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Pantheon of Serv Safe Managers(WARNING: ACTUALLY IMPOSSIBLE)

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 7hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

High-risk populations for getting foodborne illness include preschool-age children, people with compromised immune systems, and people who

a)

are elderly.

b)

work in the restaurant industry.

c)

have broken bones.

d)

work in agriculture with animals.

2.

Which is a case of cross-contamination?

a)

Bun touches surface where raw burgers were prepared.

b)

Wiping cloth is tucked in the apron of a worker.

c)

Food is not cooled correctly.

d)

Server sneezes on food

3.

Which employee attribute is a challenge to food safety?

a)

Educated

b)

Age

c)

Culture

d)

Gender

4.

A foodborne illness is considered an outbreak when two or more people

a)

have the same symptoms of illness after eating the same food, confirmed by a laboratory.

b)

become ill after eating at the same restaurant., confirmed by the staff.

c)

have the same symptoms of illness after eating at the same restaurant, confirmed by the manager.

d)

become ill after eating the same food, confirmed by each other.

5.

What is a potential cost of a foodborne-illness outbreak to an operation?

a)

Increased insurance premiums

b)

Increased customer sales

c)

Heightened reputation

d)

Heightened staff morale

6.

TCS food is food that

a)

requires time and temperature control for safety.

b)

has been processed in a manufacturing plant.

c)

is packaged using only reduced-oxygen packaging.

d)

must be frozen for safety.

7.

What is an example of a physical contaminant?

a)

Toothpicks

b)

Pathogens

c)

Sanitizers

d)

Toxins

8.

Why is TCS food likely to become unsafe?

a)

Pathogens grow well in it.

b)

Pests are more attracted to it.

c)

It contains chemical contaminants.

d)

It doesn't come from approved suppliers.

9.

What is a potential cost that a foodborne illness brings to an operation?

a)

Lawsuits and legal fees

b)

Increased building rent

c)

Increased tax rates

d)

Pest control issues

10.

A foodborne-illness outbreak is confirmed by

a)

a regulatory authority.

b)

the National Restaurant Association.

c)

an operation's manager.

d)

the local hospital staff.

11.

What is the manager of an operation responsible for monitoring?

a)

Staff handwashing practices

b)

Inspection of manufacturers' facilities

c)

Creation of national standards for safety procedures

d)

Actions of the regulatory agency

12.

When raw meat juices drip onto cooked or ready-to-eat food, it can make food unsafe in what way?

a)

Cross-contamination

b)

Time-temperature abuse

c)

Poor personal hygiene

d)

Poor cleaning and sanitizing

13.

Why does staff turnover present a challenge to food safety training?

a)

More time has to be spent in job training, so there is less time available for food safety training.

b)

Novice employees are uninterested in learning about foodborne illnesses.

c)

Food safety rules are changing too quickly to bother training employees who are expected to leave.

d)

Operations with high staff turnover rates are not expected to train staff about food safety.

14.

Why are people undergoing chemotherapy at high risk for foodborne illness?

a)

They have compromised immune systems.

b)

Their diets are composed of more processed food.

c)

Their diets are composed of more types of TCS food.

d)

They are more likely to have allergic reactions.

15.

Customers contract a foodborne illness from a salad. What is a possible biological contaminant in the food?

a)

Nontyphoidal Salmonella

b)

Dirt

c)

Sanitizers

d)

Utensils

16.

What is a characteristic of TCS food items?

a)

They need time and temperature control to limit the growth of bacteria.

b)

They lack oxygen

c)

They have a low moisture level.

d)

They have high acidic levels.

17.

How can an operation prevent foodborne illness from molds and yeasts?

a)

Food handlers should wash their hands before cooking food with molds and yeasts

b)

Cook food with molds and yeasts to the correct time-temperature requirements.

c)

Throw out food containing mold and yeast.

d)

Freeze food with molds and yeasts overnight.

18.

