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ADET - MIDTERM EXAMINATION

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The SRS could be written by the client of a system. Second, the SRS could be written by a developer of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

SRS is said to be perfect if it covers all the needs that are truly expected from the system.

a)

Correctness

b)

Clarity

c)

Unambiguousness

d)

Modifiability

3.

This suggests that each element is uniquely interpreted.

a)

Verifiability

b)

Correctness

c)

Unambiguousness

d)

Ranking for importance and stability

4.

The SRS is ranked for importance and stability if each requirement in it has an identifier to indicate either the significance or stability of that particular requirement.

a)

Correctness

b)

Unambiguousness

c)

Ranking for importance and stability

d)

Modifiability

5.

SRS should be made as modifiable as likely and should be capable of quickly obtain changes to the system to some extent.

a)

Unambiguousness

b)

Ranking for importance and stability

c)

Modifiability

d)

Correctness

6.

SRS is correct when the specified requirements can be verified with a cost-effective system to check whether the final software meets those requirements.

a)

Ranking for importance and stability

b)

Modifiability

c)

Verifiability

d)

Unambiguousness

7.

The SRS is traceable if the origin of each of the requirements is clear and if it facilitates the referencing of each condition in future development or enhancement documentation.

a)

Modifiability

b)

Traceability

c)

Ranking for importance and stability

d)

Unambiguousness

8.

This depends upon each requirement explicitly referencing its source in earlier documents.

a)

Front Traceability

b)

Forward Traceability

c)

Backward Traceability

d)

Side Traceability

9.

This depends upon each element in the SRS having a unique name or reference number.

a)

Front Traceability

b)

Forward Traceability

c)

Backward Traceability

d)

Side Traceability

10.

An SRS should be written in such a method that it is simple to generate test cases and test plans from the report.

a)

Black-box view

b)

Understandable by the customer

c)

Concise

d)

Testability

11.

An end user may be an expert in his/her explicit domain but might not be trained in computer science.

a)

Understandable by the customer

b)

Concise

c)

Testability

d)

Black-box view

12.

The SRS report should be concise and at the same time, unambiguous, consistent, and complete.

a)

Testability

b)

Concise

c)

Black-box view

d)

Understandable by the customer

13.

The SRS document should define the external behavior of the system and not discuss the implementation issues.

a)

Black-box view

b)

Understandable by the customer

c)

Testability

d)

Concise

14.

All requirements of the system, as documented in the SRS document, should be correct. 

a)

Verifiable

b)

Black-box view

c)

Concise

d)

Understandable by the customer

15.

This activity reviews all requirements and may provide a graphical view of the entire system.

a)

Verifiable

b)

ERD

c)

Requirement analysis

d)

Development of a Prototype

16.

It identifies the entities outside the proposed system that interact with the system.

a)

Development of a Prototype

b)

Requirement analysis

c)

Verifiable

d)

Black-box view

17.

One effective way to find out what the customer wants is to construct a design, something that looks and preferably acts as part of the system they say they want.

a)

Black-box view

b)

Understandable by the customer

c)

Development of a Prototype

d)

Verifiable

18.

This process usually consists of various graphical representations of the functions, data entities, external entities, and the relationships between them.

a)

Model the requirements

b)

Data model

c)

Functional model

d)

Behavioral model

19.

It shows relationships among system objects.

a)

Model the requirements

b)

Functional model

c)

Data model

d)

Behavioral model

20.

It is the description of functions that enable the transformations of system objects.

a)

Data model

b)

Functional model

c)

Model the requirements

d)

Behavioral model

21.

A manner in which software responds to events from the outside world.

a)

Behavioral model

b)

Data model

c)

Model the requirements

d)

Functional model

22.

It is a data modeling method used in software engineering to produce a conceptual data model of an information system.

a)

Data dictionary

b)

ER-modeling

c)

DFD

d)

Requiement analysis

23.

It is used to connect the logical structure of the database to users.It is used to connect the logical structure of the database to users.

a)

Requirement analysis

b)

DFD

c)

ERD

d)

Data Dictionary

24.

It is denoted as a rectangle in an ER diagram.

a)

Key Attribute

b)

Entity

c)

Entity set

d)

Attributes

25.

It is a collection of related types of entities.

a)

Attributes

b)

Entity

c)

Entity set

d)

Key attribute

26.

It is an attribute or collection of attributes that uniquely identifies an entity among the entity set.

a)

Attributes

b)

Entity set

c)

Entity

d)

Key attribute

27.

A set of attributes that collectively identifies an entity in the entity set.

a)

Candidate key

b)

Key Attribute

c)

Super key

d)

Primary key

28.

An entity set may have more than one key attribute.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A minimal super key is known as a super key.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

It key is one of the candidate keys chosen by the database designer to uniquely identify the entity set.

a)

Primary key

b)

Super key

c)

Foreign key

d)

Product key

31.

An attribute that is a combination of other attributes.

a)

Composite attribute

b)

Primary key

c)

Foreign key

d)

Entity

32.

It is a valued attribute contain a single value.

a)

Derived attribute

b)

Double-valued attribute

c)

Single-valued attribute

d)

Multi-valued attribute

33.

