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Bacte Assess

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying species of the genus:

a)

Corynebacterium

b)

Listeria

c)

Enterococcus

d)

Staphylococcus

2.

A patient with a history of antibiotic use presents with diarrhea. Upon endoscopy, a pseudomembrane or plaque was observed. The most likely associated organism is:

a)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

b)

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Clostridium difficile

3.

Which of the following is bound on the cytoplasmic membrane of Staphylococcus aureus which has a high affinity for the Fc receptor on IgG molecules as well as complement?

a)

M protein

b)

Protein A

c)

PVL

d)

Hyaluronidase

4.

Abiotrophia spp. (formally known as nutritionally variant streptococci) will not grow on blood or chocolate agars unless supplied with:

a)

Pyridoxal

b)

Hemin

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Cysteine

5.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

S. pyogenes is the only species of beta-hemolytic streptococci that will give a positive PYR reaction

b)

S. agalactiae is able to hydrolyze hippurate and is positive in the CAMP test.

c)

S. pneumoniae is resistant to optochin.

d)

None of the above

6.

A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, lysostaphin susceptible, and modified oxidase negative is best identified as a member of the genus

a)

Micrococcus

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Streptococcus

d)

Pediococcus

7.

An infant was brought to the emergency room appearing limp and “floppy”. The mother stated that she has just started to introduce table foods to her baby’s diet. A few days prior, she noted her baby to be constipated and to have diminished suckling and crying. This condition was most likely caused by:

a)

Spoiled milk consumption

b)

Respiratory droplets

c)

Consumption of raw honey

d)

All of the above

8.

The etiologic agent most commonly associated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is:

a)

Streptococcus agalactiae

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Streptococcus bovis group

9.

The etiologic agent of erysipelas is:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

10.

The production of H2S is one characteristic used to differentiate which of the aerobic gram-positive bacilli?

a)

Corynebacterium

b)

Lactobacillus

c)

Nocardia

d)

Erysipelothrix

11.

Which one of the following is not appropriate when describing Mycoplasma hominis?

a)

Urease negative

b)

Produces large colonies with a characteristic fried egg appearance

c)

Stained with Dienes

d)

Produces hemolytic, pinpoint colonies that stains with Gram Stain

12.

What compound is only found in Gram-positive bacteria?

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Teichoic acid

c)

Capsule

d)

Outer Membrane

13.

Which of the following stains the metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

a)

Leifson

b)

Ziehl-Neelsen

c)

Methylene blue

d)

Calcofluor white stain

14.

Which Shigella species ferments mannitol and is ONPG and orntihine decarboxylase positive?

a)

Shigella dysenteriae

b)

Shigella flexneri

c)

Shigella sonnei

d)

Shigella boydii

15.

Which of the following statements regarding Yersinia enterocolitica is incorrect?

a)

Y. enterocolitica grows better with cold enrichment.

b)

Motility is clearly noted at 25° C but not at 35° C.

c)

CIN agar is a selective medium used to detect the presence of Y. enterocolitica.

d)

The organism cannot be isolated on routine isolation media.

16.

Yersinia pestis and Yersinia enterocolitica are both:

a)

Indole negative

b)

Methyl red positive

c)

Phenylalanine deaminase negative

d)

All of the Above

17.

Which of the following differentiates Proteus vulgaris from Proteus mirabilis?

I. Indole

II. H2S on TSI

III. Phenylalanine deaminase test

IV. Methyl Red

a)

I, II, IV

b)

I, IV

c)

All of the Above

d)

I only

18.

A positive Simmons citrate test is seen as a

a)

Blue color

b)

Green color

c)

Yellow color

d)

Red color

19.

Steam autoclave's setting includes:

a)

121°C, 15 psi, 15 minutes

b)

101°C, 25 psi, 15 minutes

c)

125°C, 15 psi, 25 minutes

d)

112°C, 10 psi, 10 minutes

20.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of this bacterium which is associated mainly with UTIs predominantly in female adolescents and young women?

a)

Gram-positive cocci

b)

Coagulase positive

c)

Novobiovin resistant

d)

None of the Above

21.

Alpha-hemolysis is seen on blood agar plate as

a)

No change in agar

b)

Clear area around colony

c)

Greenish discoloration of area around colony

d)

Small area of intact red blood cells around colony surrounded by a wider zone of complete hemolysis

22.

An organism produces a double hemolysis on egg yolk agar. This is due to what toxin

a)

Alpha toxin

b)

Beta toxin

c)

Hyaluronidase

d)

Exotoxin A

23.

Obligate intracellular organisms:

I. Chlamydia

II. Mycoplasma

III. Rickettsia

IV. Viruses

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

IV only

c)

All except II

d)

II, IV

24.

A patient presents with hematuria and hypertension as a case of PSGN. Which of the following tests is used to document prior impetigo?

a)

CBC

b)

ASO Titer

c)

Anti-DNAse B

d)

Elek Test

25.

