Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PC Antihypertensives

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with HTN?

a)

previous MI or stroke

b)

Alzheimer's disease

c)

smoking

d)

DM

2.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with HTN?

a)

obesity

b)

anemia

c)

hypercholesterolemia

d)

family history

3.

What happens to the baroreceptors upon BP elevation?

a)

signals the cardiovascular control center to induce bradycardia

b)

signals the parasympathetic system to induce vasodilation

c)

activated and increase the cardiac output

d)

activated and increase the sympathetic outflow

4.

Based on the new guidelines for BP, which of the following is NOT matched correctly?

a)

Normal: less than 120/80

b)

elevated: systolic between 120-129 and diastolic less than 80

c)

stage 1: systolic between 130-139 or diastolic less than 80

d)

stage 2: systolic at least 140 or diastolic at least 90

5.

A patient is diagnosed with high BP by his doctor. His BP is 140/90. The patients falls into which category?

a)

normal

b)

elevated

c)

stage 1

d)

stage 2

6.

Mr. Lee shows up to the emergency room with a BP of 185/125, the test performed showed that he had no signs of progressive end organ injury. Mr. Lee is experiencing

a)

hypertensive urgency

b)

hypertensive emergency

c)

both urgency and emergency

d)

none of these

7.

A patient with HTN should avoid all of the following medications to avoid an increase in BP, except:

a)

corticosteroids

b)

NSAIDs

c)

estrogen

d)

all of these

8.

Which of the following can increase BP?

a)

increase in the cardiac output

b)

increase in the vascular tone

c)

increase in water volume

d)

all of these

9.

What affects mean arterial pressure?

a)

cardiac output

b)

heart rate

c)

total peripheral resistance

d)

cardiac output and total peripheral resistance

10.

Baroreceptors regulate which of the following?

a)

heart rate

b)

total peripheral resistance

c)

cardiac output

d)

all of these

11.

Action potential firing from the baroreceptors is stimulated by:

a)

urine excretion

b)

BP

c)

HR

d)

BP and HR

e)

all of these

12.

Which of the following are used as first line treatment in HTN?

a)

beta blockers

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

ARBs

d)

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

13.

When would you use a beta blocker in HTN management?

a)

specific compelling indication

b)

combination with a first line antihypertensive

c)

use as a first line treatment

d)

specific compelling indication and combination with a first line antihypertensive

14.

Atenolol is selective for

a)

beta 1 receptors

b)

beta 2 receptors

c)

alpha and beta receptors

d)

none of these

15.

Which of the following is an example of a non-selective beta blocker?

a)

nadolol

b)

atenolol

c)

bisoprolol

d)

metoprolol tartrate

16.

Which of the following beta blockers is cardioselective and vasodilatory?

a)

acebutolol

b)

carvedilol

c)

labetolol

d)

nebivolol

17.

Which of the following are mixed alpha and beta receptor blockers?

a)

acebutolol

b)

carvedilol

c)

nebivolol

d)

labetolol

18.

Which beta blocker has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

a)

nevibolol

b)

acebutolol

c)

carvedilol

d)

bisoprolol

19.

What occurs when beta adrenergic agonists bind to beta receptors?

a)

activates adenylyl cyclase and produce cAMP

b)

inhibit adenylyl cyclase and produce AMP

c)

reduce calcium influx

d)

deactivate voltage gated Ca+ channels

20.

All of the following are involved in beta-blockers mechanism, except?

a)

phosphodiesterase inhibitors

b)

B-adrenergic receptor

c)

voltage sensitive slow Ca++ channel

d)

voltage gated K channel

21.

When the B adrenergic agonist binds to its receptor, which of the following enzymes is activated to produce cAMP?

a)

adenylyl cyclase

b)

AMP synthase

c)

phosphodiesterase

d)

protein kinase

22.

The mechanism of beta blockers involves an increase in calcium flow into the cell through

a)

phosphorylation of voltage gated Ca channels

b)

cAMP degradation

c)

phosphorylation of cAMP

d)

phosphorylation of beta adrenergic receptors

23.

What is the final outcome associated with the use of beta adrenoreceptor blockers?

a)

decrease in BP

b)

peripheral vasodilation

c)

increase in BP

d)

peripheral vasoconstriction

24.

Beta-adrenoreceptor blockers:

a)

decrease renin secretion

b)

decrease B1 adrenoreceptors expression in the heart

c)

increase aldosterone secretion

d)

increase blood volume

25.

