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Pesticide Applicator Core Exam

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of a private pesticide applicator?

a)

A producer using pesticides on his private land

b)

A landscape company that sprays roundup in flower beds

c)

An exterminating company that treats houses for termites

d)

A pesticide distributor or salesman

2.

Which of the following is a resonsibility for certified applicators?

a)

Adhere to the pesticide label

b)

Keep pesticide application records

c)

Report accidents or incidents

d)

Attend continuing education courses to keep certificates up to date

e)

All of these are responsibilities of certified applicators

3.

Which of the following is required information for submitting a pesticide accident report?

a)

Employer information

b)

Social security number of involved persons

c)

Daily weather conditions

d)

Time, Date, and Location of accident

4.

An employee at a daycare center places ant baits in the lobby of the center and sprays for cockroaches. What type of certificiation do they need?

a)

They do not need certification.

b)

Private Pesticide Applicator Certification

c)

Commercial Pesticide Applicator Certification

d)

Daycare Pesticide Applicator Certification

5.

Why do we need to manage the risk of pesticides?

a)

Protect the user

b)

Protect the public

c)

Protect the enviroment

d)

All of the above

6.

All pesticide incidents or accidents should be reported to the Virginia Office of Pesticide Services within ___ hours.

a)

12

b)

24

c)

48

d)

72

7.

Pesticides can be stored in any bottle or bag.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Leaching of pesticides is dependent on:

a)

% soil organic matter, % soil clay content, irrigation method

b)

% soil clay content, depth of water table, pesticide application method

c)

% soil organic matter, % soil clay content, depth of water table

9.

Empty pesticide containers must be rinsed:

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

10.

Pesticides should be transported:

a)

In the back of a truck

b)

In a vehicle in a separate place from passengers

c)

Never

11.

Diluted pesticides and rinsate (rinse water) can be disposed of:

a)

Anywhere

b)

At the application site

c)

In a drain

12.

REI signage must be removed within:

a)

7 days

b)

3 days

c)

1 day

13.

ALL pesticides must be registered with the EPA.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Which of the following is not true about pesticides labeled as "Restricted Use"?

a)

They require special care and handling.

b)

They may only be sold to certified applicators.

c)

They are only applied in agricultural environments.

d)

They can only be handled by trained people or under supervision.

15.

Where should you look to see if a pesticide is classified as "Restricted Use"?

a)

In a box on the front of the label

b)

Near the barcode on the bottom of the packaging

c)

On the shelf at the retail store

d)

Google search engine?

16.

Which signal word is indicated by this picture?

a)

Danger-Poison

b)

Warning

c)

Caution

d)

Hazardous

17.

Which signal word means that the product is slightly toxic and is less likely to cause acute illness?

a)

Danger-Poison

b)

Warning

c)

Caution

d)

Hazard

18.

Which section of a label will list recommended treatments for poisoning or exposure to pesticides?

a)

Precautionary Statment

b)

Statement of Practical Treatment

c)

Agricultural Use Requirements

d)

Directions for Use

19.

What must appear on ALL pesticide labels?

a)

Harmful if Swallowed

b)

Caution

c)

Keep Out of Reach of Children

d)

Re-Entry Intervals

20.

Which section of the label will identify restricted entry intervals?

a)

EPA Registration Number

b)

Ingredient Statement

c)

Conditions of Sale

d)

Agricultural Use Requirements

21.

Which product will provide detailed information about a product's physical and chemical properties, toxicity, and accident procedures?

a)

The product label

b)

The product SDS

c)

The product advertising literature

d)

The product receipt of purchase

22.

When should you read the label?

a)

Before mixing, loading and applying a pesticide

b)

Before storing a pesticide

c)

Before disposing of a pesticide

d)

All of the above

23.

The pesticide label is a binding legal agreement between whom?

a)

The manufacturer

b)

The EPA

c)

The applicator

d)

All of the above

24.