Which bacteria can contaminate meat during slaughtering?

a)

Shiga toxinproducing E. coli

b)

Salmonella Typhi

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Norovirus

19.

How can an operation control the growth of bacteria?

a)

Limit the time food spends in the temperature danger zone

b)

Keep food temperatures between 70F and 125F ?(21C and 52?C).

c)

Limit the time food spends in the lag phase.

d)

Keep food in the stationary phase as long as possible.

20.

Salmonella Typhi lives only in

a)

humans

b)

dirt

c)

Water

d)

cattle.

21.

How can foodborne illnesses caused by parasites best be prevented?

a)

Purchase products from approved suppliers.

b)

Sanitize all food contact surfaces after prepping TCS food.

c)

Keep food handlers with colds out of the operation.

d)

Exclude staff who have jaundice from the operation.

22.

What is the most important prevention method taken by an operation to avoid seafood toxins?

a)

Purchase seafood from approved, reputable suppliers.

b)

Monitor seafood deliveries for toxic smells.

c)

Wash seafood before reparation for cooking.

d)

Taste seafood before serving to customers.

23.

How can hepatitis A and norovirus gastroenteritis be prevented?

a)

Practicing Personal Hygiene

b)

Cooking at normal temperatures.

c)

Disposing of damaged canned food

d)

Controlling flies inside and outside

24.

Conditions for prime bacterial growth can be remembered by which acronym?

a)

FAT TOM

b)

FIFO

c)

OSHA

d)

MSDS

25.

Jaundice is directly related to foodborne illness and a symptom of this condition is?

a)

yellowing of the skin.

b)

hives on the skin.

c)

coughing and itchy throat.

d)

abdominal cramps.

26.

Salmonella Typhi is commonly linked with which type of food?

a)

Raw

b)

Ready-to-eat

c)

Frozen

d)

Vacuum-packed

27.

Cooking ground beef to its required internal temperature helps to prevent the growth of which pathogen?

a)

Shiga toxin-producing E. coli

b)

Salmonella Typhi

c)

Bacillus cereus

d)

Shigella spp

28.

How can an operation best protect food from physical contamination?

a)

Store food away from prep areas.

b)

Purchase food from an approved, reputable supplier.

c)

Use kitchenware made of pewter, copper, or zinc.

d)

Wash hands correctly.

29.

How can kitchen staff avoid cross-contact?

a)

Wash hands and change gloves before prepping food.

b)

Prep food for people with food allergies on the same cutting board as other food.

c)

Wash, rinse, and sanitize equipment at the end of each shift.

d)

Provide one set of utensils for all the food on a buffet table.

30.

A physical contaminant of a cherry pie could be

a)

a copper pie pan

b)

the sugar in the filling

c)

the butter in the crust

d)

a cherry pit

31.

What role does the kitchen staff have in preventing allergic reactions?

a)

Ensuring that there is no cross-contact of allergens

b)

Not using allergens as ingredients

c)

Not purchasing allergens from suppliers

d)

Ensuring that all food be delivered together

32.

The L in the A.L.E.R.T. tool created by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) stands for

a)

look, or monitor the security of products in the facility.

b)

log, or report information about the security of food products.

c)

lend, or extend the use of storage areas to other operations.

d)

license, or give all employees access to prep areas.

33.

In the FDA's ALERT tool, what does the R refer to?

a)

Report information in receiving logs, files, and other documentation.

b)

Remember to communicate with customers.

c)

Review the list of symptoms from biological, chemical, or physical contamination.

d)

Read all bulletins and postings regarding contamination.

34.

Which food is most likely to cause an allergic reaction?

a)

Peanut butter

b)

Porkchop

c)

Green beans

d)

Applesauce

35.

Managers should know that allergy symptoms

a)

Vary from very mild to potentially life-threatening.

b)

Are usually so mild that no medical treatment is needed.

c)

Always occur immediately after consuming the food.

d)

Typically include fever, paralysis, and mental coma.

36.

