms being hard to grow

c)

Creates a visible difference between colonies, typically based on metabolic differences changing color

d)

Easily distinguishes similar species from the same family or group

9.

What correctly describes a differential culture?

a)

Inhibits some groups of microbes

b)

Used to determine susceptibilities

c)

Creates a visible difference between colonies, typically based on metabolic differences changing color

d)

Prevents microbial growth

10.

(Multiple answers) MacConkey agar could be defined as which of the following?

a)

Selective in favor of gram-negative bacteria

b)

Turns lactose fermenting colonies pink-red

c)

Both selective and differential culture

d)

Determines microbial hemolysis and catalase efficacy

11.

Your tech asks you if you're able to use EMB agar, a differential-selective agar, to tell the difference between KPC and non-KPC producing Klebsiella. What should you tell them?

a)

It would be a better idea to use RT PCR for that

b)

Yes, cultures can quickly and easily distinguish antibiotic resistance mechanisms

c)

No, cultures are much too complicated to use on Klebsiella

d)

No, get out of my lab

12.

Which of the following is applicable to RT PCR use for microbe identification?

a)

Relatively quick but could report dead organisms or pathogens that aren't causative for the disease

b)

Generally cheaper than culturing

c)

Can distinguish closely related species but not their resistance mechanisms

d)

Only targets RNA and therefore can't find herpesviruses

13.

An NP sends your a sample with suspected polymicrobial infection. What is your best tool for identifying the pathogens?

a)

MALDI-TOF MS

b)

RT PCR

c)

Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion

d)

Series of selective-differential cultures for likely pathogens

14.

Which of the following could determine MICs

a)

Epsilometer tests

b)

MALDI-TOF MS

c)

MacConkey agar

d)

Anaerobic bottle culture

15.

Which of the following has both the highest throughput and widest variety of organisms for microbe identification?

a)

Broth dilution tests

b)

RT PCR Multiplex

c)

RT PCR singleplex

d)

MALDI-TOF MS

16.

Which of the following attributes are incorrectly matched?

a)

MALDI-TOF MS - high initial cost but cheap reagents

b)

RT PCR - unsuitable for polymicrobial samples

c)

MALDI-TOF MS - requires a pure colony

d)

RT PCR - requires a fully developed culture

17.

A nurse sends you a blood sample that you decide to put in the MALDI-TOF MS. What must you do first?

a)

Just put the blood sample straight in

b)

Use PCR to determine likely species first

c)

Throw some lactose at it to see if it ferments

d)

Grow a pure colony

18.

Which of the following could be an MIC?

a)

The first clear vial in a broth dilution using escalating antimicrobial doses

b)

Categorized as ~4x the minimal bactericidal concentration

c)

Only determinable by RT PCR

d)

The only way to determine definitive therapy

19.

Your tech reports an MIC of 4 for a broth dilution. You know the S breakpoint is <2, the I breakpoint is 6, and the R breakpoint is 32. What do you put in the final report?

a)

Pathogen is likely Klebsiella pneumoniae

b)

MIC 4, Intermediate

c)

MIC <2, Susceptible

d)

MIC <32, resistant

20.

Which of the following are determinable from broth dilution tests?

a)

MIC

b)

Pathogen species

c)

Mechanism of resistance

d)

MBC

21.

Your technician reports a blood culture has shown alpha hemolysis. What does this mean?

a)

Pathogen ID Staph auricularis

b)

The pathogen has no hemolytic ability

c)

The pathogen has shown incomplete hemolytic ability

d)

The pathogen has shown strong hemolytic ability

22.

Your technician reports a blood culture has shown beta hemolysis. What does this mean?

a)

Pathogen ID Staph auricularis

b)

Pathogen ID Burkholderia pseudomallei

c)

The pathogen has shown strong hemolytic ability

d)

The pathogen has shown no hemolytic ability

23.

When are biochemical tests for identification best indicated?

a)

Pathogen is most likely to be a species with an enzyme other species in the group don't have

b)

Your technician have too little time to clean the PCR

c)

You left all your cultures at home

d)

Your hospital has frequently catalase + microbes

24.

Your tech reports a positive Catalase test on a Gram positive coccus sample. What is your next step?

a)

Record as likely Staphylococcus

b)

Record as likely Streptococcus

c)

Record as likely Enterococcus

d)

Repeat the test

25.

S. aureus is likely one of the most virulent bacteria - being the most likely pathogen in prosthetic infections, osteomyelitis, and SSTIs. What group does S. aureus belong to?

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Streptobacillus

d)

Gram negative enterics

26.

What is the function of Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST) for Staphylococcus spp.?

a)

Biofilm formation

b)

Differentiating from Streptococcus spp.

c)

Improving infection capability (virulence)

d)

Abscess formation (purulence)

27.

(Multiple answers) Select all of the following virulence factors for Staphylococcus aureus:

a)

SCCmec

b)

Coagulase

c)

TSST

d)

PVL

28.

What is the purpose of penicillinase, an enzyme expressed by nearly all Staphylococcus spp.?

a)

Virulence

b)

Lysis of multiple penicillin drugs

c)

Biofilm formation

d)

Encoding PBP2a

29.

What is the purpose of SCCmec, a gene common for Staphylococcus spp.?

a)

Virulence

b)

Encoding PBP2a, providing resistance to (methicillin) all beta-lactams

c)

Encoding penicillinase, providing resistance to some beta-lactams

d)

Providing resistance to Ceftaroline

30.

