wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology Keystone Prep

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Provides support for PLANT cells

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Centrioles

e)

Cell Membrane

2.

Regulates what can enter or leave the cell

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Centrioles

e)

Cell Membrane

3.

Creates energy for the cell

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Centrioles

e)

Cell Membrane

4.

Performs cell digestion and cleanup

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Centrioles

e)

Cell Membrane

5.

Form spindle fibers during cell division

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Centrioles

e)

Cell Membrane

6.

Water substance that fills the interior of cells and suspends organelles

a)

Cilia

b)

Vacuole

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Flagellum

e)

Cytoskeleton

7.

Whip-like tail that helps in locomotion

a)

Cilia

b)

Vacuole

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Flagellum

e)

Cytoskeleton

8.

Storage sac

a)

Cilia

b)

Vacuole

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Flagellum

e)

Cytoskeleton

9.

Composed of microtubules and microfilaments; supports shape of cell

a)

Cilia

b)

Vacuole

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Flagellum

e)

Cytoskeleton

10.

Hairlike projections that help with movement

a)

Cilia

b)

Vacuole

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Flagellum

e)

Cytoskeleton

11.

The outer boundary of a plant cell is called what?

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane

c)

nuclear envelope

d)

cytoplasm

12.

All cells have a cell wall

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The nucleolus is responsible for the production of ribosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The lipids of the cell are made by the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The cell membrane is selectively permeable because it does not allow everything in

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Organelles are the basic unit of structure and function in all living things.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which of the following cell parts is not found in animals but is found in plants?

a)

nucleus

b)

cell membrane

c)

chloroplast

d)

ribosomes

18.

Which of the following best describes the function of the Rough ER?

a)

make lipids

b)

make proteins

c)

make energy

d)

make carbohydrates

19.

Which of the organelles is most like a post office (packaging, storing, & secreting)

a)

rough ER

b)

golgi body

c)

smooth ER

d)

vacuoles

20.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nucleus?

a)

control center of the cell

b)

contains the genetic information

c)

provides energy for the cell

d)

manufactures and stores RNA

21.

The discovery of cells is linked most directly with what?

a)

early investigations of causes of diseases

b)

observations of large, unicellular organisms

c)

the development of the microscope

d)

efforts to reproduce organisms in the laboratory

22.

Some viruses attack cells by inserting their own DNA into the host cells’ DNA. Why might it be easier for these viruses to attack prokaryotic cells than eukaryotic cells?

a)

prokaryotic cells have less DNA than do eukaryotic cells

b)

unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus

c)

the cell wall in prokaryotic cells is a strong barrier

d)

the rapid growth of prokaryotic cells generates more virus

23.

Where would you most likely find smooth ER?

a)

cells of the muscles(need a lot of energy)

b)

cells of the liver(filters toxins)

c)

cells of the eyes(need energy and proteins)

d)

cells of the skin

24.

The bonds that link an oxygen atom to two hydrogen atoms to form a single water molecule are:

a)

Ionic Bonds

b)

Hydrogen Bonds

c)

Non-polar Covalent Bonds

d)

Polar Covalent Bonds

25.

The bonds that link TWO or MORE water molecules together are called:

a)

Ionic Bonds

b)

Hydrogen Bonds

c)

Non-polar Covalent bonds

d)

Polar Covalent bonds

26.

_______________________ is the tendency of water molecules to stick to each other to form a bead.

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Specific Heat Capacity

d)

Capillarity

27.

____________________ is the attraction that occurs between water and unlike molecules to allow a drop of water to stick to the side of a glass beaker.

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

High specific Heat

d)

Universal Solvent

28.

Which property of water allows the roots of a plant to transport water up to the leaves on the highest part of the tree?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

High Specific Heat

d)

Capillarity

29.

Which statement best describes an effect of the low density of frozen water in a lake?

a)

It produce heat energy causing the nearby shore to warm up

b)

It causes ice to sink to the bottom of the lake

c)

When water freezes it expands, it then floats and provides insulation for organisms below the ice

d)

When water freezes, it contracts, decreasing the water level in a lake dramatically.

30.

A water bug is able to stand on top of the water. This is an example of:

a)

Capillarity

b)

Cohesion

c)

Adhesion

d)

Specific Heat Capacity

31.

