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Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The minimum PDA for all Irish Rail incidents is

a)

3 Appliances, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, 2 DOs

b)

3 Appliances, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, 1 DO

c)

3 Appliances, 1 ET, 2 DO's

d)

4 Appliances, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, 1 DOs

2.

Power stations produce electricity and may have outputs as high as?

a)

2,675 Megawatts (MW)

b)

2,875 Megawatts (MW)

c)

2,675 Kilowatts (KW)

d)

2,875 Kilowatts (KW)

3.

The exclusion zone for 110kv overhead power lines is;

a)

3 metres

b)

4.5 metres

c)

6 metres

d)

10 metres

4.

The exclusion zone for bare LV and bare and covered 10kV, 20kV & 38kV

a)

1 metre

b)

3 metres

c)

6 metres

d)

10 metres

5.

High Voltage Power Lines lines are usually carried on metal pylons or wood pole structures and vary in height from;

a)

6.5 meters to 24 mtrs.

b)

8.5 meters to 24 mtrs.

c)

6.5 meters to 50 mtrs.

d)

8.5 meters to 50 mtrs.

6.

Individual power generation turbo-alternators have outputs as high as?

a)

900 MW

b)

900 KW

c)

450 MW

d)

450 KW

7.

The arcing hazard applies particularly in the case of 10,000 volts ( 10kv) – 400,000 volt (400kv) overhead power lines. The maximum danger zone is considered to be a corridor about;

a)

10 metres either side of any such high voltage lines

b)

20 metres either side of any such high voltage lines

c)

10 metres upwind of any such high voltage lines

d)

20 metres downwind of any such high voltage lines

8.

The exclusion zone for Insulated LV conductors in consultation with ESB Networks is;

a)

1 metre

b)

No exclusion zone required

c)

2 metres

d)

5 metres

9.

Voltages on the power supply network can vary from

a)

230 volts up to 400,000 volts (400 kV)

b)

110 volts up to 400,000 volts (400 kV)

c)

230 volts up to 220,000 volts (220 kV)

d)

230 volts up to 110,000 volts (110 kV)

10.

The exclusion zone for 400kv power lines is;

a)

6 metres

b)

8 metres

c)

10 metres

d)

9 metres

11.

The exclusion zone for 220kv power lines is;

a)

4.5 metres

b)

6 metres

c)

8 metres

d)

10 metres

12.

Fallen or broken lines/conductors should be treated as live at all times. There is a risk of step voltage in the vicinity of where the fallen line/conductor is touching the ground. Do not approach and;

a)

Stay a minimum of 5 meters away

b)

Stay a minimum of 10 meters away

c)

Stay a minimum of 20 meters away

d)

Stay a minimum of 2 meters away

13.

In circumstances of dense smoke, or where flames rise to high voltage power lines. Dublin Fire Brigade personnel must avoid positioning themselves within a “corridor” of how many metres either side of such overhead lines?

a)

10

b)

6

c)

20

d)

2

14.

The voltages present on the National Grid, are extremely high, normally between;

a)

110,000 volts (110kv) and 400,000 volts (400kv)

b)

35,000 volts (35kv) and 400,000 volts (400kv)

c)

110,000 volts (110kv) and 300,000 volts (300kv)

d)

110,000 volts (110kv) and 220,000 volts (220kv)

15.

Sub stations may have DC battery systems which will be live even when the power is disconnected. In addition overhead lines can be much lower than normally encountered increasing the possibility of contact. What voltage can be expected in these systems?

a)

24 - 220 volt

b)

12 - 220 volt

c)

24 - 400 volt

d)

110 - 400 volt

16.

Where it is known that the power lines are of a lower voltage i.e. 10kV, 20KV or 38 kV the corridor of working proximity can be reduced to how many meters either side?

a)

From 10 to 6

b)

From 10 to 5

c)

From 10 to 2

d)

From 10 to 8

17.

From the end of the "third man" phase, paramedic students must record a total of how many days and nights on the ambulance and the fire appliance whilst also keeping a record of all cases on the ambulance and motor?

a)

15 days and nights on the ambulance, 6 days and nights on the motor

b)

12 days and nights on the ambulance, 4 days and nights on the motor

c)

10 days and nights on the ambulance, 4 days and nights on the motor

d)

18 days and nights on the ambulance, 9 days and nights on the motor

18.

How many case studies should be undertaken in the postgraduate internship?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

19.

Following the "third man" phase of the undergraduate internship, recruit firefighters must then do how many weeks as part of the crew on an ambulance other than where there are 2 consecutive days or nights. (2nd day or night on the motor)

a)

12

b)

8

c)

14

d)

10

20.