When would you pursue further testing to determine if Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus (CoNS) is a causative pathogen?

a)

Never, CoNS is always a contaminant

b)

You receive a single positive culture

c)

The patient has a prosthetic

d)

The patient is diabetic

31.

Select all of the most likely clinical syndromes for S. aureus:

a)

Endocarditis

b)

SSTIs

c)

Osteomyelitis

d)

Cystitis

32.

What are the two most common clinical syndromes for CoNS?

a)

Hospital/Ventilator-acquired pneumonia

b)

Endocarditis

c)

Toxic Shock Syndrome

d)

Hardware infection

33.

Your technician reports both a culture with gold colored cocci clusters and a positive latex agglutination test. What do you report?

a)

Methicillin resistant Strep aureus

b)

Actinomyces

c)

Staph aureus

d)

CoNS

34.

What are the two primary results of the catalase test for Gram positive organisms?

a)

Positive - Streptococcus

b)

Positive - Staphylococcus

c)

Negative - Streptococcus

d)

Negative - Staphylococcus

35.

Which of the following are applicable to Streptococcus spp.?

a)

Aerobic but could be facultative anaerobes

b)

Streptococcus viridans is the primary infective species

c)

GBS (S. agalactiae) and GAS (S. pyogenes) are the primary beta hemolytic groups

d)

Lancefield groups relevant to the class are A, B, and D (S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae, and S. bovis respectively)

36.

What is the primary clinical syndrome to be expected of viridans group Strep?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Community acquired meningitis

c)

SSTIs

d)

Endocarditis

37.

Which of the following are common resistance factors for Streptococcus spp.?

a)

Hyaluronidase and streptolysins

b)

Erythrogenic toxin or pneumolysin

c)

vanA and vanB

d)

Mutated PBPs

38.

What Strep species would prompt you to screen for colon/GI cancer if found in the bloodstream?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

S. bovis

c)

GAS or GBS

d)

Strep. pneumoniae

39.

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia and meningitis?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus aureus

c)

S. pneumoniae

d)

Enterococci spp.

40.

The Rapid Strep test is unsensitive but very specific. What is the most likely false outcome?

a)

False positive

b)

False negative

c)

Detecting Enterococci, a similar pathogen

d)

Detecting Staphylococcus

41.

Your panicked tech comes to you about vancomycin resistant E. faecium in a stool sample of an ocular infection patient. What is your course of action?

a)

Vancomycin STAT

b)

Recommend amoxicillin oral suspension

c)

Send the final report as positive for catalase positive coagulase negative gram-positive organisms

d)

Do nothing, it's not important

42.

What clinical syndrome would be surprising for Enterococci?

a)

IAI following an ill-performed colonoplasty

b)

URTI in a 28 year old athlete

c)

Bacteremia following advanced untreated cystitis

d)

UTI after poor handling of a Foley catheter

43.

What resistance mechanism is common in E. faecium and rare in E. faecalis?

a)

vanA and vanB (altered target site)

b)

vanA and vanB (efflux pump)

c)

Amoxicillin efflux pumps

d)

Amoxicillin altered binding

44.

Which of the following are attributable to Clostridioides difficile?

a)

Most commonly Toxin A- B+

b)

Frequently causes pseudomembranous colitis

c)

Infection is most commonly linked to antibiotic use (clindamycin historically)

d)

Forms spores resistant to alcohol sanitizer

45.

Which of the following is associated with C. diff-associated diarrhea?

a)

Severe leukopenia

b)

Acute and extreme leukocytosis

c)

Food-borne illness following Dented Can Syndrome

d)

Generalized tetanus

46.

How is C. diff most properly diagnosed?

a)

Testing stool samples at first sign of diarrhea

b)

Culturing during active, serious infection

c)

Repeating stool test after a negative 4 days ago

d)

GDH EIA -> direct EIA for toxins

47.

Select all of the appropriate infection control for Clostridioides difficile infection:

a)

Alcohol foam in & out

b)

Soap & water hand washing signs

c)

PPE required to enter room

d)

Terminal bleach cleaning

48.

What are the two most common transmission pathways of Clostridium botulinum?

a)

Fecal-oral

b)

Aedes mosquito

c)

Food-borne (unprocessed honey, Chipotle, dented cans)

d)

Wound contamination

49.

A gram stain reports racket shaped Gram positive anaerobes with heat stable spores. What pathogen do you expect?

a)

Streptococcus aureus

b)

Clostridioides tetani

c)

Actinomyces

d)

Clostridium tetani

50.

Match the following pathogens to their correct clinical syndrome:

a)

Staphylococcus auricularis - Impetigo

b)

Parainfluenza - croup

c)

Clostridium perfringens - gas gangrene

d)

Clostridioides tetani - non-native valvular endocarditis

51.

In which of the following circumstances would Cutibacterium be worrying?

a)

Stool sample in a patient with impacted bowel

b)

Expecting mother expected to deliver within a day

c)

Prosthetic joint replacement

d)

Nosocomial-onset meningitis

52.

Which of the following Gram stains is incorrectly matched?

a)

Acid fast - clear

b)

Gram positive - pink

c)

Gram positive - purple

d)

Gram negative - pink