It takes ________________ (of) energy to change the temperature of water.

a)

A lot

b)

Not a lot

32.

Water is used for transport nutrients, wastes gasses, and many other materials through our body. Which property below allows water to best accomplish this task?

a)

High Heat capacity

b)

Universal Solvent

c)

Surface Tension

33.

After his most recent victory, Cam Newton makes the following observations after the game. -10 Fans in the Stands -Three crows on the southwest light pole -12 sparrows in the bleachers -air temperature is 74 degrees -partly cloudy skies. These observations would best fit with which level of biological organization?

a)

Community

b)

Population

c)

Biome

d)

Ecosystem

34.

Non-living items in the environment

a)

Abiotic Factors

b)

Biotic Factors

35.

The smallest unit of LIFE

a)

Atom

b)

Sub-Atomic

c)

Organism

d)

Cell

36.

Mr. Man is looking forward to hunting season. He has been watching the movements of one large buck on his land. What level is he studying?

a)

Cell

b)

Organism

c)

Population

d)

Biosphere

37.

After their soccer game Grace and Breanne notice a large flock of geese fly overhead. This would best be described as a(n)

a)

Ecosystem

b)

Organism

c)

Population

d)

Biosphere

38.

A group of tissues that work together and preform the same function would be called a(n)

a)

Cell

b)

Organ

c)

Organ System

d)

Organism

39.

You cannot trust these as they make up everything(matter), and compose the smallest level

a)

Atom

b)

Cell

c)

Organ

d)

Tissue

40.

The digestive, nervous, and reproductive are all examples an would be described as a group of organs that work together

a)

Organism

b)

Population

c)

Organ system

d)

Origami

41.

In water, which option below lists the partial charges next to the correct atom?

a)

Hydrogen positive, oxygen positive

b)

Hydrogen negative, oxygen negative

c)

Hydrogen negative, oxygen positive

d)

Hydrogen positive, oxygen negative

42.

Carbon will make _____ bond(s)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

43.

Oxygen will make _____bonds

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

44.

Hydrogen will make ____ bonds

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

45.

When atoms gain or loose an electron this type of bond is formed

a)

Molecular Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Covalent Bond

d)

Hydrogen Bond

46.

When atoms share electrons EVENLY between them this type of bond is formed

a)

Non-polar covalent bond

b)

Polar covalent bond

47.

The water molecule has areas that are positively charged, and negatively charged.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The formation of polymers from monomers occurs as a result of _________________reactions, and the breakdown of polymers into monomers occurs as a result of _______________ reactions

a)

hydrolysis; hydrophilic

b)

dehydration synthesis; hydrolysis

c)

hydrolysis; dehydration synthesis

d)

dehydration synthesis; hydrolytic

49.

Which phrase below best describes a polymer?

a)

individual parts of a large molecule

b)

information coded in RNA

c)

made of many small subunits bonded together

d)

individual amino acids

50.

Small clusters of atoms added to a molecule to give it certain properties are called:

a)

ketone groups

b)

worker groups

c)

functional groups

d)

property groups

51.

Which of the following represents a reason for why the carbon molecule is the backbone for all organic life?

a)

It can only form 1 other bond

b)

It can form 2 bonds with other atoms

c)

It can form 3 bonds with other atoms

d)

It can form up to 4 bonds with other atoms

52.

Number of hydrogen and oxygen atoms in water:

a)

2 H’s, 1 O

b)

2 O’s, 1 H

c)

3 O, 1 H

d)

3 H, 1 O

53.

Which of the following reactions would cause a polymer to be broken down into its monomer pieces?

a)

dehydration synthesis

b)

synthesis reaction

c)

hydrolysis

d)

physical reaction

54.

What type of bonds form between the oxygen atoms and hydrogen atoms in ONE water molecule?

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

polar covalent bonds

c)

peptide bonds

d)

dipeptide bonds

55.

Which of the following is an intermediate storage carbohydrate stored in the liver of animals?

a)

starch

b)

glucose

c)

cellulose

d)

glycogen

56.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a lipid?

a)

stores genetic information

b)

long term energy source

c)

helps cell wall be rigid

d)

present in the exoskeleton of insects

57.

Which of the following is NOT a lipid:

a)

Steroids

b)

Waxes

c)

DNA

d)

Oils

58.