How many case studies are required from undergraduate interns?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

21.

In the postgraduate Internship, recruits will do 2 days and 2 nights on the ambulance and 5 days and 5 nights Fire/Rescue a month with the aim being to achieve what?

a)

22 days and nights on the ambulance and 55 days and nights on motor in total over a 12 month period

b)

18 days and nights on the ambulance and 30 days and nights on motor in total over a 12 month period

c)

30 days and nights on the ambulance and 60 days and nights on motor in total over a 12 month period

d)

a bad attitude towards the beefer from doing it so much

22.

With regards to Clinical Adverse Events, the Medical Director has the responsibility of providing the CFO and ACFO with reports on same. How regularly should the Medical director provide reports on Clinical Adverse Events?

a)

Quarterly

b)

Annually

c)

Monthly

d)

Bi-annually

23.

BA Identification tallies have dimensions of

a)

125mm x 38mm

b)

130mm x 40mm

c)

120mm x 30mm

d)

110mm x 35mm

24.

When testing BA Guideline it should be examined about _____mm at a time

a)

300

b)

400

c)

500

d)

1000

25.

What length are the knotted tabs on a guideline?

a)

25mm

b)

30mm

c)

50mm

d)

75mm

26.

Branch guideline tallies are

a)

100mm x 50mm

b)

120mm x 50mm

c)

100mm x 80mm

d)

100mm x 75mm

27.

What length are the unknotted tabs on a guideline?

a)

125mm

b)

130mm

c)

175mm

d)

150mm

28.

Main Guideline tallies are discs ___ mm in height

a)

75mm

b)

80mm

c)

60mm

d)

90mm

29.

What is the distance between the tabs on a guideline?

a)

2.5m

b)

3m

c)

1.25m

d)

1m

30.

The holes in branch guideline tallies are

a)

15mm

b)

20mm

c)

10mm

d)

12mm

31.

BA Guideline is __mm to __ mm in diameter

a)

6 to 8

b)

5 to 7

c)

7 to 9

d)

5 to 10

32.

If testing a BA Guideline a steady pull to the line should be maintained for ----------- and then released. For how long ?

a)

20 secs

b)

1 minute

c)

30 secs

d)

10 secs

33.

What is the distance between the knotted and unknotted tabs on a BA guideline?

a)

150mm

b)

125mm

c)

50mm

d)

250mm

34.

What is the minimum quantity of air that must be available before a wearer of airline equipment enters a risk area?

a)

4500litres

b)

4000litres

c)

3000litres

d)

300bar

35.

The recommended time will depend on the nature of the incident, emotional state of those involved and the question of who should attend. The frame for such a de-briefing is;

a)

1-10 days

b)

3-5 days

c)

5-10 days

d)

3 days

36.

Page 3 of the S/O's CISM Guidelines describes possible traumatic incidents that should be highlighted and monitored for probable CISM intervention. How many of these are there?

a)

11

b)

12

c)

14

d)

10

37.

When the on call CISM team member is alerted of an incident they should do the following; (Choose 4)

a)

Contact ERRC within 20mins to gather further info

b)

Contact S/O within a further 30 mins to offer support

c)

Activate CISM and appropriate intervention

d)

Record in writing the alert and response

e)

Attend the incident within 30 mins and report to the OIC

38.

In CISM it is the responsibility of Station Officers that Pre Incident Education training/refresher training is delivered in their stations. This should occur;

a)

On a bi-annual basis

b)

On an annual basis

c)

Every month

d)

Every 2 years

39.

The CISM system policy will be reviewed and audited by the CISM team;

a)

On an annual basis

b)

Every 5 years

c)

Every 4 years

d)

Every 2 years

40.

Premises and locations used as places of public assembly can be categorised as large. This is for premises which accommodate more than ___ people

a)

300

b)

150

c)

500

d)

3000

41.

Under Section ___ of the Planning and Development Act, 2000 and Part 16 of the Planning & Development Regulations, 2001 a license is required in respect of the holding of outdoor events

a)

231

b)

123

c)

321

d)

132

42.

Premises and locations used as places of public assembly can be categorised as medium. This is for premises accommodating up to __ people

a)

300

b)

60

c)

500

d)

150

43.

Premises and locations used as places of public assembly can be categorised as small. This is for premises accommodating up to ___ people

a)

60

b)

30

c)

80

d)

100

44.

An outdoor event covered by this legislation comprising of ____ or more peoplemust apply to the Local Authority for a License including details of temporary structures which

it is proposed to erect.

a)

5000

b)

500

c)

3000

d)

7500

45.

