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4.3 - Biomechanics Review

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Are quantities that are fully described by a magnitude (or numerical value) alone

a)

Vectors

b)

Scalers

c)

Displacement

d)

Velocity

2.

The push or pull applied to an object causing a change in motion or a push or pull between two objects that may or mot not result in motion

a)

Force

b)

Displacement

c)

Impulse

d)

Velocity

3.

Are quantities that are fully described by both a magnitude (numerical value) and a direction

a)

Scalers

b)

Distance

c)

Speed

d)

Vectors

4.

Length of the path the body follows

a)

Displacement

b)

Distance

c)

Speed

d)

Velocity

5.

How far away the body has moved from its starting point

a)

Displacement

b)

Distance

c)

Speed

d)

Velocity

6.

Is a scalar quantity that refers to "how fast an object is moving"

a)

Velocity

b)

Impulse

c)

Speed

d)

Momentum

7.

is a vector quantity that refers to the "rate at which an object changes its position"

a)

Velocity

b)

Impulse

c)

Speed

d)

Momentum

8.

Once a body is moving the momentum of the body is a product of its mass multiplied by its velocity

a)

Velocity

b)

Impulse

c)

Speed

d)

Momentum

9.

Movement that results from a force

Relates to linear motion, velocity, speed, acceleration, momentum

a)

Motion

b)

Impulse

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Momentum

10.

The rate of change in velocity

a)

Vectors

b)

Displacement

c)

Acceleration

d)

Velocity

11.

What is the relationship between angular momentum (L), moment of inertia (I) & angular velocity (w)

a)

L = I x w

b)

w = L x I

c)

w = L ÷ I

d)

I = L ÷ w

12.

A measure of the force applied for a specific time

a)

Motion

b)

Impulse

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Momentum

13.

The mathematical point around which the mass of a body is evenly distributed or a point at which the weight of an object is balanced in all directions

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Centre of Mass

14.

The resultant (or net) force an object experiences is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Centre of Mass

15.

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Centre of Mass

16.

_______ can be described by how difficult it is for a body to rotate about an axis

a)

Impulse

b)

Moment of Inertia

c)

Angular Velocity

d)

Angular Momentum

17.

Angular momentum is affected by which two factors?

a)

Torque

b)

Moment of Inertia

c)

Angular Velocity

d)

Angular Momentum

18.

A force applied outside the centre of mass, resulting in angular motion

a)

Torque

b)

Moment of Inertia

c)

Eccentric Force

d)

Angular Momentum

19.

Moment of Inertia is affected by:

a)

The mass of an object

b)

The shape of the object

c)

The angular velocity of the object

d)

The distance of the object from its axis of rotation

20.

The movement of a body or body part in a circular path about an axis of rotation can be described as:

a)

Angular Motion

b)

Angular Velocity

c)

Moment of Inertia

d)

Torque

21.

The rate of change in angular displacement can be described as:

a)

Angular Motion

b)

Angular Velocity

c)

Moment of Inertia

d)

Torque

22.

The measure of how much turning force has been applied to a body can be described as:

a)

Angular Motion

b)

Angular Velocity

c)

Moment of Inertia

d)

Torque

23.

How difficult it is for a body to rotate about an axis can be described as:

a)

Angular Motion

b)

Angular Velocity

c)

Moment of Inertia

d)

Torque

24.

Angular Velocity and Moment of Inertia are inversely proportional

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Momentum and Moment of Inertia are inversely proportional

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Momentum and Impulse are proportional

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, angular momentum will decrease if moment of inertia decreases

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, angular momentum will increase if moment of inertia increases

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, angular momentum will increase if angular velocity increases

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, angular momentum will decrease if angular velocity decreases

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, if angular velocity increases:

a)

Angular momentum will increase

b)

Angular momentum will decrease

c)

Moment of Inertia will increase

d)

Moment of Inertia will decrease

32.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, angular momentum will remain constant unless acted upon by an unbalanced force

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, if angular velocity decreases:

a)

Angular momentum will increase

b)

Angular momentum will decrease

c)

Moment of Inertia will increase

d)

Moment of Inertia will decrease

34.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, if angular velocity increases:

a)

Angular momentum will increase

b)

Angular momentum will decrease

c)

Moment of Inertia will increase

d)

Moment of Inertia will decrease

35.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, if moment of inertia decreases:

a)

Angular velocity will increase

b)

Angular velocity will decrease

c)

Angular momentum will increase

d)

Angular momentum will decrease

36.