Which molecule below contains triglycerides with single-bonded, straight carbon chains?

a)

saturated fat

b)

unsaturated fat

c)

steroid

d)

DNA

59.

Which of the following products is an example of an unsaturated fat?

a)

butter

b)

cheese

c)

fish oil

d)

bread loaf

60.

Phospholipids make up which part of the cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

cell membrane

c)

nucleus

d)

cell wall

61.

When a protein changes shape and loses its function, the protein is being:

a)

depolarized

b)

repolypeptided

c)

denatured

d)

flattened

62.

What property of water allows it to move upwards against gravity in small narrow tubes?

a)

capillary action

b)

low density

c)

resist changes in temperature

d)

surface tension

63.

You begin the process of making a boiled egg by putting a pot of water on a stovetop burner heated on high. It takes seven minutes for the water to begin to boil. Some liquid metals would have heated to the same temperature in less than a minute. What characteristic makes water take longer to heat?

a)

nearly universal solvent

b)

polar molecule

c)

water has a high specific heat

d)

adhesion

64.

You walk through the woods and see water hanging off the tips of pine needles. How do the physical properties of water result in the scene you see?

a)

Cohesion allows water droplets to form, and adhesion keeps the droplets on the needles.

b)

Adhesion allows droplets to form, and cohesion keeps the droplets on the needles.

c)

Cohesion allows droplets to form, and capillarity keeps the droplets on the needles.

d)

Adhesion allows droplets to form, and capillarity keeps the droplets on the needles.

65.

What type of transport is being pictured (assume the substance IS moving from a higher concentration to a lower one)

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Endocytosis

66.

Water moving from a lower concentration to a higher concentration would most likely be completed by

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active Transport

67.

This structure regulates what enters and leaves the cell

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Golgi Body

c)

Plasma Membrane

d)

Nucleus

68.

This process DOES NOT require energy

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive Transport

c)

Protein Pumps

d)

Endocytosis

69.

The movement of small solute particles from a high concentration to a lower concentration through the cell membrane is known as:

a)

Osmosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Diffusion

70.

When molecules are EVENLY spread out in a solution, they are at:

a)

Hypertonicity

b)

Hypotonicity

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Tonic

71.

Cell membranes are said to be _________________ which means only certain molecules will pass through:

a)

selectively permeable

b)

impermeable

c)

permeable

d)

unpermeable

72.

The process by which water diffuses from high concentration to low concentration through the cell membrane is known as:

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Diffusion

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Osmosis

73.

Osmosis DOES NOT require any energy. This statement is:

a)

True

b)

False

74.

This type of solution would cause water to move into the cell, increasing its size

a)

hypotonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypertonic

d)

nontonic

75.

This type of solution would cause water to move out of and into the cell in equal amounts causing no change in its size:

a)

hypotonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypertonic

d)

nontonic

76.

What is one way that facilitated diffusion differs from regular diffusion?

a)

Regular diffusion requires a concentration gradient and facilitated diffusion does not

b)

Facilitated diffusion requires a protein in the membrane to move molecules

c)

Facilitated diffusion requires energy and regular diffusion does not.

d)

Diffusion moves particles from low to high and facilitated diffusion does not.

77.

In order for ACTIVE transport to occur this molecule is directly needed

a)

Water

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

ATP

78.

________________: brings particles into the cell; vesicles fuse with the cell membrane, depositing material inside the cell.

a)

Endocyotsis

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Ecocytosis

79.

________________: forces particles out the cell; vesicles are made in the cell and fuse with the membrane to dump materials out of the cell.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Ecoboostcytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Isocytosis

80.

When a cell moves material from lower to higher concentration, what process is being used?

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Protein Pump

c)

Diffusion

d)

Osmosis

81.

If a cell begins to approach bursting point, this means that there are more water molecules outside of the cell and they are trying to go from a high concentration outside to a lower concentration of water molecules inside the cell- causing water to move into the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

A phospholipid is made of 2 main parts, which part is hydroPHOBIC?

a)

Head

b)

Tails

c)

None of the above

d)

All of the above

83.