What is the safest material for a stockpot that will be used to make tomato sauce?

a)

Stainless steel

b)

Copper

c)

Zinc

d)

Painted ceramic

37.

Using the same knife to slice Italian bread and wheat bread without cleaning and sanitizing the knife between uses could result in

a)

cross-contamination

b)

cross-contact

c)

cross-content

d)

cross-connection

38.

If a foodservice operation has a "secret ingredient" in one of its dishes, what must the staff do?

a)

Make sure they know the exact ingredients in case of possible food allergies.

b)

Post a flyer with the recipe's ingredients so that customers can easily access the information.

c)

Inform the local health inspector if any customer has adverse reactions to the dish.

d)

File the recipe with the local regulatory authority.

39.

Physical contaminants are most likely to cause which symptom?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Vomiting

c)

Nausea

d)

Jaundice

40.

The best way to protect food from deliberate contamination is to

a)

make it very difficult to tamper with it.

b)

avoid deliveries after regular hours.

c)

serve limited types of food on the menu.

d)

watch the news for reports of terrorist activity.

41.

What should food handlers do as soon as they realize they are sick while working?

a)

Take off their aprons and go home.

b)

Report the illness to the manager or supervisor.

c)

Finish the job they are doing and then clock out.

d)

Call a doctor and schedule an appointment.

42.

Some regulatory authorities allow food handlers to drink from

a)

a covered container while in prep and dishwashing areas.

b)

a can while in prep and dishwashing areas.

c)

an open bottle while in prep and dishwashing areas.

d)

an open plastic cup while in prep and dishwashing areas.

43.

Why should food handlers refrain from wearing nail polish?

a)

It can disguise dirt hiding under the fingernails.

b)

It can rip gloves.

c)

It can cause the nail to break.

d)

It cannot be worn with? single-use gloves.

44.

Before food handlers who have had vomiting and diarrhea can return to work, they must have had no symptoms for at least 24 hours or have

a)

a written release from a medical practitioner.

b)

avoided contact with any high-risk population.

c)

been reported directly to the regulatory authority.

d)

verbal approval from the regulatory authority.

45.

What is the final step in the handwashing process?

a)

Drying hands and arms using a single-use paper towel or hand dryer

b)

Applying enough soap to work up a good amount of lather

c)

Scrubbing hands and arms vigorously

d)

Wetting hands and arms under running water at least 100F (38C)

46.

Food handlers should never handle ready-to-eat food with bare hands when serving

a)

high-risk populations.

b)

those with infected wounds.

c)

local regulatory agencies.

d)

fellow staff members in the kitchen.

47.

For food safety, infected wounds must be covered

a)

to prevent pathogens from contaminating food.

b)

to make them heal faster.

c)

to enable the food handler to work quicker.

d)

to prevent the infection from getting worse.

48.

Nail polish is allowed by some regulatory authorities as long as the food handler

a)

promises to keep dirt from under nails.

b)

wears single-use gloves.

c)

guarantees the polish will not flake off.

d)

wears only one coat of polish.

49.

What foodborne-illness diagnosis requires that a food handler be excluded from the operation and that the food handler's medical practitioner and the local regulatory authority decide when the person can go back to work?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Jaundice

c)

AIDS

d)

Streptococcus

50.

Who makes the final decision on how to respond to food-handler illness?

a)

Local regulatory authority

b)

Food operation manager

c)

Food handler

d)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

51.

Which is a food safety issue that may result from food handlers wearing dirty uniforms?

a)

Dirty clothing may carry pathogens that can cause foodborne illness.

b)

Dirty clothing on one food handler can set a bad example for others.

c)

Dirty clothing is not as fashionable as clean clothing.

d)

Dirty clothing may become a chemical contaminant.

52.

What is an allowable type of jewelry for food handlers to wear?

a)

Plain band rings

b)

Diamond engagement rings

c)

Medical bracelets

d)

Dangling earrings

53.