Which of the following is legal?

a)

Applying pesticides at higher concentrations than listed on the label.

b)

Applying pesticides at lower concentrations than listed on the label.

c)

Applying pesticides more frequently than listed on the label.

d)

Using less PPE for mixing, loading, and applying than listed on the label.

25.

Which type of pesticide ingredient includes chemicals that control pests?

a)

Active Ingredients

b)

Inactive Ingredients

c)

Adjuvant

d)

Surfactants

26.

Which type of pesticide ingredient includes chemicals that control pests?

a)

Active Ingredients

b)

Inactive Ingredients

c)

Adjuvant

d)

Surfactants

27.

Which factors should applicators consider when choosing a pesticide formulation?

a)

Availability of necessary equipment

b)

Chances that the product will harm the surface being treated

c)

Which product will be most effective?

d)

All of the above should be considered?

28.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding a solution?

a)

It is the result of dissolving a substance in a liquid

b)

It cannot be separated

c)

Solutions should be agitated maintain even particle distribution

d)

Solutions are transparent (light can pass through them)

29.

What is the general term for a formulation that is sold as and end use dilution?

a)

Restricted Use

b)

General Use

c)

Ready to Use

d)

Don't Use

30.

Which of the following is a dry formulation that can easily drift off target?

a)

Dust

b)

Granular

c)

Pellets

d)

Bait

31.

Which type of formulation forms a toxic, poisonous gas when applied?

a)

Fumigant

b)

Wettable Powder

c)

Ultra-Low Volume

d)

Aerosol

32.

What will a jar test help the applicator determine?

a)

Which PPE should be used for an application

b)

If products are safe for animal exposure

c)

If product is likely to leach offsite in runoff

d)

If two products are compatible for tank mixing

33.

How would you expect this product to be formulated?

a)

Water Soluble Bag

b)

Water Soluble Powder

c)

Microencapsulated

d)

Wettable Powder

34.

What word best describes the following words: wetting agents, thickeners, compatability agents, safeners, spreaders, and stickers?

a)

Adjuvants

b)

Active Ingredients

c)

Caution Words

d)

Dry Formulations

35.

What concentration of active ingredients would you expect to find in this product?

a)

8%

b)

80%

c)

92%

d)

Not enough information

36.

Which of the following would be surfactants?

a)

Drift control additives, defoaming agents

b)

Emulsifiers, plant penetrants

c)

Spreaders, wetting agents

d)

Buffers or pH modifiers

37.

Which type of pesticide formulation is dry and usually requires no mixing?

a)

Dust

b)

Granule

c)

Pellet

d)

Wettable Powders

38.

Which formulation requires constant agitation?

a)

Ready to Use

b)

Microencapsulated

c)

Wettable Powder

d)

Water Soluble Liquid

39.

Which material is most likely to be considered chemical resistant?

a)

Leather

b)

Cotton

c)

Nitrile

d)

Wool

40.

What part of the applicator's body is most likely to be exposed to pesticides?

a)

Hands

b)

Feet

c)

Face

d)

Belly

41.

What is a respirator?

a)

A tool to help keep your car's engine cool

b)

A safety device that covers your face and nose and protects the applicator's breathing

c)

A NIOSH approved type of gloves

d)

A term to describe when pesticides get stuck against the skin

42.

People with respiratory problems can wear a loose fitting respirator without getting a medical evaluation first.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

How should one go about picking the correct type of respirator for the job?

a)

Pick the most expensive

b)

Pick the most inexpensive

c)

Read the label

d)

Use whatever you have on hand

44.

Which scenario does not require extra PPE?

a)

Walking into a previously treated area after the REI

b)

Applying pesticides in enclosed spaces

c)

Adjusting pesticide contaminated equipment

d)

Immersing hands and forearms into pesticides

45.

How should you dispose of coveralls that have highly toxic pesticide concentrate spilled on them?

a)

Wash, line dry, reuse

b)

Take to a hazardous waste collection site

c)

Burn or incinerate them

d)

Donate them to the Goodwill

46.