Putting salt around a plant would most likely cause it to die because

a)

The high amount of solutes around the plan would create a hypotonic environment, causing water to exit the cells

b)

The high amount of water around the plant would create a hypertonic environment, causing water to move out of the cell

c)

The high amount of solutes around the plant would create a hypotonic environment causing water to move into the cell

d)

The high amount of solutes around the plant, would cause a hypertonic environment, causing water to move out of the cell

84.

Mr. Mancino has been pheasant hunting all day. It has been un-seasonably warm for October and due to moving through heavy areas of brush and briars the thick clothing has caused a major loss of water due to sweat. He has been hydrating all day and has drank about 8 liters of water(that's a lot). However by the time he reaches his truck, he is feeling dizzy and passes out. Thankfully, his dog Cooper is trained in CPR and is able to revive him. He is able to send a call out and paramedics arrive on scene. What type of condition in his blood stream was MOST LIKELY the cause of his condition?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Phosphotonic

e)

Osmotonic

85.

In order for facilitated diffusion to occur, a cell would need energy in the form of ATP made by the power house of the cell known as the mitochondria

a)

True

b)

False

86.

What organelle is responsible for photosynthesis in plants and algae?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Cellular Membrane

87.

What is the fluid-filled space that contains enzymes for the light independent reactions called?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoids

c)

Chemiosmosis

d)

Chlorphyll

88.

What are stacks of flattened sacs that contain the pigment chlorophyll called?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoids

c)

Chemiosmosis

d)

Chloroplast

89.

Which is a light-independent reaction?

a)

Chemiosmosis

b)

Electron Pathway

c)

PS1

d)

Calvin Cycle

90.

In order to get 1 molecule of glucose the calvin cycle must turn_______ time(s).

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

91.

What is the general equation for photosynthesis?

a)

6CO2+6O2---->6C6H12O6 + 6O2

b)

6CO2+6H2O----> 6O2+ C6H12O6

c)

C6H12O6+ 6O2-----> 6H2O+ 6O2

d)

C6H12O6+ 6H2O----> 6O2+ C6H12O6

92.

C6H12O6 is the chemical formula for

a)

Water

b)

ATP

c)

Glucose

d)

Oxygen

93.

Which of the following are needed for photosynthesis to occur?(More than 1!!)

a)

Glucose

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Sunlight

e)

Water

94.

What are the products of photosynthesis?(more than 1!!)

a)

Glucose

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sunlight + Water

d)

Carbon Dioxide

95.

What is the site of the light dependent reactions?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoid

c)

Chemiosmosis

d)

Chlorophyll

96.

What is the site of the light independent reactions?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoid

c)

Chemiosmosis

d)

Chlorophyll

97.

Chlorophyll is best at absorbing __________ light. (SELECT 2)

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Red

98.

Chlorophyll reflects______ light

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Red

d)

Blue

99.

In the light dependent reactions water is split by

a)

Photosystem 1

b)

Photosystem 2

c)

Photosystem 3.0

d)

Calvin Cycle

100.

In the light dependent reactions, these two energy molecules are made

a)

Glucose and Oxygen

b)

ADP and NADP+

c)

ATP and NADPH

d)

Carbon Dioxide and water

101.

Which of the following would NOT effect the rate of photosynthesis

a)

intensity of sunlight

b)

Temperature

c)

Wave Length (color) of light

d)

Amount of Nitrogen in atmosphere

102.

If the light dependent reactions were to completely stop, what would eventually happen to the light INdependent reactions (calvin cycle)?

a)

They would continue on as normal

b)

They would stop due to lack of oxygen

c)

They would stop due to lack of ATP and NADPH

d)

They would stop due to lack of Water

103.

Which of the following would effect the rate of photosynthesis

a)

Intensity of light

b)

Wavelength of light

c)

Temperature

d)

Amount of Carbon dioxide in air

e)

Amount of Water available to plant

104.

Which molecule shown in Figure 8–3 is an electron carrier (also called an electron acceptor)?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

H2O

c)

NADP+

d)

oxygen

105.

A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant exposed to bright sunlight. The gas being collected is probably:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

Glucose

106.

Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into:

a)

oxygen and carbon.

b)

high-energy sugars and proteins.

c)

ATP and oxygen.

d)

oxygen and glucose sugar.

107.

Which of the following is NOT found in the overall reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

water

c)

light

d)

nitrogen

108.