What symptom indicates a possible risk of contamination if the person is working around food?

a)

Sore throat with fever

b)

Chest pain with shortness of breath

c)

Fatigue with backache

d)

Muscle pain with headache

54.

Which location of wound requires an impermeable cover?

a)

Leg

b)

Neck

c)

Hand

d)

Face

55.

Where is it allowable for food handlers to eat, drink, smoke, or chew gum or tobacco?

a)

In designated areas away from prep areas

b)

In expediting areas of the kitchen

c)

In prep? areas, but only when on a break

d)

In the back of the house only

56.

What must food handlers do immediately after their break upon returning to the kitchen/prep area?

a)

Wash their hands correctly

b)

Get back to work

c)

Note time of return

d)

Change their uniform

57.

What is the minimum length of time that hands and arms should be scrubbed while handwashing?

a)

15-20 seconds

b)

5 seconds

c)

10-15 seconds

d)

5-10 seconds

58.

Hand antiseptics must be in compliance with the Code of Federal Regulations and the

a)

Federal Emergency Management Agency.

b)

Environmental Protection Agency.

c)

Food and Drug Administration.

d)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

59.

Food handlers must change their gloves when

a)

changing from handling raw to ready-to-eat food.

b)

hands begin to feel tired or warm.

c)

30 minutes have passed on the clock.

d)

combining ready-to-eat food in a dish that will be cooked.

60.

Which is an allowable accessory for a food handler to wear?

a)

Clean hat

b)

Diamond ring

c)

Medical bracelets

d)

Watch

61.

To find out whether or not an operation is allowed to practice bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food, the manager should check

a)

local regulatory requirements.

b)

manufacturer's labels.

c)

ALERT.

d)

ADA rules and regulations.

62.

Which techniques should be followed when putting on gloves?

a)

Hold gloves by the edge when putting them on.

b)

Choose large, loose-fitting gloves so they won't get uncomfortable.

c)

Blow into gloves to make them easier to put on.

d)

Roll gloves to make them easier to put on.

63.

What must food handlers do before they start to work their shift?

a)

Wash their hands correctly

b)

Wipe equipment with clean cloths

c)

Take out the garbage

d)

Clear tables of any used dishes

64.

A carrier is someone who

a)

transmits a pathogen to others without ever getting sick.

b)

calls in sick to work due to an upper respiratory illness.

c)

models correct behavior for food handlers.

d)

intentionally and maliciously violates contamination standards.

65.

Use hand antiseptics only

a)

after handwashing.

b)

after counting money.

c)

after prepping TCS food.

d)

after using the restroom.

66.

Why must food handlers remove jewelry from hands and arms before prepping food?

a)

It can fall off and become a physical contaminant.

b)

Metals in the jewelry can react with food.

c)

Too much jewelry can look unattractive.

d)

Jewelry is not part of company-issued uniforms.

67.

Which type of probe would be used to check the temperature inside coolers and ovens?

a)

Penetration

b)

Surface

c)

Immersion

d)

Air

68.

Why do glass thermometers require special care when being handled?

a)

They are relatively fragile and can become a physical contaminant if they break.

b)

They can lose accuracy if held horizontally.

c)

They are no longer being manufactured and so they are extremely expensive to replace.

d)

They can lose accuracy if they come into contact with aluminum.

69.

When different types of food must be prepped on the same table, which of these types of food should be prepped first to minimize the risk of cross-contamination?

a)

Ready-to-eat food

b)

Raw meat

c)

Shellfish

d)

Raw poultry

70.

Where is a time-temperature indicator (TTI) most commonly found?

a)

Glued to the underside of a serving pan

b)

Attached to the packaging of a food shipment

c)

Hanging on a wall in the prep area

d)

Affixed to the side of a microwave or oven

71.

When using the ice-point method to calibrate a thermometer, what should the temperature reading be set to?

a)

30F(-1C)

b)

32F (0C)

c)

42F (6C)

d)

0F (-18C)

72.