Beta-blockers inhibit the release of

a)

renin by the kidney

b)

aldosterone by the liver

c)

renin by the liver

d)

erythropoietin by the kidney

26.

Aldosterone affects

a)

potassium and water retention

b)

sodium and water retention

c)

albumin blood concentration

d)

calcium and bone density

27.

Where is angiotensinogen secreted from?

a)

lungs

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

heart

28.

What effects does angiotensin II have on the body?

a)

decreases sympathetic activity

b)

arteriolar vasoconstriction

c)

ADH secretion

d)

aldosterone secretion

29.

Increasing the volume of water in the body will lead to

a)

inhibition of ACE

b)

high BP

c)

more angiotensinogen secretion

d)

none of these

30.

How do you decrease BP by targeting the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system?

a)

inhibits the formation of ACE

b)

inhibit angiotensin II production

c)

inhibit renin

d)

inhibit angiotensin II production and inhibit renin

31.

Which of the following is NOT decreased when using an ACE inhibitor?

a)

production of angiotensin II

b)

bradykinin catabolism

c)

secretion of aldosterone

d)

nitric oxide production

32.

Which of the following stimulates nitric oxide synthase?

a)

renin

b)

bradykinin

c)

aldosterone secretion

d)

angiotensin II

33.

Which of the following are advantages of angiotensin II receptor blockers over ACE inhibitors?

a)

more specific with less adverse effects

b)

does not alter bradykinin catabolism

c)

alters bradykinin catabolism

d)

more potent aldosterone inhibition

34.

The ARBs block the action of angiotensin II at the angiotensin AT2 receptor

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Which of the following is an ARB?

a)

lisinopril

b)

valsartan

c)

amlodipine

d)

irbesartan

36.

Which of the following are ARBs?

a)

candesartan

b)

losartan

c)

olmesartan

d)

lisinopril

37.

Which of the following is an ARB?

a)

trandolapril

b)

lisinopril

c)

eprosartan

d)

quinapril

38.

Which of the following is NOT an ARB?

a)

olmesartan

b)

telmisartan

c)

losartan

d)

moexipril

39.

What is the black box warning for ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

a)

pregnancy

b)

use with MAOIs

c)

children under the age of 8

d)

there is no BBW

40.

Aliskiren should not be used in combination with which of the following medications due to a higher risk of adverse events

a)

ARBs

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

calcium channel blockers

d)

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

41.

Aliskiren's mechanism of action can be described as which of the following?

a)

blocks the binding site of renin

b)

inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

c)

antagonizes angiotensin II receptors

d)

antagonizes calcium channels

42.

ACE inhibitors would be stopped if the patient

a)

is hyperlipidemic

b)

becomes pregnant

c)

is taking an SSRI

d)

is consuming alcohol

43.

Another disadvantage of renin inhibitors is that they don't have a lot of long-term studies on

a)

severe renal events

b)

severe bleeding risks

c)

cardiovascular events reduction

d)

liver damage

44.

Special L-type voltage-gated calcium channels allow extracellular calcium to enter

a)

smooth muscle cells

b)

skeletal muscle cells

c)

cardiac muscle cells

d)

smooth muscle cells and cardiac muscle cells

45.

_______ ions enter directly into the smooth muscle and induces contraction

a)

potassium

b)

calcium

c)

inositol triphosphate

d)

sodium

46.

Calcium channel blockers differ in selectivity towards which channels?

a)

P/Q type

b)

vascular

c)

cardiac L-type

d)

vascular and cardiac L-type

47.

Which class of calcium channel blockers are more selective for vascular smooth muscle?

a)

diphenylalkylamines

b)

benzothiazepines

c)

dihydropyridines

d)

non-dihydropyridines

48.

Dihydropyridines BR reflex lead to _______ in HR

a)

decrease

b)

no effect

c)

increase

49.

Which of these drugs is not a dihydropyridine?

a)

amlodipine

b)

felodipine

c)

famotidine

d)

nisoldipine

50.

Which of these drugs is considered a dihydropyridine?

a)

amlodipine

b)

metoprolol

c)

lisinopril

d)

HCTZ

51.

Which class of drugs is nifedipine in?

a)

diphenalkylamine CCB

b)

dihydropyridine CCB

c)

nondihydropyridine CCB

d)

alpha-2 agonist

52.

What are the clinical indication for the dihydropyridines?

a)

coronary arteriosclerosis and arrhythmia

b)

angina and ventricular arrhythmia

c)

HTN and migraine prophylaxis

d)

coronary arteriosclerosis, HTN, and angina

53.

