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Clinical 1 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A germicide is an agent that destroys pathogenic microorganisms.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Employees must provide their own alternative to latex gloves if they show signs of latex anaphylaxis

a)

True

b)

False

3.

What are the two important factors in performing an effective hand wash?

a)

Friction and running warm water

b)

Antibacterial soap and hot water

c)

Length of time spent and type of soap

d)

Position of the hands and temperature of the water

4.

Gloves, gowns, and goggles are examples of:

a)

personal protective equipment

b)

engineering controls

c)

sterilization

d)

asepsis

5.

The pulse rate may vary with the age of each patient.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The potential for the development of hypertension increases with a patient’s age and weight.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

How long should the pulse be counted for the most accurate results?

a)

1 minute

b)

15 seconds

c)

30 seconds

d)

45 seconds

8.

Caffeine may temporarily increase a patient’s blood pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

When a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the first tapping sound is the ______ pressure.

a)

systolic

b)

diastolic

c)

mean arterial

d)

pulse

10.

Which of the following pulses is palpated in the throat?

a)

carotid

b)

apical

c)

brachial

d)

radial

11.

When using proper body mechanics, medical assistants should twist the body in the direction of the object to be lifted.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Bending both the knees and keeping the back straight is the best method of picking up a heavy object.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

A murmur indicates a possible problem with a cardiac valve.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

If you are interested in working with patients of all ages who seek help for a wide variety of disorders, employment with which medical specialist would be your best choice?

a)

primary care physician

b)

oncologist

c)

orthopedic surgeon

d)

physical medicine physician

15.

During a physical examination, the physician is listening to sounds from the heart. What method would she be using to do their assessment?

a)

auscultation

b)

percussion

c)

palpation

d)

manipulation

16.

A patient interview may be conducted in a quiet corner of the waiting room.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

When conducting a patient interview, the medical assistant should sit behind a desk with arms crossed and wait for the patient to establish eye contact.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Children should always be given a choice whether to take their medication.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Mr. Ignatio’s daughter called today and wants details about her father’s diagnosis. How should the medical assistant manage this request?

a)

Refer to Mr. Ignatio’s authorization of access to his personal information before answering any questions.

b)

Send the daughter a copy of her father’s records.

c)

Ask the daughter come to the office to review the patient’s record.

d)

Call the patient’s attorney for approval.

20.

Mr. Ignatio tells Taylor, the medical assistant, that he is really worried about developing foot ulcers because of his diabetic condition. Taylor has only 10 minutes to spend on patient education today, and he planned to review glucometer techniques. What is the best approach?

a)

Address Mr. Ignatio’s concern 1st by explaining the importance of foot care and then cover questions about his glucometer.

b)

Give Mr. Ignatio a handout about foot care.

c)

Continue with the lesson on glucometers, because that material is more important.

d)

Tell Mr. Ignatio “no time today” they will discuss his circulation problems at the next visit.

21.

If a patient calls the physician’s office with a life-threatening emergency, you should place the person on hold while you activate EMS.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Hypoglycemia means elevated blood sugar

a)

True

b)

False

23.

If a patient is feeling faint, have them sit with their head in between their knees

a)

True

b)

False

24.

A patient faints in the reception room and falls to the floor. The medical assistant should:

a)

check for a pulse

b)

roll the patient onto his or her right side

c)

place a pillow under the patient’s head and shoulders

d)

place a pillow under the patient’s head and shoulders, keeping the feet and legs flat

25.

On discovering an unresponsive person, the medical assistant first should assess the:

a)

pulse

b)

heart sounds

c)

blood pressure

d)

skin temperature

26.

An AED is used for:

a)

an abnormal heart rhythm

b)

seizures

c)

shock

d)

CVA

27.

A CVA is a:

a)

stroke

b)

heart attack

c)

seizure

d)

defibrillator

28.

The patient may stand 10 feet away from the Snellen Chart during eye examination

a)

True

b)

False

29.

If the patient starts to squint or lean forward during a Snellen exam, the medical assistant should continue to go down the rows until the patient makes more than two errors.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The medical term that means the “study of the skin” is:

a)

dermatology

b)

dermopathy

c)

dermatitis

d)

dermal

31.

Hemorrhoids are the enlargement of veins either internally or externally in the rectal area.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

The condition in newborns that is caused by high levels of bilirubin in the blood is jaundice

a)

True

b)

False

33.

To which specialist would a patient most likely be referred if a routine physical examination revealed an abnormality in the lower portion of the descending colon?

a)

gastroenterologist

b)

internist

c)

oncologst

d)

pathologist

34.

Colon cancer can be visualized during a(n):

a)

colonscopy

b)

barium enema

c)

EGD

d)

CT scan

35.

What is a permanent form of male birth control?

a)

Vasectomy

b)

Erectile Dysfunction

c)

Condom

d)

Balanitis

36.

Which procedure is used to examine the urethra and bladder?

a)

Cystoscopy

b)

Digital exam

c)

DMSA scan

d)

Ultrasound

37.

Which of the following is not a means of transmitting the HIV virus?

a)

shaking hands

b)

breast feeding

c)

blood transfusion

d)

sexual intercourse

38.

A BRAT diet is used to treat:

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Colic

d)

Obesity

39.

Conjunctivitis is known as...

a)

pink eye

b)

strep throat

c)

ear infection

d)

UTI

40.

If a partner is helping you transfer a patient from a wheelchair, the wheels don't have to be locked

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The most common of a gout flare-up is the great toe.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Loss of bone mass is known as:

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

osteolysis

c)

osteodystrophy

d)

osteoclasis

43.

A _______ occurs when a bone has been completely displaced from the joint.

a)

Dislocation

b)

Sprain

c)

Strain

d)

Fracture

44.

The physician may spray a topical anesthetic on a surgical site before injecting a local anesthetic.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Nylon suture material is nonabsorbent and strong and has a high degree of elasticity.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Choose the smallest diameter of a suture strand.

a)

5-0

b)

2-0

c)

3-0

d)

1-0

47.

Which of the following is/are true about the autoclave process?

a)

Steam simultaneously heats and wets the objects being autoclaved.

b)

When the cycle is finished and the chamber has cooled, microorganisms have been destroyed.

c)

The mechanism of action is steam under pressure.

d)

All of the above

48.

Which of these anesthetic agents is injected into subcutaneous tissue, resulting in temporary cessation of feeling at the site of the injection?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

ethyl chloride

c)

fluori-methane

d)

normal saline

49.

How should instruments be handled after the surgery is complete?

a)

Use a sanitizing/disinfectant detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds.

b)

Wait until any blood on the instrument has dried before cleaning.

c)

Keep all instruments locked to prevent accidental injury.

d)

place heavier contaminated instruments on the floor

50.

What is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life?

a)

sterilization

b)

sanitization

c)

disinfection

d)

germicide