It is an attribute that can have more than one value.

a)

Derived attribute

b)

Double-valued attribute

c)

Single-valued attribute

d)

Multi-valued attribute

34.

An attribute that does not exist in the physical database, but their values are derived from other attributes present in the database.

a)

Single-valued attribute

b)

Multi-valued attribute

c)

Composite attribute

d)

Derived attribute

35.

It is the association among entities and represented by the diamond-shaped box.

a)

Unary (degree1)

b)

Relationship

c)

Derived attribute

d)

Multi-valued attribute

36.

It is also called recursive relationships.

a)

Unary (degree1)

b)

Binary (degree2)

c)

Ternary (degree3)

d)

Relationship

37.

It is a relationship between the instances of one entity type.

a)

Unary (degree1)

b)

Binary (degree2)

c)

Ternary (degree3)

d)

Relationship

38.

 It is a relationship between the instances of two entity types.

a)

Unary (degree1)

b)

Binary (degree2)

c)

Ternary (degree3)

d)

Relationship

39.

It is a relationship amongst instances of three entity types.

a)

Unary (degree1)

b)

Binary (degree2)

c)

Ternary (degree3)

d)

Relationship

40.

It describes the number of entities in one entity set, which can be associated with the number of entities of other sets via relationship set.

a)

Cardinality

b)

ERD

c)

DFD

d)

Data dictionary

41.

It is one entity from entity set A can be contained with at most one entity of entity set B and vice versa.

a)

One to One

b)

One to many relationships.

c)

Many to One

d)

Many to Many

42.

When a single instance of an entity is associated with more than one instances of another entity then it is called ______. 

a)

One to One

b)

One to many relationships.

c)

Many to One

d)

Many to Many

43.

More than one entity from entity set A can be associated with at most one entity of entity set B, however an entity from entity set B can be associated with more than one entity from entity set A.

a)

One to One

b)

One to Many

c)

Many to One

d)

Many to Many

44.

One entity from A can be associated with more than one entity from B and vice-versa.

a)

One to One

b)

One to Many

c)

Many to One

d)

Many to Many

45.

It is a traditional visual representation of the information flows within a system.

a)

DFD

b)

ERD

c)

Cardinality

d)

SRS

46.

It is used to connect process to each other to source or sinks the arrow head indicates direction of the flow.

a)

Data flow

b)

Process

c)

Data Store

d)

Source or Sink

47.

It indicates that the data is stored which can be used at a later stage or by the other processes in a different order.

a)

Data Flow

b)

Process

c)

Data Store

d)

Source or Sink

48.

It performs some transformation of input data to yield output data.

a)

Data Flow

b)

Process

c)

Data Store

d)

Source or Sink

49.

It is an external entity and acts as a source of system inputs or sink of system outputs.

a)

Data Flow

b)

Process

c)

Data Store

d)

Source or Sink

50.

It is also known as fundamental system model, or context diagram represents the entire software requirement as a single bubble with input and output data denoted by incoming and outgoing arrows.

a)

0-level DFD

b)

2-level DFD

c)

3-level DFD

d)

4-level DFD

51.

This process may be repeated at as many levels as necessary until the program at hand is well understood.

a)

0-level DFD

b)

2-level DFD

c)

3-level DFD

d)

4-level DFD

52.

It can be used to project or record the specific/necessary detail about the system's functioning

a)

0-level DFD

b)

2-level DFD

c)

3-level DFD

d)

4-level DFD

53.

No process can have only outputs or only input, processes must have both outputs and inputs.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Process labels should be noun phrases.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

In source or sink data moves directly between external entities without going through a process.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Data flow from a process to a data store means update (insert, delete or change)

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Data flow from a data store to a process means retrieve or use.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Data flow labels should be verb phrases.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Many data moves directly between external entities without going through a process.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

It is a file or a set of files that includes a database's metadata.

a)

Data Dictionary

b)

ERD

c)

DFD

d)

Requirement Analysis

61.

It hold records about other objects in the database, such as data ownership, data relationships to other objects, and other data.

a)

Data dictionary

b)

ERD

c)

DFD

d)

Requirement Analysis

62.

It include other names by which this data item is called DEO for Data Entry Operator and DR for Deputy Registrar.

a)

Description/purpose

b)

Aliases

c)

Related data items

d)

Data dictionary

63.

It is a textual description of what the data item is used for or why it exists.

a)

Description/purpose

b)

Aliases

c)

Related data items

d)

Dictionary

64.

It capture relationships between data items e.g., total_marks must always equal to internal_marks plus external_marks.

a)

Description/purpose

b)

Aliases

c)

Related data items

d)

Data Dictionary

65.

Range of values records all possible values, e.g. total marks must be positive and between 1 to 100.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Aliases capture the name of processes that generate or receive the data items.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

If the data is itself a data aggregate, then data structure form capture the composition of the data items in terms of other data items.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Data flow capture relationships between data items e.g., total_marks must always equal to internal_marks plus external_marks.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

The data dictionary is an essential component of any relational database because of its importance and it is invisible to most database users.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

It is a specification for a specific software product, program, or set of applications that perform particular functions in a specific environment.

a)

ERD

b)

Requirement Analysis

c)

DFD

d)

SRS