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Principles final review

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A radiograph that demonstrates minimal differences between gray shades is said to have

a)

long scale

b)

low contrast

c)

decreased contrast

d)

all of the above

2.

When the tissue structure of the ankle joint is considered, the dramatic tissue differences between the muscles and bones of the ankle produce

a)

low receptor contrast

b)

high subject contrast

c)

high receptor contrast

d)

low subject contrast

3.

Immediately after exposure and before a digitally acquired image is post-processed, the initial image shown demonstrates

a)

a very low contrast

b)

extremely high contrast

c)

focal spot blur

d)

the heel effect

4.

As the lead content of a grid increases,

a)

the contrast improvement factor decreases

b)

the K-factor decreases

c)

exposure to the image receptor increases

d)

the ability of the grid to remove scatter increases

5.

With increasing kVp levels, it is important to remember that with digital receptors and DR technologies

a)

the differences between minimum and maximum incoming photon energies is reduced

b)

more anatomical data can be recorded with a lower patient dose

c)

less differential absorption occurs and a narrower histogram results

d)

all of the above

6.

For a grid to be properly focused, the x-ray tube must be located along the ____ line.

a)

convergence

b)

divergence

c)

tangent

d)

resolution

7.

When an AEC is used for a lateral chest, which ionization chambers are utilized?

a)

all three cells

b)

the left and right outer cells

c)

the left outer cell only

d)

the center cell

8.

The relationship between mAs and exposure is

a)

directly proportional

b)

exponential

c)

a squared relationship

d)

indirectly proportional

9.

When exposure factor controls the penetration power of the x-rays?

a)

kilovolts peak, kVp

b)

mA

c)

seconds

d)

time

10.

When the lead strips run in a single direction in a grid, the grid pattern is described as

a)

linear

b)

tangential

c)

cross-hatched

d)

criss-cross

11.

A ghost image can occur in digital imaging because of ______.

a)

supernatural phenomena

b)

backscatter

c)

image blur

d)

incomplete erasure

12.

Photon absorption within the body occurs as the result of

a)

characteristic interactions

b)

Bremsstrahlung interactions

c)

Compton interactions

d)

photoelectric interactions

13.

Body thickness is measured in inches.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What size is the average CR or DR image file per image?

a)

100 KB

b)

10 KB

c)

20 MB

d)

200 MB

15.

Prime exposure factors are variables the professional technologist controls as well as the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The use of a radiographic grid requires

a)

attention to central ray angulation

b)

an increase in exposure factors

c)

an awareness of the SID

d)

all of the above

17.

Lossy compression reduces data files greater than ____.

a)

10:1

b)

50:1

c)

1000:1

d)

100:1

18.

Which statement about radiographic grids is INCORRECT?

a)

The interspace strips are usually made of aluminum

b)

The radiopaque strips are typically made of thin lead

c)

Grids may have grid strips running in perpendicular directions

d)

A grid is a series of lead strips that alternate with radiopaque interspace strips.

19.

As kVp increases, the percentage of Compton interactions ____ and contrast ____

a)

increases, decreases

b)

decreases, decreases

c)

increases, increases

d)

decreases, increases

20.

Factors affecting the quantity of emission x-rays

a)

mAs, Kilovoltage, Distance

b)

mAs and patient thickness

c)

Kilovoltage and Distance

d)

None of the above

21.

Object artifacts in digital imaging can occur from errors in ____

a)

patient positioning

b)

x-ray beam collimation, histogram selection, and patient positioning

c)

histogram selection

d)

x-ray beam collimation

22.

Pressing the jaws too tightly against the body part may result in an inaccurate measurement

a)

True

b)

False

23.

When using an AEC, the radiographer loses control of

a)

kVP

b)

mAs

c)

mA

d)

distance

24.

Battery powered Mobile (Portable) X-ray equipment takes 8 hours to charge if fully discharged

a)

True

b)

False

25.

In digital imaging using a DR detector, image contrast decreases with

a)

radiographic grids

b)

mAs values that are too low

c)

excessive kVp values

d)

underexposure

26.

Extremities portable studies require 2 projections at 45 degrees from each other

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The amount of scatter radiation produced increases with a/an

a)

larger field size

b)

decrease in atomic number of the tissue

c)

increase in patient thickness

d)

all of the above

28.

The recorded detail of a digital radiographic image is primarily visible because of

a)

sufficient contrast

b)

sufficient receptor exposure

c)

both a and b

d)

low signal to noise ratios (SNR)

29.

A radiographic grid absorbs

a)

scattered electrons

b)

primary radiation

c)

all scatter and secondary electrons

d)

scattered radiation

30.

