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WorksheetsTE 4 Mock 3 - SS1
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following statements related to why the GIPS standards were created is least likely correct? GIPS standards were created to:
a)
A. provide clients certainty in what is presented and allow them to make reasonable comparisons.
b)
B. identify a set of ethical principles for firms to follow in calculating and presenting historical investment results.
c)
C. establish a standardized, industry wide approach for investment firms to follow.
2.
Colleen O’Neil, CFA, manages a private investment fund with a balanced global investment mandate. Her clients insist that her personal investment portfolio replicate the investments within their portfolio to ensure them that she is willing to put her money at risk. By undertaking which of the following simultaneous investment actions for her own portfolio would O’Neil most likely be in violation of Standard VI(B)–Priority of Transactions?
a)
A. Sale of a listed US blue chip value stock.
b)
B. Participation in a popular frontier market IPO.
c)
C. Purchase of a UK government bond in the primary market.
3.
Which of the following statements related to requirements for the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct Standard V(B)–Communication with Clients and Prospective Clients is least likely accurate? The standard requires members and candidates to:
a)
A. divulge the number of investment related personnel responsible for external communication.
b)
B. disclose the basic format and general principles of the investment process.
c)
C. distinguish between fact and opinion in the presentation of investment analysis and recommendations.
4.
G&F Advisors claims compliance with the Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS) in its marketing materials. The compliant presentation includes a footnote which indicates that the firm has been verified by an independent third party. An additional note states that G&F is in compliance with the GIPS standards except for its private equity investments. Is it likely that G&F violated the GIPS standards?
a)
A. No, because the footnotes meet the requirements of the Standards.
b)
B. No, because the provisions do not apply to the private equity investments.
c)
C. Yes, because they cannot claim compliance unless all requirements of the Standard are met.
5.
Scott works for a regional brokerage firm. He estimates that Walkton Industries will increase its dividend by US$1.50 a share during the next year. He realizes that this increase is contingent on pending legislation that would, if enacted, give Walkton a substantial tax break. The US representative for Walkton’s home district has told Scott that, although she is lobbying hard for the bill and prospects for its passage are favorable, concern of the US Congress over the federal deficit could cause the tax bill to be voted down. Walkton Industries has not made any statements about a change in dividend policy. Scott writes in his research report, “We expect Walkton’s stock price to rise by at least US$8.00 a share by the end of the year because the dividend will increase by US$1.50 a share. Investors buying the stock at the current time should expect to realize a total return of at least 15% on the stock.” According to the Standards:
a)
A. Scott violated the Standards because he used material inside information.
b)
B. Scott violated the Standards because he failed to separate opinion from fact.
c)
C. Scott violated the Standards by basing his research on uncertain predictions of future government action.
6.
Townsend was recently appointed to the board of directors of a youth golf program that is the local chapter of a national not-for-profit organization. The program is beginning a new fund-raising campaign to expand the number of annual scholarships it provides. Townsend believes many of her clients make annual donations to charity. The next week in her regular newsletter to all clients, she includes a small section discussing the fund-raising campaign and her position on the organization’s board.
a)
A. Townsend did not violate the Code and Standards.
b)
B. Townsend violated the Code and Standards by soliciting donations from her clients through the newsletter.
c)
C. Townsend violated the Code and Standards by not getting approval of the organization before soliciting her clients.
7.
For firms to claim compliance with the GIPS standards they most likely must:
a)
A. take responsibility for their claim of compliance and maintaining that compliance.
b)
B. hire an independent third party to test a sample of their composites.
c)
C. increase the consistency and quality of the firm’s compliant presentations.
8.
A CFA Institute member would violate the standard for material nonpublic information by:
a)
A. conducting price distortion practices.
b)
B. inappropriately causing others to act.
c)
C. inadequately maintaining investment records.
9.
The Standards of Practice Handbook provides guidance:
a)
A. regarding the penalties incurred as a result of ethical violations.
b)
B. to which all CFA Institute members and candidates must adhere.
c)
C. through explanatory material and examples intended to be all inclusive.
10.