Six molecules of carbon dioxide and six molecules of water go into the process of photosynthesis. This results in a molecule of sugar being made as well as six molecules of: (hint: think of the overall equation here) *

a)

glucose

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

ATP

109.

In which organism does respiration NOT take place in the mitochondria?

a)

sunflower

b)

oak tree

c)

panda bear

d)

Bacteria

110.

Where do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place?

a)

in the stroma of the chloroplast

b)

within the mitochondrial membrane

c)

within the thylakoid membrane

d)

in the outer membrane of the chloroplast

111.

The Calvin cycle takes place in the

a)

stroma.

b)

photosystems.

c)

thylakoid membranes.

d)

chlorophyll molecules.

112.

If carbon dioxide is completely removed from a plant’s environment, what would you expect to happen to the plant’s production of high-energy sugars?

a)

More sugars will be produced.

b)

No sugars will be produced.

c)

The same number of sugars will be produced.

d)

Fewer sugars will be produced at first, but then the plant will recover.

113.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration?

a)

fermentation

b)

electron transport

c)

glycolysis

d)

Krebs cycle

114.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis → fermentation → Krebs cycle

b)

Krebs cycle → electron transport → glycolysis

c)

glycolysis → Krebs cycle → electron transport

d)

Krebs cycle → glycolysis → electron transport

115.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy → 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy → 6O2 + C6H12O6

116.

Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down:

a)

glucose.

b)

ATP.

c)

carbon dioxide.

d)

water.

117.

What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen and lactic acid

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

water and glucose

118.

Which of these is a product of cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

lactic acid

119.

Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process because it requires:

a)

light.

b)

exercise.

c)

oxygen.

d)

glucose.

120.

Which of the following is one of the ways that cellular respiration and photosynthesis are opposite processes?

a)

Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy.

b)

Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.

c)

Photosynthesis removes oxygen from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.

d)

Photosynthesis breaks down glucose, and cellular respiration produces glucose.

121.

Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to:

a)

chloroplasts.

b)

chlorophyll.

c)

mitochondria.

d)

nuclei.

122.

The products of photosynthesis are the:

a)

products of cellular respiration.

b)

reactants of cellular respiration.

c)

products of glycolysis.

d)

reactants of fermentation.

123.

Which of these processes takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell?

a)

glycolysis

b)

electron transport

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

photosynthesis

124.

Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of:

a)

2 ATP molecules.

b)

4 ATP molecules.

c)

18 ATP molecules.

d)

360 ATP molecules.

125.

In eukaryotic cellular respiration, electron transport occurs in the:

a)

mitochondrial membrane.

b)

nucleus.

c)

cell membrane.

d)

cytoplasm.

126.

Which of the following provide high-energy electrons that are used in the electron transport chain?

a)

NADH and FADH2

b)

ATP and ADP

c)

citric acid

d)

oxygen

127.

High-energy electrons that move down the electron transport chain ultimately provide the energy needed to:

a)

transport water molecules across the membrane.

b)

allow ADP to bond to another phosphate to produce ATP molecules.

c)

convert carbon dioxide into water molecules.

d)

break down glucose into pyruvic acid molecules.

128.

Cellular respiration uses 1 molecule of glucose to produce approximately how many total (net) ATP’s?

a)

2 ATP molecules.

b)

4 ATP molecules.

c)

30 ATP molecules.

d)

36 ATP molecules.

129.

The two main types of fermentation are called:

a)

alcoholic and aerobic.

b)

aerobic and anaerobic.

c)

alcoholic and lactic acid.

d)

lactic acid and anaerobic.

130.

Both fermentation processes occur in the:

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

mitochondrial membrane

c)

stroma

d)

cytoplasm

131.

A track sprinter runs a 400 meter race (which is one lap around a track) at the fastest speed he can go. He is not taking in enough oxygen to allow his body to break down glucose fast enough to refuel his ATP source. This sprinter will have to break down sugar in the absence of oxygen. He will use:

a)

lactic acid fermentation

b)

alcoholic fermentation

132.

Yeast can break down sugar in the absence of oxygen. As yeast breaks down sugar, it produces which of the following as by-products?

a)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

sugar and carbon dioxide

c)

alcohol and carbon dioxide

133.

Energy is released from ATP when

a)

a phosphate group is added

b)

adenine bonds to ribose

c)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

d)

a phosphate group is removed

134.

Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called

a)

autotrophs.

b)

heterotrophs.

c)

thylakoids.

d)

pigments.

135.

Organisms that cannot make their own food and must obtain energy from external sources are called:

a)

autotrophs.

b)

heterotrophs.

c)

thylakoids.

d)

plants.

136.

Which of the following organisms makes its own food using light energy from the sun?

a)

mushroom (a fungi)

b)

bacteria

c)

leopard

d)

oak tree

137.

Which of the following processes takes place in the chloroplast of a cell?

a)

Glucose is broken down into smaller molecules.

b)

Oxygen combines with hydrogen to form water.

c)

Lactic acid is released as a metabolic by-product.

d)

Carbon dioxide reacts to form glucose

138.

What happens during photosynthesis?

a)

Heterotrophs consume ATP.

b)

Heterotrophs produce ATP.

c)

Autotrophs consume glucose.

d)

Autotrophs produce glucose.

139.

Plants gather the sun’s energy with light-absorbing molecules called:

a)

pigments.

b)

water.

c)

oxygen.

d)

glucose.

140.

Most plants appear green because chlorophyll:

a)

absorbs green light.

b)

absorbs violet light.

c)

reflects green light.

141.

What is the role of NADP+ in photosynthesis?

a)

electron carrier (also called an electron acceptor)

b)

high-energy sugar

c)

photosystem

d)

pigment

142.

Organisms, such as hawks and leopards, that obtain energy from the foods they consume are called

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Heterotrophs

143.

The products of cellular respiration become the (a)   of photosynthesis

144.

In a PROkaryotic cell, the DNA / Chromosome is found in the

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

145.

Mitosis is used for

a)

Growth and Repair

b)

Sexual Reproduction

c)

Making sperm and egg cells

d)

Bacteria to reproduce

146.

The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids are seperated is known as?

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

147.

The phase in which the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell is

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

148.

The phase in which the chromosomes first become visible is

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

149.

The longest phase where the cell grows, copies its DNA and prepares to divide is known as

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

150.

The phase in which the two new nuclei form but the cytoplasm as not been split into two new cells yet

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Telophase

151.

Cytokinesis in plant cells is different from that in animal cells

a)

True

b)

False

152.

Which option lists the steps of cell division in the correct order.

a)

prophase, metaphse, telophase, interphase, anaphase

b)

metaphase, anaphase, telophase, interphase, prophase

c)

interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

interphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase

153.

Meiosis is used to create

a)

Sperm and egg cells

b)

Muscle Cells

c)

Liver Cells

d)

All of the above

154.

If a diploid cell entering meiosis has 22 chromosomes how many will the gamete cells produced at the end of the process have?

a)

22

b)

44

c)

11

d)

5.5

155.

A cell entering mitosis has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will one of the cells at the end of this process have inside of their nucleus?

a)

32

b)

54

c)

16

d)

8

156.

The egg cell of one species of organisms has 23 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will a sperm cell from the same species have?

a)

23

b)

46

157.

The cells made by meiosis are used for_________ reproduction.

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

158.

Which phase leads to the start of both mitosis and meiosis and is the longest?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Cytophase

d)

Interphase

159.

Interphase is broken into 3 stages, in which stage is the DNA synthesized causing the chromosomes to replicate?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

160.

During which part of interphase does a cell make its final preparations before mitosis?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

161.

In meiosis a cell has 4 pairs of chromosomes, how many different genetic variations can be created from this cell just by independent assortment?

a)

8

b)

4

c)

16

d)

32

162.

In meiosis each of these processes create genetic diversity except

a)

crossing over

b)

independent assortment

c)

cytokinesis

d)

random fertilization

163.

Chromosomes that have the same genes but maybe DIFFERENT versions(alleles) of those genes are called

a)

twin chromosomes

b)

sister chromosomes

c)

sister chromatids

d)

homologous chromosomes

164.

Crossing over, when the homologous chromosomes exchange DNA occurs during

a)

Interphase 1

b)

Prophase 1

c)

Interphase 2

d)

Prophase 2

165.

This type of cell would be considered haploid, meaning it would contain only ONE copy of a chromosome for each pair

a)

Sperm cell

b)

Body cell

166.

This type of cell would be diploid meaning it contains TWO copies of each chromosome for each pair

a)

Egg cell

b)

Body cell

167.