The factor that affect x-ray emission under the direct control of the radiographer are called the ____ factors.

a)

quantity

b)

prime

c)

principal

d)

quality

31.

What prime factor controls contrast?

a)

kVp

b)

mA

c)

mAs

d)

Seconds

32.

Immediately after exposure and before a digitally acquired image is post-processed, the initial image shown demonstrates

a)

extremely high contrast

b)

the heel effect

c)

focal spot blur

d)

very low contrast

33.

Angulation across the long axis of a linear grid causes

a)

cross-hatched impressions

b)

grid convergence

c)

grid cut-off

d)

grid shadowing

34.

Lossless compression reduces data files to as low as ____

a)

1000:1

b)

50:1

c)

100:1

d)

10:1

35.

As the lead content of a grid increases

a)

the ability of the grid to remove scatter increases

b)

the contrast improvement factor decreases

c)

exposure to the image receptor increases

d)

the K-factor decreases

36.

As you are performing a KUB radiograph on a patient using AEC, you notice that your post-exposure readout is unusually high. A possible explanation for this high reading could be

a)

the kVp was too high

b)

the minimum response time was too long

c)

the backup mAs was set too love

d)

the detector was collimated out of the field of exposure

37.

The difference between adjacent densities is defined as?

a)

image detail

b)

image quality

c)

density change

d)

contrast

38.

An increase in x-ray beam filtration

a)

reduces contrast

b)

increases the average photon energy

c)

increases the number of Compton interactions

d)

all of the above

39.

The primary factor controlling x-ray beam quantity is determined by

a)

mAs

b)

distance

c)

filtration

d)

kVp

40.

The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are ______

a)

an image receptor, software, and object

b)

processing, exposure, and handling/storage

c)

software, object, and exposure

d)

processing, image receptor, and exposure

41.

When the lead strips run in a single direction in a grid, the grid pattern is described as

a)

linear

b)

criss-cross

c)

cross-hatched

d)

tangential

42.

What type of artifact is seen in the image?

a)

Image receptor artifacts

b)

software artifacts

c)

object artifacts

d)

foreign object artifacts

43.

The atomic interaction that produces scatter radiation is

a)

photodisintegration

b)

photoelectric

c)

Bremsstrahlung

d)

Compton

44.

Artifacts are an acceptable part of digital imaging

a)

True

b)

False

45.

A device that moves the grid during a radiographic exposure is called a(n)

a)

oscillator

b)

focussed grid

c)

Porter-Bucky diaphragm

d)

alterantor

46.

Computed radiography cassettes can sit for _____ between exposures

a)

a few days

b)

an unlimited time

c)

up to 1 yr

d)

a few hours

47.

The single function of an AEC is to eliminate the need to set

a)

time

b)

mA

c)

all of the above

d)

kVp

48.

Which grid would most effectively reduce scatter

a)

8:1

b)

6:1

c)

12:1

d)

15:1

49.

High contrast is directly related to

a)

the number of photoelectric interactions

b)

high kVp

c)

the amount of Compton scatter

d)

mAs

50.

Grid suppression software is intended to

a)

lower image contrast for the viewer, to reveal low contrast objects

b)

blur out the grid lines through dynamic visual motion

c)

remove the visibility of grid lines

d)

amplify the visibility of the radiopaque grid strips

51.

Backscatter radiation artifacts can occur more readily in digital imaging because of the ________

a)

large data file sizes

b)

techniques used

c)

highly sensitive receptors

d)

partitioning errors

52.

Collimating light projected off IR reduces patient and technologist exposure

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The primary purpose of using a radiographic grid is to

a)

intercept remnant radiation

b)

remove undesired primary photons

c)

remove a percentage of scatter photons

d)

decrease skin exposure to patients

54.

The difference between two adjacent gray shades on a radiographic image is

a)

quantum mottle

b)

distortion

c)

recorded detail

d)

radiographic contrast

55.

Standard power Mobile (portable) x-ray equipment DO NOT have a capacitor.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

When an x-ray beam passes through the body

a)

it will be absorbed by the body

b)

it will pass through the body unaffected

c)

it will interact with the body and change directions

d)

all of the above

57.

The principal controlling factor of radiographic contrast using film-screen technology is

a)

anode angle

b)

mAs

c)

focal spot size

d)

kVp

58.

The number of grid lines per inch is the grid

a)

ratio

b)

speed

c)

focus

d)

frequency

59.

A radiograph with few shades of gray exhibits

a)

high contrast

b)

long scale contrast

c)

low contrast

d)

medium contrast

60.

The total AMOUNT of irradiated material is a function of

a)

body position and focal spot size

b)

tissue thickness and tissue density

c)

body part thickness and area of exposure

d)

field size and anode angle

61.