An investment banking department of a brokerage firm often receives material nonpublic information that could have considerable value if used in advising the firm’s brokerage clients. In order to conform to the Code and Standards, which one of the following is the best policy for the brokerage firm?
a)
A. Permanently prohibit both “buy” and “sell” recommendations of the stocks of clients of the investment banking department.
b)
B. Establish physical and informational barriers within the firm to prevent the exchange of information between the investment banking and brokerage operations.
c)
C. Monitor the exchange of information between the investment banking department and the brokerage operation.
11.
How does ethical conduct most likely compare with what is legally required?
a)
A. Ethical conduct goes beyond what is legally required.
b)
B. There are no differences between the two; they are the same.
c)
C. Doing what is legally required removes the need for ethical conduct.
12.
When Abdullah Younis, CFA, was hired as a portfolio manager at an asset management firm two years ago and was told he could allocate his work hours as he saw fit. At that time, Younis served on the board of three nonpublic golf equipment companies and managed a pooled investment fund for several members of his immediate family. Younis was not compensated for his board service or for managing the pooled fund. Younis’ investment returns attract interest from friends and co-workers who persuade him to include their assets in his investment pool. Younis recently retired from all board responsibilities and now spends more than 80% of his time managing the investment pool for which he charges non-family members a management fee. Younis has never told his employer about any of these activities. To comply with the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct with regards to his business activities over the past two years, Younis would least likely be required to disclose which of the following to his employer?
a)
A. Board activities
b)
B. Family investment pool management
c)
C. Non-family member management fees
13.
Which one of the following actions will help to ensure the fair treatment of brokerage firm clients when a new investment recommendation is made?
a)
A. Informing all people in the firm in advance that a recommendation is to be disseminated.
b)
B. Distributing recommendations to institutional clients prior to individual accounts.
c)
C. Minimizing the time between the decision and the dissemination of a recommendation.
14.
To comply with the GIPS standards, firms most likely must:
a)
A. apply standards on a firm-wide basis.
b)
B. be verified before they can claim compliance.
c)
C. be defined as separate legal entities.
15.
Smith is a financial analyst with XYZ Brokerage Firm. She is preparing a purchase recommendation on JNI Corporation. Which of the following situations is most likely to represent a conflict of interest for Smith that would have to be disclosed?
a)
A. Smith frequently purchases items produced by JNI.
b)
B. XYZ holds for its own account a substantial common stock position in JNI.
c)
C. Smith’s brother-in-law is a supplier to JNI.
16.
Which of the following is not a component of the CFA Institute Code of Ethics?
a)
A. Promote financial integrity and seek to prevent and punish abuses in the financial markets.
b)
B. Place the integrity of the investment profession and the interests of clients above their own personal interests.
c)
C. Practice and encourage others to practice in a professional and ethical manner that will reflect credit on themselves and the profession.
17.
Sheila Schleif, CFA, is an equity analyst at an investment banking division of Mokara Financial Group, a full service financial group. Schleif uses a multi-factor computer model to make stock recommendations for all clients of Mokara. Schleif discovers that the model contains an error. If the error were corrected, her most recent buy recommendation communicated to all clients would change to a sell. Schleif corrects the error, changing the buy to a sell recommendation, and then simultaneously distributes via e-mail the revision to all investment banking clients who received the initial recommendation. A week later, Schleif sells the same shares she held in her personal portfolio. Concerning her actions, Schleif most likely violated which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Fair Dealing
b)
B. Priority of Transactions
c)
C. Diligence and Reasonable Basis
18.
Brown works for an investment counseling firm. Green, a new client of the firm, is meeting with Brown for the first time. Green used another counseling firm for financial advice for years, but she has switched her account to Brown’s firm. After spending a few minutes getting acquainted, Brown explains to Green that she has discovered a highly undervalued stock that offers large potential gains. She recommends that Green purchase the stock. Brown has committed a violation of the Standards. What should she have done differently?
a)
A. Brown should have determined Green’s needs, objectives, and tolerance for risk before making a recommendation of any type of security.
b)
B. Brown should have thoroughly explained the characteristics of the company to Green, including the characteristics of the industry in which the company operates.
c)
C. Brown should have explained her qualifications, including her education, training, and experience and the meaning of the CFA designation.
19.
According to the Fundamentals of Compliance section of the Global Investment Performance Standards, issues that a firm must consider when claiming compliance include all of the following except:
a)
A. replicating performance.
b)
B. properly defining the firm.
c)
C. documenting firm policies and procedures used in establishing and maintaining compliance with the Standards.
20.