Which of the manifestations is part of the clinical picture of the tertiary stage of syphilis?

a)

Soft chancre

b)

Gummas

c)

Condyloma lata

d)

Hard chancre

26.

All of the following bacteria have capsules EXCEPT:

a)

Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

Pseudomonas aerigunosa

e)

All are encapsulated

27.

Thayer-Martin agar contains the following antibiotics, EXCEPT:

a)

Nystatin

b)

Trimethoprim

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Colistin

28.

Which of the following is used as a prophylactic treatment to prevent gonococcal (Neisseria gonorrhoeae) conjunctivitis in newborns?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Silver nitrate drops

d)

All of the Above

29.

BCYE medium is used to isolate

a)

Corynebacterium diphtheria

b)

Bordetella pertussis

c)

Legionella pneumophila

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

30.

On what phase of the bacterial growth curve does beta-Lactam antibiotics act on?

a)

Lag phase

b)

Log phase

c)

Stationary phase

d)

Death phase

31.

Psittacosis is a lower respiratory infection in humans caused by contact with what animal?

a)

Rodents

b)

Dogs

c)

Birds

d)

Cats

32.

Class III biologic safety hood provides the highest level of personal protection. It is the most common in microbiology laboratories.

a)

First statement is correct, Second statement is incorrect

b)

First statement is incorrect, Second statement is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

33.

Which biosafety cabinet is being described? 30% Recirculated through HEPA, 70% exhausted

a)

II, A1

b)

II, B1

c)

I, B2

d)

II, A2

34.

Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile?

a)

B. cereus

b)

B. anthracis

35.

Which of the following correctly describes Escherichia coli O157:H7 on MacConkey-sorbitol agar?

a)

Lactose fermenter

b)

Sorbitol fermenter

c)

Lactose nonfermenter

d)

Sorbitol nonfermenter

36.

Ethylhydrocupreine HCl susceptibility is a presumptive test for the identification of:

a)

Viridans streptococci

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Streptococcus agalactiae

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

37.

A beta-hemolytic, catalase and esculin hydrolysis-positive, gram-positive bacteria was isolated. Growth was also observed in 6.5% NaCl. This is most likely:

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

Streptococcus agalactiaeStreptococcus agalactiae

d)

Enterococcus faecalis

38.

Fecal cultures are inoculated on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar specifically for the isolation of:

a)

Shigella

b)

Salmonella

c)

Vibrio

d)

Campylobacter

39.

Neisseria lactamica closely resembles Neisseria meningitidis but can be differentiated from it by its ability to metabolize:

a)

Maltose

b)

Glucose

c)

Lactose

d)

Sucros

40.

An oxidase-negative, gram-negative bacillus that produces an alkaline slant and acid butt on triple sugar iron (TSI) agar is able to ferment which of the following carbohydrates?

a)

Glucose only

b)

Glucose and lactose and/or sucrose

c)

Lactose only

d)

Lactose and sucrose, but not glucose

41.

Which of the following nonphotochromogen slow grower Mycobacteria species will be ruled out if niacin is negative?

a)

Mycobacterium gastri

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

d)

Mycobacterium xenopi

42.

All of the following are rapidly growing mycobacteria, EXCEPT:

a)

M. fortuitum

b)

M. chelonae

c)

M. smegmatis

d)

M. scrofulaceum

43.

Which of the following antibiotics is affected, mostly seen with P. aeruginosa, by concentration of cations in the environment?

a)

Sulfonamide

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Aminoglycosides

d)

Erythromycin

44.

Which of the following test results is most helpful in categorizing an isolate as a member of the Tribe Proteae?

a)

MR (-), VP (+)

b)

Urease positive

c)

Able to ferment lactose

d)

PAD (+)

45.

Which of the following exhibits a gliding motility?

a)

Campylobacter

b)

Capnocytophaga

c)

Listeria

d)

Proteus

46.

What is the appearance of the colonies of Shigella spp. in XLD agar?

a)

colorless colonies

b)

yellow colonies

c)

red colonies with black centers

d)

colorless colonies with black centers

47.

An organism that can live and grow in reduced concentrations of oxygen but prefers an anaerobic environment is known as a/an:

a)

Capnophile

b)

Obligate anaerobe

c)

Facultative anaerobe

d)

Aerotolerant anaerobe

48.

Which of the following produces a toxin similar to Shiga toxin produced by Shigella dysenteriae

a)

EIEC

b)

EHEC

c)

ETEC

d)

EAEC

49.

Which of the following correctly describes the violet pigment, violacein produced by Chromobacterium violaceum?

I. Ethanol-soluble

II. Ethanol-insoluble

III. Water-soluble

IV. Water-insoluble

a)

I, III

b)

II, IV

c)

I, IV

d)

II, III

50.

What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms?

a)

Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat

b)

Decolorization using acetone alcohol

c)

Counterstaining using Safranin

d)

Application of Gram's Iodine