Histogram selection is done _______

a)

automatically during each exposure

b)

by the radiographer during post-processing

c)

by the radiographer before each exam

d)

automatically during post-processing

62.

Radiographic image contrast is a combination of

a)

grid ratio and field size

b)

data rescaling and look-up tables

c)

receptor contrast and subject contrast

d)

filtration thickness and field size

63.

Automatic exposure devices provide a diagnostic quality radiograph when the

a)

proper time is set

b)

anatomy of interest is positioned directly above the appropriate ionization chambers

c)

beam filtration is minimum

d)

correct focal spot is selected

64.

What exposure factor measure current

a)

milliamps, mA

b)

seconds or milliseconds

c)

kVp

d)

volts or kilovolts

65.

The greatest source of scatter during a radiographic examination is the

a)

table top material

b)

AEC detector

c)

patient

d)

image receptor

66.

What is the recommended distance for the technologist to be away from the patient for mobile radiography

a)

no more than 6 ft

b)

at 5 ft

c)

6ft or more

d)

if using an apron, no need to be away from the patient

67.

The prime factors include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

distance

b)

mAs

c)

kVp

d)

filtration

68.

As kVp _____, a, ______ range of photon energies is produced

a)

increases, narrower

b)

decreases, wider

c)

decreases, longer

d)

increases, wider

69.

Automatic Exposure Control is commonly referred to as

a)

phototiming

b)

automatic

c)

exposing

d)

chambers

70.

What artifact do you see on this picture? (Line on half of image)

a)

Image receptor artifact

b)

software artifact

c)

object artifacts

d)

grid cut off artifacts

71.

Adjustments in mAs should be used to control IR

a)

window level

b)

contrast

c)

resolution

d)

density or exposure

72.

Most modern AEC systems provide a minimum response time of

a)

0.001 sec

b)

1 millisecond

c)

1/1000 sec

d)

all of the above

73.

When an AEC is used for PA chest, which ionization chambers are utilized?

a)

the center cell

b)

the left and right outer cells

c)

all three cells

d)

the right outer cell only

74.

Radiographs of the fingers, hand, wrist, forearm, and foot are usually viewed with the proximal aspect pointing up

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Increasing the kVp will result in the production of an x-ray photon with

a)

more penetrability and greater energy

b)

greater velocity and more electrons

c)

less penetrability and less energy

d)

greater charge and more photons

76.

The primary purpose of using a radiographic grid is to

a)

intercept remnant radiation

b)

remove a percentage of scatter photons

c)

remove undesired primary photons

d)

decrease skin exposure to patients

77.

Radiography density is defined as the overall blackness/blackening of the radiograph

a)

True

b)

False

78.

As kVp increases

a)

image receptor exposure increases

b)

secondary radiation increases

c)

scatter radiation increases

d)

all of the above

79.

Kilovoltage is the primary controlling factor of

a)

x-ray beam quality

b)

x-ray beam quantity

c)

filtration thickness

d)

x-ray beam intensity

80.

U.S. public law requires the generators automatically terminate AEC exposure at _____ mAs above 50 kVp

a)

100

b)

900

c)

300

d)

600

81.

The relationship between the intensity of radiation is the

a)

15 percent rule

b)

direct square law

c)

inverse square law

d)

reciprocity law

82.

Kilovoltage is the primary controlling factor of

a)

x-ray beam quality and contrast

b)

filtration thickness and contrast

c)

x-ray beam intensity

d)

x-ray beam quantity

83.

The radiopaque strips

a)

absorb scatter

b)

are made of radiodense material

c)

have a high atomic number

d)

all of the above

84.

Radiographs are generally viewed "right side up," with the most superior aspect of the anatomy at the top

a)

True

b)

False

85.

A radiograph that demonstrates considerable differences between gray is said to have

a)

short scale

b)

increase contrast

c)

high contrast

d)

all of the above

86.

When more than one ionization chamber is used simultaneously during exposure, the signal is

a)

multiplied

b)

determined by the chamber with the highest exposure

c)

average

d)

amplified to the highest value

87.

The primary factor controlling x-ray beam quantity is determined by

a)

filtration

b)

mAs

c)

distance

d)

kVp

88.

In an emergency situation when a radiographic grid is unavailable, a convenient practice to employ, that creates a "grid-like image" when one was not used is

a)

grid suppression software

b)

all of the above

c)

increase the OID to create an air-gap

d)

to turn the digital detector over, to use the back of the detector as an absorber

89.

SID stands for System to Image Receptor Distance

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The size and number of digital images have to be compressed to permit _____

a)

archiving

b)

transmitting

c)

transmitting and archiving

d)

viewing

91.