Once an eccentric force has been applied, if moment of inertia increases:

a)

Angular velocity will increase

b)

Angular velocity will decrease

c)

Angular momentum will increase

d)

Angular momentum will decrease

37.

The diver is moving within a frontal plane about a sagittal axis

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The diver is moving within a frontal plane about a transverse axis

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The diver is moving within a sagittal plane about a transverse axis

a)

True

b)

False

40.

At point number 2 the diver has a _______ moment of inertia than at point number 3

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

c)

Equal

41.

At point number 3 the diver has a _______ moment of inertia than at point number 4

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

c)

Equal

42.

At point number 3 the diver has a _______ angular velocity than at point number 4

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

c)

Equal

43.

At point number 2 the diver has a _______ angular velocity than at point number 3

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

c)

Equal

44.

When a gymnast performing a floor routine enters into a tuck position while performing a somersault, their angular velocity will increase because they are moving their body closer to their axis of rotation

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The figure skater is rotating in the frontal plane about a sagittal axis

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The figure skater is rotating in the sagittal plane about a frontal axis

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The figure skater is rotating in the transverse plane about a longitudinal axis

a)

True

b)

False

48.

In position A the figure skater has:

a)

A higher moment of inertia 

b)

A lower moment of inertia

c)

A higher angular velocity

d)

A lower angular velocity

49.

In position B the figure skater has:

a)

A higher moment of inertia 

b)

A lower moment of inertia

c)

A higher angular velocity

d)

A lower angular velocity

50.

An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Centre of Mass

51.

Line of gravity

a)

The point at which the mass of a body or object are balanced in all directions

b)

The location of a body or object where most of the weight is supported

c)

An imaginary line which passes through the centre of mass to a point in the base of support

d)

When the centre of mass is outline the line of gravity

52.

Centre of Mass

a)

The point at which the mass of a body or object are balanced in all directions

b)

The location of a body or object where most of the weight is supported

c)

An imaginary line which passes through the centre of mass to a point in the base of support

d)

When the centre of mass is outline the line of gravity

53.

Base of Support

a)

The point at which the mass of a body or object are balanced in all directions

b)

The location of a body or object where most of the weight is supported

c)

An imaginary line which passes through the centre of mass to a point in the base of support

d)

When the centre of mass is outline the line of gravity

54.

Mass and Weight are never used synonymously

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Mass is a vector

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Weight is a vector

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Weight differs from mass in that it takes into account the weight of gravity acting upon the mass of a body/object

a)

True

b)

False

58.

For bodies or objects in which the force of gravity does not vary, the two "centers" are in the same place which is why centre of mass & centre of gravity are often used synonymously

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Mass does not change with location

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Weight will change when:

a)

A pole vaulter reaches the apex of their jump

b)

A high jumper uses the Fosbury Flop technique

c)

When a basketball player has just taken flight when attempting a dunk

d)

When an astronaut is on the moon

61.

When a basketball player raises both of their hands while keeping both feet on the ground as they try to contest a layup, their centre of mass will:

a)

Move up

b)

Move down

c)

Move outside of their body

d)

Remain the same

62.

If a gymnast performing a handstand is stable & stationary we can assume that the gymnast's line of gravity is:

a)

In line with their base of support

b)

Outside their base of support

63.

The centre of mass is always inside the body

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The Fosbury Flop (the common high jumping technique used today) puts the centre of mass:

a)

Outside of the body

b)

Higher within their body

c)

Below the curvature of their back

d)

Above the curvature of their back

65.

The centre of mass is the point at which a body will rotate about its axis when experiencing angular motion

Ex. A diver performing a somersault or a gymnast performing a cartwheel

a)

True

b)

False

66.

When a basketball player enters into a low defensive position, they raise their centre of mass and are therefore more stable

a)

True

b)

False

67.

When a basketball player enters into a low defensive position, they lower their centre of mass and are therefore more stable

a)

True

b)

False

68.

When a sumo wrestler enters into a low position, they lower their centre of mass and are therefore less stable

a)

True

b)

False

69.

When a volleyball player begins to raise their arms above their head while performing a set, they raise their centre of mass and are therefore less stable

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Identify 2 factors that could make the base of support more stable

a)

Increasing an individuals strength

b)

Widening the base of support

c)

Lowering the centre of mass

d)

Raising the centre of mass

71.