All ____ and early entry agricultural workers are legally required to follow PPE instructions on the product labeling.

a)

Farmers

b)

Pesticide Handlers

c)

Supervisors

d)

Registered Technicians

47.

The minimum items required to wear on most pesticide labels are:

a)

Safety glasses

b)

Long sleeved shirt, long pants, shoes, and socks

c)

Respirator

d)

Chemical resistant gloves

48.

When should reusable PPE be washed?

a)

Before removal and strorage

b)

Before use

c)

Washing it will lessen its effectiveness

d)

Before purchase

49.

How often should PPE be cleaned?

a)

After every use

b)

After every 3 uses

c)

At least once per month

d)

At least once per growing season

50.

If pesticide is spilled on your skin, you should:

a)

Finish the application job and then take a cold shower

b)

Wash immediately with water and soap

c)

Amputate the impacted area in the field

d)

Spit on it to neutralize the pesticide

51.

Which of the following is not a sensitive area?

a)
b)
c)
d)
52.

Which of the following is point source pollution?

a)

Oil in street waste water after a rain

b)

Over applying lawn fertilizer

c)

Erosion of pesticide contaminated soil

d)

Spills of concentrated pesticides when mixing or loading

53.

Pesticide movement offsite through the air is called?

a)

Leaching

b)

Runoff

c)

Drift

d)

Persistance

54.

Which word best describes pesticide movement through water that moves across the surface of the ground?

a)

Leaching

b)

Runoff

c)

Drift

d)

Persistance?

55.

Which word describes the movement of water downward through the soil?

a)

Leaching

b)

Runoff

c)

Drift

d)

Persistance

56.

Which weather factors contribute towards pesticide drift?

a)

Strong winds

b)

Low relative humidity

c)

High temperatures

d)

Temperature inversions

e)

All of these contribute towards pesticide drift.

57.

What type of soil is most prone to rapid leaching into groundwater?

a)

Sand (coarse particles)

b)

Silt (average particles)

c)

Clay (fine particles)

d)

All soil types leach at the same rate.

58.

Which pesticide would be most likely to move offsite in water?

a)

Highly soluble and highly persistent

b)

Low solubility and low adsorptive

c)

Low persistence and high adsorption

d)

Low solubility and high adsorption

59.

Which strategy is not a widely accepted strategy to prevent groundwater contamination?

a)

Use an air gap when filling your tank

b)

Use a check valve or anti-siphon device when filling the tank

c)

Locate mixing and loading areas at least 100' away from the water table

d)

Mix and load pesticides in a shallow creek bed so spills will wash away from your property.

60.

A volatile pesticide:

a)

Can quickly make the applicator angry

b)

Changes from a liquid to a gas after application

c)

Changes price very frequently

d)

Is generally best for use in sensitive areas

61.

Hazard =

a)

Toxicity + Exposure

b)

Toxicity - Exposure

c)

Toxicity x Exposure

d)

Toxicity / Exposure

62.

What route of pesticide exposure is this?

a)

Oral

b)

Inhalation

c)

Ocular

d)

Dermal

63.

What type of pesticide exposure is this?

a)

Oral

b)

Inhalation

c)

Ocular

d)

Dermal

64.

Which type of exposure is most common for pesticide handlers?

a)

Oral

b)

Inhalation

c)

Ocular

d)

Dermal

65.

Which choice is most likely to cause an accidental ingestion of pesticide?

a)

Keeping pesticides in their original containers

b)

Store leftover pesticide concentrate in smaller containers (ex. coke bottle)

c)

Clearly identify measuring containers as "Pesticide Use Only"

d)

Label all secondary pesticide containers

66.

If the pesticide applicator is working from inside an enclosed cab tractor, they may wear less PPE than required by the label.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Which pesticide is more toxic? A pesticide with an LD50 of:

a)

5 mg/kg

b)

50 mg/kg

c)

500 mg/kg

d)

5,000 mg/kg

68.