What factor controls time of exposure?

a)

seconds or milliseconds

b)

hours

c)

kVp

d)

none of the above

92.

What prime factor controls density

a)

kVp

b)

mAs

c)

seconds

d)

distance

93.

Most AEC consoles permit activation of

a)

the outer cells when the center cell is inactivated

b)

all three cells simultaneously

c)

all three cells in any combination

d)

the center cell and either outer cell

94.

As a general rule, a radiographic grid is employed

a)

for procedures below 60 kVp

b)

for pediatric studies to improve contrast

c)

for part thicknesses above 10 cm

d)

in order to improve positioning latitude

95.

Poor positioning skills results in increased repeat rate when using AEC

a)

True

b)

False

96.

A graph of the frequency of occurrence versus digital value intervals is called a(n) ____

a)

digitization

b)

compression

c)

histogram

d)

algorithm

97.

X-ray beam penetrability is primarily controlled by

a)

mAs

b)

kVp

c)

focal spot size and dimension

d)

filtration

98.

A radiographer that demonstrates considerable differences between gray shades is said to

a)

increased contrast

b)

high contrast

c)

short scale

d)

all of the above

99.

As the mA doubles, the number of electrons flowing from cathode to anode

a)

increases twofold

b)

decreases twofold

c)

increases fourfold

d)

increases by 50 percent

100.

Modern equipment uses ________ _________ a the Automatic Exposure Control technology

a)

ionizing boxes

b)

detector chambers

c)

ionization chambers

d)

phototiming detectors

101.

When using a radiographic grid with computed radiography (CR)

a)

none of the above

b)

higher frequency grids are undesirable

c)

the Moire effect is a consideration

d)

radiographic grids are unnecessary

102.

The factors that DIRECTLY AFFECT x-ray quality are

a)

focal spot size and anode angle

b)

filtration and mAs

c)

kVp and beam filtration

d)

mAs and distance

103.

The relationship between mAs and exposure is

a)

exponential

b)

indirectly proportional

c)

directly proportional

d)

a squared relationship

104.

The software correction that equalizes the response of each pixel to a uniform exposure of x-rays is called____

a)

flatfielding

b)

lossless compression

c)

histogram selection

d)

lossy compression

105.

As a general rule, a radiographic grid is employed

a)

for procedures below 60 kVp

b)

in order to improve positioning latitude

c)

for part thicknesses above 10 cm

d)

for pediatric studies to improve contrast

106.

What is seen in the zoomed yellow rectangle area? (Left should area with clavicle)

a)

Morie Pattern

b)

Misalingment

c)

cassette artifact

d)

Grid cut off

107.

Grid suppression software is intended to

a)

blur out the grid lines through dynamic visual motion

b)

lower image contrast for the viewer, to reveal low contrast objects

c)

remove the visibility of grid lines

d)

amplify the visibility of the radiopaque grid strips

108.

Early versions of AEC technology were referred as

a)

photometers

b)

photosensors

c)

phototimers

d)

photomultipliers

109.

The purpose of moving the grid during the radiographic exposure is to

a)

blur out the radiopaque strips

b)

activate the digital detector

c)

activate the AEC detectors

d)

remove unwanted contrast

110.

As kVp increases

a)

contrast decreases

b)

contrast increases

c)

contrast remains the same

d)

density decreases

111.

The ratio of the height of the lead strips to the distance between the lead strips is the grid

a)

speed

b)

frequency

c)

selectivity

d)

ratio

112.

Grid replacement software is designed to

a)

allow the radiographer to select a grid ratio for postprocessing

b)

create a nongrid image that looks like a grid was employed

c)

all of the following

d)

hide the grid from the viewer

113.

What type of artifact do you see in this picture? *software artifact*

a)

image receptor artifact

b)

software artifact

c)

object artifacts

d)

grid cut off artifacts

114.

When AEC is used for an AP abdomen, which ionization chambers are utilized?

a)

all three cells

b)

the left outer cell only

c)

the left and right outer cells

d)

the center cell

115.

Varying tissue thickness and densities is referred to as

a)

subject contrast

b)

image contrast

c)

attenuation

d)

differential absorption

116.

With digital imaging technologies, the final brightness and contrast appearance of an image is due to

a)

kVp

b)

image rescaling

c)

look-up table (LUT) application

d)

window and level controls

117.

Which of the following sets of exposure factors would best control involuntary motion?

a)

200 mA, 0.045 sec

b)

100 mA, 0.069 sec

c)

300 mA, 30 ms

d)

500 mA, 18 ms

118.

If the primary beam is collimated from an activated chamber, the result is a

a)

light radiograph

b)

short exposure time

c)

dark radiograph

d)

decrease in radiographic density