Mailaka Securities (MS) advertises the use of a “bottom up” investment style in its marketing material. Recently, MS senior management decided to switch to a “top down” approach, citing the fact that it is less labor intensive. All other aspects of the research process are to remain the same. The head of research at MS, Mara Cherogony, CFA, is instructed to supervise the implementation of the new procedures, notify clients of the changes, and revise the text of marketing materials when new material is produced. Which of the following CFA Standards pertaining to Investment Analysis, Recommendations, and Actions is Cherogony least likely in danger of violating?
a)
A. Supervisory Responsibility
b)
B. Communication with Clients
c)
C. Diligence and Reasonable Basis
21.
Pietro, president of Local Bank, has hired the bank’s market maker, Vogt, to seek a merger partner. Local is currently not listed on a stock exchange and has not reported that it is seeking strategic alternatives. Vogt has discussed the possibility of a merger with several firms, but they have all decided to wait until after the next period’s financial data are available. The potential buyers believe the results will be worse than the results of prior periods and will allow them to pay less for Local Bank. Pietro wants to increase the likelihood of structuring a merger deal quickly. Which of the following actions would most likely be a violation of the Code and Standards?
a)
A. Pietro could instruct Local Bank to issue a press release announcing that it has retained Vogt to find a merger partner.
b)
B. Pietro could place a buy order for 2,000 shares (or four times the average weekly volume) through Vogt for his personal account.
c)
C. After confirming with Local’s chief financial officer, Pietro could instruct Local to issue a press release reaffirming the firm’s prior announced earnings guidance for the full fiscal year.
22.
Reliable Data Corp offered to pay all the expenses of Lindsey Robinson, CFA, an equity analyst who covers the company, to attend the company’s upcoming annual shareholder meeting. Robinson declined their offer and explained to the company that if she had accepted their offer she would most likely be in violation of:
a)
A. Standard I–Professionalism
b)
B. Standard II–Integrity of Capital Markets
c)
C. Standard III–Conflicts of Interest
23.
What is most likely a critical aspect of the Consider phase of an ethical decision-making framework?
a)
A. Distinguishing duties to stakeholders
b)
B. Contemplating your decision
c)
C. Seeking additional guidance
24.
According to the Duties to Clients standard, suitability requires members and candidates in an advisory relationship with a client to:
a)
A. place their clients’ interests before their own interests.
b)
B. consider investments in the context of the client’s total portfolio.
c)
C. not knowingly make misrepresentations relating to recommendations.
25.
Marc Davidson, CFA, works as a trust specialist for Integrity Financial. On his own time, Davidson starts a part time consulting business providing advice to Trustees for a fee. Since this is only part time work, he doesn't inform Integrity of the consulting business. Davidson asks his assistant to compile a list of Integrity’s clients and their contact information. The following month, Davidson is offered a similar role at Integrity’s largest competitor, Legacy Trust Services, Inc. After he begins working at Legacy, his new manager arranges for him to meet with a number of prospective clients, many of whom are clients of Integrity. After meeting with Davidson, a number of former Integrity clients decide to transfer their business to Legacy. Did Davidson’s action violate the Code and Standards?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, Davidson’s part time consulting business is a violation of the Standards.
c)
C. Yes, both Davidson’s part time consulting business and his meetings with Integrity clients are a violation of the Standards.
26.
Decision makers who use a compliance approach are most likely to:
a)
A. avoid situational influences.
b)
B. oversimplify decision making.
c)
C. consider more factors than when using an ethical decision-making approach.
27.
Florence Zuelekha, CFA, is an equity portfolio manager at Grid Equity Management (GEM), a firm specializing in commodities. Zuelekha, who previously focused on alternative energy, recently attends her first commodity conference, sponsored in large part by GEM. Independent industry experts argued that commodities would increase in value and recommended that investors hold at least 10% of their portfolio assets in commodities based on consistent increases in their values over the previous two years. Without doing any additional research, Zuelekha recommends to all her clients an immediate allocation of 5% of their portfolio into commodities. Over the next few weeks, Zuelekha moves her own portfolio to a 10% commodity allocation. Which of the CFA Standards did Zuelekha most likely violate?
a)
A. Priority of Transactions.
b)
B. Independence and Objectivity.
c)
C. Diligence and a Reasonable Basis.
28.
a)
A. operating profit margin.
b)
B. net profit margin.
c)
C. gross profit margin.
29.