What type of toxicity is caused by prolonged exposure to small amounts of pesticide?

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

c)

Delayed

d)

Allergic

69.

Nausea, diarrhea, headache, difficulty breathing, body aches, and chest pains are symptoms of:

a)

Pesticide poisoning

b)

Pesticide allergies

c)

Heat Stroke

d)

Pop quizzes in this class

70.

What is heat stress?

a)

When pesticides stop working in high temperatures

b)

When the human body is subjected to more heat than it can handle

c)

When insects die from a fever after pesticide exposure

d)

When applicators get stressed after too many late lunch breaks

71.

Pesticides are chemicals that are used to protect crops from_______.

a)

insects

b)

rodents

c)

weeds

d)

all of the above

72.

Pesticides and fruits remain in food grains,vegetables and fruits after they are applied to crops are known as ___________.

a)

biomagnification

b)

biological amplification

c)

pesticide residue

d)

weedicide

73.

When mixing and pouring a pesticide, it is best to do it:

a)

Above your head, to avoid ocular exposure

b)

At eye level, to maintain accuracy

c)

Below face level, to prevent splashing on your face

74.

What are your legal responsibilities as a pesticide applicator?

a)

Follow labeling instructions to the letter

b)

Provide pesticide handlers with specific instructions

c)

Make sure no workers are overexposed to pesticides

d)

All of the above

75.

Which of the following is not a common way that pesticides might accidentally be transferred to others?

a)

Sitting in a car or chair while wearing soiled PPE

b)

Using the bathroom right after a pesticide application

c)

Giving high fives in the parking lot after work

d)

Taking pesticide contaminated clothing home.

76.

Which of the following should be taken into consideration when choosing a pesticide formulation?

a)

Application site and equipment

b)

Pesticide movement

c)

Personal Safety

d)

Target Pest

e)

All of the above

77.

Cleaning pesticide contaminated equipment presents a much smaller risk to the handler than actually applying the pesticides.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which type of application method involves application of a pesticide to the leafy parts of a plant?

a)

Band

b)

Broadcast

c)

Foliar

d)

Tree Injection

79.

Why is it important to apply the right amount of pesticide to the target site?

a)

Too little pesticide may not control the pest

b)

Too much pesticide may cause damage or injury

c)

Too much pesticide may lead to fines or legal action

d)

All of the above

80.

Which type of sprayer would be best to make a broadcast application to a 25 acre field?

a)

Hand sprayer

b)

Boom sprayer

c)

Drop spreader

d)

Backpack sprayer

81.

During a test, 1/2 gallon is applied to 250 square feet. The label calls for 1 gallon per 1000 square feet. Is it right?

a)

You are applying the correct amount.

b)

You are applying too little.

c)

You are applying too much.

d)

There is not enough information.

82.

A product label recommends 2 pints per acre. The boom sprayer uses 10 gallons of water per acre. What do you need to treat a 10 acre field?

a)

2 pints of spray, 10 gallons of water

b)

20 pints of spray, 10 gallons of water

c)

2 pints of spray, 100 gallons of water

d)

5 gallons of spray, 100 gallons of water

83.

A rectangular shaped field with dimensions that measure 50' x 10' has an area of:

a)

5 square feet

b)

50 square feet

c)

500 square feet

d)

5,010 square feet

84.

When calibrating equipment, you should take into consideration:

a)

The uniformity of pesticide output

b)

The application rate

c)

Both the uniformity and application rate

85.

How many square feet are in one acre?

a)

1,000 ft2

b)

660 ft2

c)

3,301 ft2

d)

43,560 ft2

86.

Which of the following causes drift?

a)

Equipment features and setttings

b)

Spray characteristics

c)

Environmental conditions

d)

Application site features

e)

All of these can cause drift

87.

What can an applicator do to reduce the potential for drift?

a)

Increase the droplet size

b)

Lower the operating pressure of the sprayer

c)

Lower the boom height of the sprayer

d)

All of the above