The minimum PDA for incidents involving fires at places of public assembly and entertainment venues will be:

a)

2WT + 1DO

b)

3WT + 1DO

c)

3WT, ET + 1DO

d)

1WT

46.

With regard to the Safety Health and Welfare at Work Act 2005, General Duties of the Employer, part 2, Section (____) Dublin Fire Brigade provide appropriate supervision at all incidents at which they are required to attend

a)

g

b)

ii

c)

vii

d)

d

47.

There are how many steps in the Occupational Blood Exposure Policy?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

48.

In Dignity at Work upon receiving a complaint, it is important to meet with the parties and arrange the joint meeting(s) without undue delay. The first meetings should typically take place not more than;

a)

1 week

b)

1 month

c)

2 weeks

49.

Please note that you must normally submit complaints under the Dignity at Work Policy to the appropriate line manager within...

a)

6 months of the latest incident of the alleged behaviour

b)

3 months of the latest incident of the alleged behaviour

c)

1 year of the latest incident of the alleged behaviour

d)

an unlimited timeframe from the latest incident of alleged behaviour

50.

In dignity at work there is a local process which involves how many steps?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

8

d)

4

51.

Resolving complaints of dignity at work through a Formal Investigation has how many steps?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

10

d)

5

52.

A dignity at work appeal will only be considered in respect of the process of the Facilitated Process. No appeal is allowed in respect of any findings. Any appeal about how the process was conducted should be made in writing;

a)

Within 7 days

b)

Within 14 days

c)

Within 1 month

d)

As soon as practically possible

53.

The acetylene gas is stored under pressure at approximately ** bars pressure at ***C.

a)

17 bar and 15 degrees

b)

15 bar and 17 degrees

c)

13 bar and 13 degrees

d)

19 bar and 14 degrees

54.

Acetylene is a highly flammable compound. The flammability limits are particularly wide, ranging from **% lower explosive limit (LEL) to **% upper explosive limit

(UEL)

a)

2.5% to 80%

b)

40% to 90%

c)

3.5% to 85%

d)

15% to 70%

55.

With oxygen the upper explosive limit of acetylene rises to **%

a)

93%

b)

88%

c)

72%

d)

91%

56.

Acetylene cylinders are fitted with pressure relief devices, which are designed to operate when the internal pressure exceeds pre-set limits. A “bursting disc” on the back of the valve, that operates at ** bar.

a)

90

b)

80

c)

50

d)

60

57.

Two fusible plugs on an acetylene cylinder should be near the valve designed to melt at **C. Some older cylinders may still be in circulation with fusible plugs in the base.

a)

100

b)

90

c)

50

d)

60

58.

The acetylene then ignited will burn with a loud roaring sound and a flame * to * metres in length for ** minutes from a full cylinder.

a)

4 to 5 metres in length for 20 minutes

b)

4 to 5 metres in length for 25 minutes

c)

3 to 4 metres in length for 20 minutes

d)

5 to 6 metres in length for 20 minutes

59.

At a concentration of **% acetylene will produce unconsciousness.

a)

25

b)

10

c)

50

d)

75

60.

Fragments from an exploding acetylene cylinder can spread over an area *** metres in diameter.

a)

200

b)

100

c)

400

d)

50

61.

The following minimum response shall be mobilised for this type of incident; involving an acetylene cylinder

a)

3 Motors, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, 1 CIU, 1 DO

b)

3 Motors, 1 ET, 1 DO

c)

3 Motors, 1 ET, 1 DO, 1 Ambulance

d)

3 Motors, 1 ET, 1 DO, 1 CIU

62.

The evacuation zone for incidents involving acetylene should be:

a)

200 M

b)

500M

c)

50M

d)

100M

63.

Acetylene cylinders involved in fire should be cooled for ** Hours

a)

24

b)

12

c)

6

d)

36

64.

The reasonable safe distance recommended for a Hazard Zone regarding acetylene cylinders is *** metres.

a)

200

b)

100

c)

400

d)

300

65.

Acetylene cylinders involved in fire have been known to fail up to ** hours after exposure, but never after 24 hours.

a)

12

b)

16

c)

18

d)

22

66.

When using the wetting test on an acetylene cylinder, how long should the cylinder remain wet/cold for to determine the cylinder safe

a)

30 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

60 minutes

d)

20 minutes

67.

In water, double the speed is

a)

Quadruple the force

b)

Double the force

c)

Triple the force

d)

The force is with you

68.

Force of Water. A flow of _____ per second exerts a force of almost _____ kgs on a persons legs in a depth of approximately ____ m.

a)

1, 8, 1

b)

2, 8, 1

c)

1, 4, 1

d)

2, 4, 1

69.