When using the boiling-point method for calibration, what is the first step of the process?

a)

Put the thermometer stem or probe into the water.

b)

Bring clean tap water to a boil in a deep pan.

c)

Adjust the head of the thermometer until it reads 212F (100C).

d)

Hold the stem or probe in water for at least 30 seconds.

73.

TCS food has been time-temperature abused anytime it remains between

a)

32F (0C) and 40F(4C).

b)

136F (58C) and 200F (93C).

c)

0F (18C) and 31F (1C).

d)

41F (5C) and 135F (57C).

74.

Which is a strategy for reducing the risk of cross-contamination?

a)

Frequently wiping cutting boards with paper towels

b)

Buying prepared food

c)

Prepping food early in the day

d)

Buying organic produce

75.

What should be used to check the internal temperature of thin food, such as meat or fish patties?

a)

Miniature thermister diode

b)

Penetration probe

c)

Time-temperature indicator

d)

Glass thermometer

76.

Which is a strategy for reducing the risk of time-temperature abuse?

a)

Hold TCS food at room temperature for at least four hours.

b)

Cook raw meat and poultry to at least 100 F (38 C).

c)

Limit the amount of TCS food that can be removed from a cooler when prepping it.

d)

Select one type of thermometer and use it for all types of food.

77.

The most important tool to have in preventing time-temperature abuse is a:

a)

Clock

b)

thermometer

c)

set of gloves

d)

notebook

78.

Which preparation method will best help to prevent cross-contamination?

a)

Rinsing prep knives after prepping raw food and before prepping ready-to-eat food

b)

Using separate cutting boards for raw and ready-to-eat food

c)

Placing ready-to-eat food in containers that also hold raw food

d)

Prepping raw and ready-to-eat food on the same prep table

79.

How should the temperature of a steak on a grill be taken?

a)

Insert the probe into the thinnest part of the steak.

b)

Place the probe under the steak.

c)

Insert the probe into the thickest part of the steak.

d)

Place the probe on top of the steak.

80.

Which thermometer does not have to touch the surface of food to check the temperature accurately?

a)

Infrared or laser

b)

Time-temperature indicator

c)

Bimetallic stemmed thermometer

d)

Immersion probe

81.


Which thermometer has a dimple on it to indicate the end of the temperature-sensing area?

a)

Bimetallic stemmed thermometer

b)

Penetration probe

c)

Thermocouple

d)

Time-temperature indicator

82.

Suppliers' inspection reports should be based on

a)

Graded Management Policies (GMP) or General Availability Practices (GAP)

b)

Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) or Good Agricultural Practices (GAP)

c)

Graded Meat Packing (GMP) or Graded Agricultural Packing (GAP)

d)

Good Marketing Practices (GMP) or Good Advertising Practices (GAP)

83.

When a food item shows signs of thawing and refreezing, that generally indicates that it has

a)

been time-temperature abused

b)

gone past its expiration date.

c)

lost its label or content information.

d)

been attacked by a variety of pests.

84.

What is a key drop delivery?

a)

A delivery that the supplier drops off outside the operation.

b)

A delivery made after hours when the operation is closed.

c)

A delivery made first thing in the morning when an operation opens.

d)

A delivery made when an operation is busy and does not have time to inspect the food.

85.

When checking the temperature of reduced oxygen packaged (ROP) and bulk food, it is important not to

a)

puncture or damage the package.

b)

fold the package around the probe.

c)

let the stem or probe touch the package.

d)

insert the probe between the two packages.

86.

Which food items have to maintain an internal temperature no greater than 50F (10C) when received?

a)

Live shellfish

b)

Shell eggs

c)

Frozen food items

d)

Shucked shellfish

87.

What type of special documentation is needed with fish that will be eaten raw or partially cooked?

a)

Ways to cook it so that it will be safe to eat

b)

Proof it was frozen correctly before it was received

c)

Directions on how to farm raise fish

d)

Details about the FDA standards regarding the sale of fish