Once an investor chooses a particular course of action, the value forgone from alternative actions is best described as a(n):
a)
A. sunk cost.
b)
B. required return.
c)
C. opportunity cost
30.
Providing information about the performance and financial position of companies so that users can make economic decisions best describes the role of:
a)
A. auditing.
b)
B. financial reporting.
c)
C. financial statement analysis.
31.
If there is a policy rate of 3%, a real trend rate of growth in the underlying economy of 1%, and long-run expected inflation of 3%, then the central bank policy stance operating within a credible inflation-targeting regime is best described as:
a)
A. neutral.
b)
B. contractionary.
c)
C. expansionary.
32.
Which of the following is most likely to be a characteristic of a Giffen good? Its:
a)
A. substitution effect is negative.
b)
B. demand curve slopes upward.
c)
C. income effect is negative.
33.
Which of the following is a Type I error?
a)
A. Rejecting a true null hypothesis
b)
B. Rejecting a false null hypothesis
c)
C. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis
34.
An executive from Switzerland checked into a hotel room in Spain and was told by the hotel manager that 1 EUR will buy 1.2983 CHF. From the executive’s perspective, an indirect exchange rate quote would be:
a)
A. 0.7702 EUR per CHF.
b)
B. 0.7702 CHF per EUR.
c)
C. 1.2983 EUR per CHF.
35.
From the beginning to the ending years of a decade, the annual value of final goods and services for country X increased from €100 billion to €300 billion. Over that time period, the GDP deflator increased from 111 to 200. Over the decade, real GDP for country X increased by approximately:
a)
A. 50%.
b)
B. 67%.
c)
C. 200%.
36.
A Monte Carlo simulation can be used to:
a)
A. directly provide precise valuations of call options.
b)
B. simulate a process from historical records of returns.
c)
C. test the sensitivity of a model to changes in assumptions.
37.
a)
A. $25,900.
b)
B. $46,300.
c)
C. $62,500.
38.
Which of the following organizations helps to keep global systemic risk under control by preventing contagion in scenarios such as the 2010 Greek sovereign debt crisis?
a)
A. World Bank Group (World Bank).
b)
B. World Trade Organization (WTO).
c)
C. International Monetary Fund (IMF).
39.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate description of gross domestic product (GDP)?
a)
A. The total income earned by all households, firms, and the government whose value can be verified.
b)
B. The total amount spent on all final goods and services produced within the economy over a given time period.
c)
C. The total market value of resalable and final goods and services produced within the economy over a given time period.
40.
For the positively skewed unimodal distribution, which of the followings is correct
a)
A. mode ≤ median ≤ mean
b)
B. mode < median < mean
c)
C. mean < median < mode
41.
Which of the following events can be represented as a Bernoulli trial?
a)
A. The flip of a coin
b)
B. The closing price of a stock
c)
C. The picking of a random integer between 1 and 10
42.
In contrast to normal distributions, lognormal distributions:
a)
A. are skewed to the left.
b)
B. have outcomes that cannot be negative.
c)
C. are more suitable for describing asset returns than asset prices.
43.
a)
A. the same distribution as the population distribution.
b)
B. its mean approximately equal to the population mean.
c)
C. its variance approximately equal to the population variance.
44.
By definition, the probability of any Event E is a number between
a)
A. zero and positive infinity
b)
B. minus one and positive one
c)
C. zero and positive one
45.
A company incurs a capital expenditure that may be amortized over five years for accounting purposes, but over four years for tax purposes. The company will most likely record:
a)
A. a deferred tax asset.
b)
B. a deferred tax liability.
c)
C. no deferred tax asset or liability.
46.
Two events A and B are independent if the probability of occurrence of A:
a)
A. equals the product of the individual probabilities of occurrence of A and B
b)
B. is related to the occurrence of B.
c)
C. does not affect the probability of occurrence of B
47.
In a period of declining inventory unit costs and constant or increasing inventory quantities, which inventory method is most likely to result in a higher debt-to-equity ratio?
a)
A. LIFO
b)
B. FIFO
c)
C. Weighted average cost
48.