Identify 2 factors that could make the base of support more stable

a)

When the base of support falls within the line of gravity

b)

When the base of support is outside the line of gravity

c)

If an athlete is a greater mass

d)

Raising the centre of mass

72.

The Fosbury Flop technique enables high jumpers to clear greater heights because:

a)

The are able to produce a greater force at take-off

b)

They are able to raise their centre of mass higher

c)

Their centre of mass is outside of their body, so they do not need to raise their centre of mass as high

d)

It enables them to decrease their moment of inertia

73.

This is an example of which type of lever?

a)

Third Class

b)

Fourth Class

c)

Second Class

d)

First Class

74.

This is an example of which type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Third Class

c)

Fourth Class

d)

Second Class

75.

This is an example of which type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Second Class

c)

Third Class

d)

Fourth Class

76.

Which of the following describes a second class lever?

a)

The fulcrum is in the middle of the effort and the load

b)

The load is in the middle between the fulcrum and the effort

c)

The effort is in the middle between the fulcrum and the load

d)

The fulcrum is directly beside the effort

77.

Which of the following describes a third class lever?

a)

The fulcrum is in the middle of the effort and the load

b)

The load is in the middle between the fulcrum and the effort

c)

The effort is in the middle between the fulcrum and the load

d)

The load is greater than the effort

78.

Which of the following describes a first class lever?

a)

The fulcrum is in the middle of the effort and the load

b)

The load is in the middle between the fulcrum and the effort

c)

The effort is in the middle between the fulcrum and the load

d)

The effort is greater than the load

79.

This is an example of what type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Second Class

c)

Third Class

80.

This is an example of what type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Second Class

c)

Third Class

81.

This is an example of what type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Second Class

c)

Third Class

82.

This is an example of what type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Second Class

c)

Third Class

83.

This is an example of what type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Second Class

c)

Third Class

84.

This is an example of what type of lever?

a)

First Class

b)

Second Class

c)

Third Class

85.

The following image shows the origin & insertion of the triceps brachii. When performing a tricep pushdown, the triceps contracts concentrically moving the elbow from flexion into extension. Why would this be a class 1 lever rather than a class 3 lever like a bicep curl? (select all boxes that apply)

a)

Because the bicep curl occurs on the anterior portion of the body

b)

Because the insertion point of the biceps brachii crosses over the elbow joint (inserts on the radius)

c)

Because the insertion point of the triceps does not cross over the elbow joint (inserts on the olecranon of the ulna)

d)

Because when the triceps contracts concentrically, the elbow moves from flexion into extension rather than extension into flexion

86.
How long did it take this object to travel 10 m?
a)
0 s
b)
10 s
c)
15 s
d)
20 s
87.
How many times does this object STOP moving?
a)
None
b)
Once
c)
Twice
d)
Three times
88.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
89.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
90.
This is a velocity-time graph.  What is the object doing in segment B?
a)
Positive acceleration
b)
Negative acceleration
c)
Constant Velocity
d)
Not moving
91.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
92.
What kind of acceleration is shown here?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
none
d)
varies
93.
This is a velocity-time graph.  What is the object doing in segment A?
a)
Positive acceleration
b)
Negative acceleration
c)
Constant Velocity
d)
Not moving
94.

The image displays a force-time graph from a sprinter during a 100m race - describe the net impulse

a)

The net impulse is positive

b)

The net impulse is negative

c)

The net impulse is zero

d)

None of the above

95.

The image displays a force-time graph from a sprinter during a 100m race - describe the motion of the sprinter

a)

The sprinter is accelerating

b)

The sprinter is decelerating

c)

The sprinter is at rest

d)

The sprinter is running at a constant velocity

96.

The image displays a force-time graph from a sprinter during a 100m race - describe the net impulse

a)

The net impulse is positive

b)

The net impulse is negative

c)

The net impulse is zero

d)

None of the above

97.

The image displays a force-time graph from a sprinter during a 100m race - describe the motion of the sprinter

a)

The sprinter is accelerating

b)

The sprinter is decelerating

c)

The sprinter is at rest

d)

The sprinter is running at a constant velocity

98.

The image displays a force-time graph from a sprinter during a 100m race - describe the net impulse

a)

The net impulse is positive

b)

The net impulse is negative

c)

The net impulse is zero

d)

None of the above

99.

The image displays a force-time graph from a sprinter during a 100m race - describe the motion of the sprinter

a)

The sprinter is accelerating

b)

The sprinter is decelerating

c)

The sprinter is at rest

d)

The sprinter is running at a constant velocity

100.