1 round of cell division

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

168.

2 rounds of cell division

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

169.

Produces Diploid body cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

170.

Produces haploid gametes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

171.

Cells created are identical

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

172.

Cells created are unique

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

173.

Has an interphase stage

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

174.

Random assortment of chromosomes occurs at the metaphase plate; resulting in genetic variation in daughter cells.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

175.

This process produces 2 daughter cells that have the same chromosome number as the original parent cell.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

176.

Nuclear Division Occurs

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

177.

When the cells spend less time in interphase and more time actively dividing and making more cells faster than they should this is known as

a)

Cancer

b)

Flu

c)

Common Cold

d)

Chicken pox

178.

1. What process will produce 2 new strands of DNA during the S phase of interphase?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

translocation

179.

What is the function of DNA?

a)

store proteins

b)

make bonds in organic molecules

c)

store genetic information to make proteins

d)

make lipids

180.

What is the name of the monomer units of nucleic acids?

a)

nucleotides

b)

amino acids

c)

proteins

d)

polypeptides

181.

Where is DNA found in the cell of a fungus?

a)

ribosome

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

cell membrane

182.

What enzyme controls the unwinding and unzipping of DNA during DNA replication?

a)

DNA helicase

b)

Ribozymes

c)

DNA ligase

d)

DNA polymerase

183.

The two sides of DNA are made up of repeating units of what?

a)

phosphate and nitrogen

b)

sugar and water

c)

sugar and phosphate

d)

sugar and nitrogen bases

184.

Which of the following is NOT a difference between DNA and RNA?

a)

double vs. single strands

b)

glucose vs. galactose sugar

c)

thymine vs. uracil

d)

stays in nucleus vs. moving to the cytoplasm

185.

Uracil is considered a type of what?

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

nitric acid

d)

nitrogen base

186.

In RNA, adenine always pairs with which of the following?

a)

thymine

b)

guanine

c)

uracil

d)

cytosine

187.

tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA is made through a process known as what?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

transition

188.

Which molecule carries the code from the DNA to the ribosome?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

cRNA

d)

mRNA

189.

Where in the cell is the DNA transcribed into RNA?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

golgi body

d)

plasma membrane

190.

Where does the process of translation take place?

a)

in the nucleus

b)

on the golgi body

c)

in the smooth ER

d)

in the ribosome

191.

Which of these statements best explains how genes and proteins are related?

a)

genes are segments of DNA that code for proteins.

b)

proteins are segments of DNA that code for genes.

c)

genes are the building blocks of proteins.

d)

DNA codes for proteins that instruct the ribosome how to make genes

192.

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with its function?

a)

rRNA- contains material that makes up ribosomes

b)

DNA- carries the amino acids to the ribosomes

c)

tRNA- brings amino acids to the site of the ribosome

d)

mRNA- carries genetic codes from nucleus to the ribosomes

193.

How many nucleotides make up one RNA codon? (the codon codes for one amino acid)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

194.

If a protein required the assembly of 900 amino acids, how many nitrogen bases would be required to code for that protein?

a)

9000

b)

3000

c)

2700

d)

12000

195.

Suppose all of the ribosomes in a cell were destroyed. How would this most likely affect the process of gene expression.

a)

The DNA double strand would be unable to separate

b)

The cell would be unable to form mRNA strands

c)

The amino acids could not be joined to form a protein

d)

The DNA would not be able to copy itself

196.

If a codon has a substitution mutation that changes an RNA sequence from UGC to UGU will result in

a)

nonsense mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

missense mutation

d)

non-disjunction

197.

If a codon has a substitution mutation that changes an RNA sequence from UGC to UGA will result in

a)

nonsense mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

missense mutation

d)

non-disjunction

198.

If a codon has a substitution mutation that changes an RNA sequence from UGC to UGG will result in

a)

nonsense mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

missense mutation

d)

non-disjunction

199.

Which option below would MOST LIKELY result in a non-functioning protein

a)

Silent mutation

b)

Missense Mutation

c)

Nonsense Mutation

200.

Which option below would MOST LIKELY result in a non-functioning protein

a)

DNA with 2 deletions

b)

DNA with 4 deletions and 1 insertion

c)

DNA with 3 insertions

d)

DNA with 3 deletions