For a sample size of 65 with a mean of 31 taken from a normally distributed population with a variance of 529, a 99% confidence interval for the population mean will have a lower limit closest to:
a)
A. 23.64.
b)
B. 25.41.
c)
C. 30.09.
49.
Over the past 240 months, an investor’s portfolio had a mean monthly return of 0.79%, with a standard deviation of monthly returns of 1.16%. According to Chebyshev’s inequality, the minimum number of the 240 monthly returns that fall into the range of −0.95% to 2.53% is closest to:
a)
A. 80
b)
B. 107
c)
C. 133
50.
A company’s financial position would best be evaluated using the:
a)
A. balance sheet.
b)
B. income statement.
c)
C. statement of cash flows.
51.
a)
A. 125,000.
b)
B. 150,000.
c)
C. 168,750.
52.
Mustard Seed PLC adheres to IFRS. It recently purchased inventory for €100 million and spent €5 million for storage prior to selling the goods. The amount it charged to inventory expense (€ millions) was closestto:
a)
A. 95
b)
B. 100
c)
C. 105
53.
When testing a hypothesis, the power of a test is best described as the:
a)
A. same as the level of significance of the test.
b)
B. probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis.
c)
C. probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis.
54.
The minimum rate of return an investor must receive in order to accept an investment is best described as the:
a)
A. internal rate of return
b)
B. required rate of return.
c)
C. expected return.
55.
According to the Heckscher–Ohlin model, when trade opens:
a)
A. the scarce factor gains relative to the abundant factor in each country.
b)
B. the abundant factor gains relative to the scarce factor in each country.
c)
C. income is redistributed between countries but not within each country.
56.
Company A owns 60% of Company B. Company A’s consolidated income statement most likely includes 100% of Company A’s revenues and expenses and what portion of Company B's?
a)
A. 0%
b)
B. 100%
c)
C. 60%
57.
Which of the following best describes a component of the income statement?
a)
A. Amounts that a company owes its vendors for purchases of goods and services
b)
B. Outflows or depletions of assets in the course of a business's activities
c)
C. Obligations from past events that are expected to result in an outflow of economic benefits
58.
a)
A. 0.2
b)
B. 0.35
c)
C. 0.85
59.
Which of the following is the most likely example of a tool of fiscal policy?
a)
A. Public financing of a power plant.
b)
B. Regulation of the payment system.
c)
C. Central bank’s purchase of government bonds.
60.
a)
A. Company B
b)
B. Company C
c)
C. Company A
61.
The tools used by central banks to implement monetary policy most likely include:
a)
A. transfer payments.
b)
B. open market operations.
c)
C. raising or lowering income taxes.
62.
According to IFRS, all of the following pieces of information about property, plant, and equipment must be disclosed in a company’s financial statements and footnotes except for:
a)
A. useful lives.
b)
B. acquisition dates.
c)
C. amount of disposals.
63.
Depreciation expense under which of the following methods is least likely affected by the estimate of the useful life of the asset?
a)
A. Double declining balance method
b)
B. Straight-line method
c)
C. Units-of-production method
64.
With respect to the relationship between output and costs in the short run, a decline in the marginal cost per unit most likely occurs at what level of production?
a)
A. Low output
b)
B. Profit-maximizing output
c)
C. High output
65.
Interest paid is classified as an operating cash flow under:
a)
A. US GAAP but may be classified as either operating or investing cash flows under IFRS.
b)
B. IFRS but may be classified as either operating or investing cash flows under US GAAP.
c)
C. US GAAP but may be classified as either operating or financing cash flows under IFRS.
66.
Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, which of the following changes would most likely cause a simultaneous increase in the participation ratio and a decrease in the unemployment rate?
a)
A. A decrease in the number of unemployed people
b)
B. A decrease in the total population of working-age people
c)
C. An increase in the number of people included in the labor force
67.
a)
A. Add $2 million.
b)
B. Add $6 million.
c)
C. Subtract $6 million.
68.
In order to minimize the foreign exchange exposure on a euro-denominated receivable due from a German company in 100 days, a British company would most likely initiate a:
a)
A. spot transaction.
b)
B. forward contract.
c)
C. real exchange rate contract.
69.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? If the covariance of returns between two assets is 0.0023, then:
a)
A. the assets’ risk is near zero.
b)
B. the asset returns are unrelated.
c)
C. the asset returns have a positive relationship.
70.
a)
A. Quick
b)
B. Current
c)
C. Cash
71.