Force is a:

a)

Vector

b)

Scalar

101.

If f = ma and a greater force is being applied to an object - what can we expect in regards to the acceleration of the object?

a)

A greater acceleration

b)

A gradual deceleration

c)

A rapid deceleration

d)

Constant velocity

102.

Which one of these is not a type of drag

a)

Water Resistance

b)

Mass

c)

Air Resistance

d)

Friction

103.

The action force applied by a sprinter exceeds the air resistance they are experiencing as they run towards to finish line - describe their motion

a)

They are at rest

b)

They are running at a constant velocity

c)

They are accelerating

d)

They are decelerating

104.

The action force applied by a sprinter is equal to the air resistance they are experiencing as they sprint between the 30M to 80M mark - describe their motion

a)

They are at rest

b)

They are running at a constant velocity

c)

They are accelerating

d)

They are decelerating

105.

The action force applied by a sprinter is less than the air resistance they are experiencing as they near the finish line - describe their motion

a)

They are at rest

b)

They are running at a constant velocity

c)

They are accelerating

d)

They are decelerating

106.

The diagram shows the changes in horizontal linear velocity experienced by an ice hockey puck after a slapshot that crosses the ice and eventually hits the boards and bounces back - how can the motion of the puck be described at time segment "P"

a)

It is at rest

b)

It is moving at a constant velocity

c)

It is accelerating

d)

It is decelerating

107.

The diagram shows the changes in horizontal linear velocity experienced by an ice hockey puck after a slapshot that crosses the ice and eventually hits the boards and bounces back - how can the motion of the puck be described at time segment "Q"

a)

It is moving at a constant negative velocity

b)

It is moving at a constant velocity

c)

It is accelerating

d)

It is decelerating

108.

The diagram shows the changes in horizontal linear velocity experienced by an ice hockey puck after a slapshot that crosses the ice and eventually hits the boards and bounces back - how can the motion of the puck be described at time segment "R"

a)

It is at rest

b)

It is moving at a constant velocity

c)

It is accelerating

d)

It is decelerating

109.

The diagram shows the changes in horizontal linear velocity experienced by an ice hockey puck after a slapshot that crosses the ice and eventually hits the boards and bounces back - how can the motion of the puck be described at time segment "S"

a)

It is moving at a constant negative velocity

b)

It is moving at a constant velocity

c)

It is accelerating

d)

It is decelerating

110.

The diagram shows the changes in horizontal linear velocity experienced by an ice hockey puck after a slapshot that crosses the ice and eventually hits the boards and bounces back - how can the motion of the puck be described at time segment "T"

a)

It is moving at a constant negative velocity

b)

It is moving at a constant velocity

c)

It is accelerating

d)

It is decelerating

111.

An object or body that is released into the air can be described as which of the following?

a)

Height of Release

b)

Angle of Release

c)

Trajectory

d)

Projectile

112.

All projectiles follow a "parabolic" flight path

a)

True

b)

False

113.

The "trajectory" of a projectile consists of:

a)

A horizontal component

b)

A vertical component

c)

Both a horizontal & vertical component

d)

Neither a horizontal or vertical component

114.

The horizontal component of a projectile gives the projectile height

a)

True

b)

False

115.

The vertical component of a projectile gives the projectile height

a)

True

b)

False

116.

The horizontal component of a projectile gives the projectile length

a)

True

b)

False

117.

Air resistance will act upon the horizontal component of a projectile's trajectory & therefore slow down the projectile

a)

True

b)

False

118.

The effect of air resistance is significant

a)

True

b)

False

119.

As the velocity of a projectile increases, the air resistance will also increase

a)

True

b)

False

120.

Which of the following factors have the most significant impact on the distance covered by a projectile?

a)

Height of Release

b)

Angle of Release

c)

Speed of Release

d)

None of the above

121.

If the take-off and landing points are the same & there is no air resistance, identify the ideal angle of release:

a)

35 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

50 degrees

d)

55 degrees

122.

If the angle of release is more or less than 45 degrees the distance covered in flight will be less

a)

True

b)

False

123.

For a shot putter, the ideal angle of release is 45 degrees

a)

True

b)

False

124.

The ideal angle of release (approximately) for a shot putter is:

a)

42 degrees

b)

47 degrees

c)

50 degrees

d)

54 degrees

125.