Dihydropyridines are clinically indicated for angina because

a)

they increase the HR

b)

they increase the CO

c)

they are selective for the vascular calcium channels

d)

they reduce peripheral vascular resistance

54.

Which of the following classes does verapamil belong to?

a)

ACEI

b)

ARB

c)

nondihydropyridine CCB

d)

dihydropyridine CCB

55.

Nondyhydropyridines will ________ the HR

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

increase calcium influx and decrease

d)

increase calcium influx and increase

56.

What drug can be used for migraine prophylaxis?

a)

diltiazem

b)

verapamil

c)

minoxidil

d)

hydralazine

57.

Which of the following is not an indication for diltiazem?

a)

anal fissures

b)

HTN

c)

migraine prophylaxis

d)

angina

58.

Which of the following drugs is a central acting agent and stimulates the CNS alpha2-adrenoreceptor?

a)

amlodipine

b)

benazapril

c)

methyldopa

d)

atenolol

59.

Which of the following is true regarding methyldopa?

a)

it is contraindicated in pregnancy

b)

it is an alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonist

c)

it decreases the vascular peripheral resistance

d)

it increases the sympathetic outflow

60.

Why is methyldopa NOT recommended for the routine treatment of HTN?

a)

can cause orthostatic HTN

b)

it is contraindicated with MAOIs

c)

contraindicated in kidney diseases

d)

not effective in reducing blood pressure

61.

Which of the following may increase the level of liver transaminases and bilirubin?

a)

methyldopa

b)

amlodipine

c)

verapamil

d)

hydralazine

62.

Which of the following is available as transdermal patches?

a)

verapamil

b)

clonidine

c)

methyldopa

d)

hydralazine

63.

Clonidine can be used in management of

a)

ADHD

b)

cancer pain

c)

HTN

d)

all of these

64.

Which of the following is a direct arterial vasodilator?

a)

minoxidil

b)

clonidine

c)

enalapril

d)

lisinopril

65.

Compensatory activation of baroreceptor reflexes when BP decreases results in?

a)

increase in HR

b)

renin release

c)

increased sympathetic outflow from the vasomotor center

d)

decreased CO

66.

Hydralazine may cause which dose related syndrome that is more common in slow acetylators?

a)

down syndrome

b)

apert syndrome

c)

reversible lupus-like syndrome

d)

marfan syndrome

67.

Which medication has limited use for CHRONIC hypertension management due to the side effects?

a)

verapamil

b)

amlodipine

c)

hydralazine

d)

lisinopril

68.

Which of the following is a direct arterial vasodilator?

a)

minoxidil

b)

nifedipine

c)

hydralazine

d)

trandolapril

69.

Minoxidil is widely used as

a)

oral solution

b)

hair lotion

c)

oral tablets for htn management

d)

transdermal patch

70.

What are the physiological effects of nitric oxide on the body?

a)

constriction of blood vessels

b)

relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

c)

vasodilation

d)

dilation of coronary arteries

71.

What is the MOA of sodium nitroprusside?

a)

binds its receptors on veins and arteries inducing vasodilation

b)

it is degraded into cyanide which induces vasodilation

c)

it releases both cyanide and NO and the latter induces vasodilation

d)

it forms methemoglobin which induces

72.

What is the agent of choice for minute to minute control in emergency hypertensive crisis?

a)

minoxidil

b)

pindolol

c)

sodium nitroprusside

d)

amlodipine

73.

What is a life-threatening event that may occur during the use of sodium nitroprusside?

a)

thiosulfate toxicity

b)

cyanide toxicity

c)

lupus like syndrome

d)

all of these

Similar Resources on Wayground

A Level Photosynthesis

70 questions

A Level Photosynthesis

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

NDEE

75 questions

NDEE

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Eot Science Questions-Term 1

69 questions

Eot Science Questions-Term 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

3rd Grade - University

Meteorology Review Sheet

76 questions

Meteorology Review Sheet

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

Thermal Energy, Heat, and Temperature Quiz

75 questions

Thermal Energy, Heat, and Temperature Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - University

The Lymphatic System

77 questions

The Lymphatic System

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Chapter 1.4-1.5 Anatomy Review

71 questions

Chapter 1.4-1.5 Anatomy Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

ASTRONOMY MIDTERM

70 questions

ASTRONOMY MIDTERM

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University