Which of the following would best explain an increase in receivables turnover?
a)
A. The company adopted new credit policies last year and began offering credit to customers with weak credit histories.
b)
B. Due to problems with an error in its old credit scoring system, the company had accumulated a substantial amount of uncollectible accounts and wrote off a large amount of its receivables.
c)
C. To match the terms offered by its closest competitor, the company adopted new payment terms now requiring net payment within 30 days rather than 15 days, which had been its previous requirement.
72.
Which role is a central bank least likely to assume?
a)
A. Lender of last resort.
b)
B. Sole supervisor of banks.
c)
C. Supplier of the currency.
73.
a)
A. cash ratio.
b)
B. quick ratio.
c)
C. current ratio.
74.
a)
A. $22,819.
b)
B. $27,763.
c)
C. $28,873.
75.
a)
A. just satisfied it.
b)
B. failed to meet it by at least 5%.
c)
C. exceeded it by at least 5%.
76.
Intangible assets with finite useful lives mostly differ from intangible assets with infinite useful lives with respect to accounting treatment of:
a)
A. revaluation.
b)
B. impairment.
c)
C. amortization.
77.
a)
A. €201,747.
b)
B. €203,191.
c)
C. €227,573.
78.
An analyst reviewing a firm with a large reported restructuring charge to earnings should:
a)
A. view expenses reported in prior years as overstated.
b)
B. disregard it because it is solely related to past events.
c)
C. consider making pro forma adjustments to prior years’ earnings.
79.
A profit maximum is least likely to occur when:
a)
A. average total cost is minimized.
b)
B. marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
c)
C. the difference between total revenue and total cost is maximized.
80.
a)
A. Company 3
b)
B. Company 2
c)
C. Company 1
81.
Patent fees and legal services are recorded in which of the following balance of payments components?
a)
A. Capital account.
b)
B. Current account.
c)
C. Financial account.
82.
Which of the following statements best describes a feature of any probability function of a random variable? The probability function:
a)
A. has a value between −1 and +1.
b)
B. has the same value for all outcomes.
c)
C. specifies the likelihood that a particular outcome of a random variable will occur.
83.
A company recently engaged in a non-cash transaction that significantly affected its property, plant, and equipment. The transaction is:
a)
A. reported under the investing section of the cash flow statement.
b)
B. reported differently in cash flow from operations under the direct and indirect methods.
c)
C. disclosed as a separate note or in a supplementary schedule to the cash flow statement.
84.
At the end of the year, a company revalued its manufacturing facilities, increasing their carrying amount by 12%. There had been no prior downward revaluation of these facilities. The revaluation will most likely cause the company’s:
a)
A. return on assets to increase.
b)
B. return on equity to decline.
c)
C. net profit margin to increase.
85.
When screening for potential equity investments based on return on equity, to control risk, an analyst would be most likely to include a criterion that requires:
a)
A. positive net income.
b)
B. negative net income.
c)
C. negative shareholders’ equity.
86.
A country has a comparative advantage in producing a good if:
a)
A. it is able to produce the good at a lower cost than its trading partner.
b)
B. its opportunity cost of producing the good is less than that of its trading partner.
c)
C. its opportunity cost of producing the good is more than that of its trading partner.
87.
When computing net cash flow from operating activities using the indirect method, an addition to net income is most likely to occur when there is a:
a)
A. gain on the sale of an asset.
b)
B. loss on the retirement of debt.
c)
C. decrease in a deferred tax liability.
88.
a)
A. One that uses a current consumption basket
b)
B. One that uses a constant consumption basket
c)
C. One reflecting substitutions made by consumers over time
89.
A cell phone manufacturer has switched to high-margin premium-priced products with the most innovative features as part of its product differentiation strategy. Which of the following other changes is most consistent with this strategy?
a)
A. An increase in inventory levels
b)
B. A decrease in research and development expenditures
c)
C. An increase in advertising expenditures
90.
Disinflation is best described as a:
a)
A. decline in price levels.
b)
B. negative inflation rate.
c)
C. decline in the inflation rate.
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