The reason why the ideal angle of release for a shot putter would be approximately 42 degrees is because:

a)

The shot put is light enough to use a slightly less vertical trajectory

b)

The height of release is different from the landing point of the projectile

c)

The shot put is too heavy to release at an angle of 45 degrees

126.

A higher height of release will result in:

a)

Lesser duration of time that the projectile will travel horizontally

b)

Greater duration of time that the projectile is in the air

c)

Greater distance covered by the projectile

d)

Lesser distance covered by the projectile

127.

A greater height of release would mean that the initial horizontal velocity will be acting on the projectile for longer

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Identify the appropriate relationship for the height of release & angle of relase

a)

If the height of release increases, the angle of release decreases

b)

If the height of release increases, the angle of release increases

c)

If the height of release decreases, the angle of release increases

d)

If the height of release decreases, the angle of release decreases

e)

i

129.

Gravity will:

a)

Limit the height a projectile can reach

b)

Have no effect on the horizontal motion of a projectile

c)

Not effect the vertical motion of a projectile

d)

Not limit the height a projectile can reach

130.

Having a higher initial vertical velocity will:

a)

Increase the height of the projectile

b)

Decrease the duration of flight

c)

Increase the duration of flight

d)

Increase the length of the projectile

131.

Having a higher initial horizontal velocity will:

a)

Increase the height of the projectile

b)

Decrease the duration of flight

c)

Increase the duration of flight

d)

Increase the length of the projectile

132.

What may be a good reason for a shot putter to use a slightly lesser or greater angle of release than 42 degrees?

a)

Due to the force of gravity

b)

If there is a really strong head wind

c)

If they are able to produce a greater speed of release at an alternate angle

d)

Because it may decrease the likelihood of arthritis later in life

133.

All athletic events take place in a fluid environment

a)

True

b)

False

134.

When an object moves through a liquid, the pressure it exerts reduces as its velocity increases

a)

True

b)

False

135.

An object travelling through fluid will always move toward the side with high velocity & low pressure

a)

True

b)

False

136.

If air flow velocity increases, air pressure will also increase

a)

True

b)

False

137.

If air flow velocity decreases, air pressure will increase

a)

True

b)

False

138.

Lift force is _________ to drag

a)

Parallel

b)

Linear

c)

Perpendicular

d)

None of the Above

139.

"The pressure exerted by a fluid is inversely proportional to its velocity" - This statement describes:

a)

Lift

b)

Drag

c)

Magnus Effect

d)

Bernoulli's Principle

140.

What describes the curved path that is observed by a spinning projectile?

a)

Lift

b)

Drag

c)

Magnus Effect

d)

Bernoulli's Principle

141.

According to Bernoulli's Principle, a golf ball hit with backspin will see the ball experience:

a)

Less air pressure below the ball & travel through the air longer

b)

Less air pressure above the ball & travel through the air longer

c)

Less air pressure below the ball & travel through the air for shorter time

d)

Less air pressure above the ball & travel through the air for shorter time

142.

As the golf ball travels with backspin it will experience:

a)

Higher air pressure below the ball and lower air pressure above the ball

b)

Higher air pressure above the ball and lower air pressure below the ball

c)

Higher air pressure above & below the ball

d)

Lower air pressure above & below the ball

143.

The ball is attracted to the area of ________________ which results in lift

a)

Higher air pressure

b)

Lower air pressure

c)

Symmetrical air pressure

144.

As the golf ball travels with backspin it will experience:

a)

Higher air flow velocity below the ball and lower velocity above the ball

b)

Higher air flow velocity above the ball and lower velocity below the ball

c)

Higher air flow velocity above & below the ball

d)

Lower air flow velocity above & below the ball

145.

When the ball is at its apex and the pressure is equal above and below the ball it will travel:

a)

Upward

b)

Downward

c)

Horizontally

146.

The faster the ball spins:

a)

The greater the difference in air pressure & less lift

b)

The greater the difference in air pressure & greater the lift

c)

The lesser the difference in air pressure & less lift

d)

The lesser the difference in air pressure & greater the lift

147.

The dimples in the golf ball causes:

a)

Turbulent air flow

b)

Laminar air flow

148.

The turbulence caused by the dimples in the golf ball result in:

a)

Less drag

b)

More drag

149.

A ball struck (laterally) off centre will spin in the air creating:

a)

Very similar air pressure on both sides, thus keeping the ball straight

b)

Very similar air pressure on both sides, causing the ball to curve

c)

Lower air pressure on one side, causing the ball to keep straight

d)

Lower air pressure on one side, causing the ball to curve

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