The Speed of Tidal flow can be as much as ?

a)

8 mph

b)

5 mph

c)

10 mph

d)

15 mph

70.

In a rescued casualty. Secondary drowning may occur up to _____ hours after water has entered the body and death may occur.

a)

72

b)

24

c)

36

d)

48

71.

How many levels of response for Water related incidents? (phases)

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

8

72.

How many best practice guidelines for water safety are there?

a)

12

b)

10

c)

8

d)

15

73.

The minimum PDA for a water rescue is

a)

3 pumping appliances, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, DFB Boat, 1 D/O

b)

2 pumping appliances, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, DFB Boat, 1 D/O

c)

1 pumping appliances, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, DFB Boat, 1 D/O

d)

2 pumping appliances, 1 ET, 1 Ambulance, 1 TTL, DFB Boat, 1 D/O

74.

The crew of the appliance that operated the rescue boat should ideally include a coxswain and how many SRT's?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

75.

Summer inland water temperatures are known to average between ___ and ___ degrees C.

a)

10, 15

b)

8, 12

c)

12, 16

d)

6, 10

76.

Swimming pool temperatures are from __ to __ degrees C

a)

24 to 28

b)

28 to 30

c)

30 to 34

d)

26 to 32

77.

The full performance cycle of the PMDS involves how many conversations during the year?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

78.

For Fire Service purposes 3 generic road types are considered for road classification; (Choose 3)

a)

High-speed Roads ≥ 100kph

b)

Single carriageways ≤ 80 kph

c)

Urban Low-speed ≤ 30 kph

d)

Dual carriageways ≥ 80kph

79.

Some HGV vehicles can carry over how many litres of fuel?

a)

600 with 300 in reserve

b)

400 with 200 in reserve

c)

300 with 150 in reserve

d)

900 with 450 in reserve

80.

Airbags deploy at extremely high speed, typically taking how long for for complete deployment?

a)

80 milliseconds

b)

180 milliseconds

c)

10 milliseconds

d)

18 milliseconds

81.

From after 2020, all new Dublin Bus fleet ordered will be Hybrid driven design, and all shall be of;

a)

“SG” design and seating/standing capacity

b)

“VG” design and seating/standing capacity

c)

“VT” design and seating/standing capacity

82.

Fluoro-elastomers present a risk at vehicle fires as during decomposition hydrofluoric acid is produced. This happens when exposed to temperatures above;

a)

400 ̊C

b)

600 ̊C

c)

200 ̊C

d)

300 ̊C

83.

Single deck buses which are quite common in the Dublin region have capacity for approximately;

a)

50 sitting passengers and 20 standing

b)

60 sitting passengers and 10 standing

c)

40 sitting passengers and 30 standing

d)

30 sitting passengers and 40 standing

84.

In Airbag systems an electrical charge initiates a chemical reaction in the generators. The gas generator may contain how much sodium azide?

a)

350 to 500 grams

b)

300 to 600 grams

c)

500 to 1000 grams

d)

600 to 750 grams

85.

The metal inflator module, to which the airbag is attached, may reach a temperature of how much following on from being deployed?

a)

3000 Celcius

b)

300 Celcius

c)

1000 Celcius

d)

1800 Celsius

86.

What is the minimum distance out on all sides of the vehicle(s) / object(s) involved should the works area provide?

a)

2 meters

b)

1.2 meters

c)

1.5 meters

d)

5 meters

87.

The storage pressure of Liquefied Natural Gas is about 8 bar and at what temperature?

a)

Approximately -160C

b)

Approximately 160C

c)

Exactly -160C

d)

Exactly 160C

88.

The safety zone surrounds the work zone. What should the lateral distance be from the traffic edge to the edge of the work zone? The study pack contains 2 answers below.

a)

1.2 meters

b)

1.5 meters

c)

2 meters

d)

2.5 meters

89.

Dublin bus currently operates three different grades of buses. The “VT”,”SG”, and “VG”. “VT” has capacity for

a)

92 sitting and 32 standing

b)

82 sitting and 22 standing

c)

76 sitting and 38 standing

d)

88 sitting and 40 standing

90.

Compressed Natural Gas is stored in specially designed steel or composite cylinders is compressed to between ____ with a normal operating pressure of approximately 3000 psi (206 bar)

a)

2400 – 3600 psi (165-248 bar)

b)

2000 - 4000 psi

c)

1000 - 5000 psi

d)

3000 - 3400 psi

91.

Double deck buses on suburban routes have a maximum capacity of between;

a)

70 and 88 passengers in total

b)

60 and 80 passengers in total

c)

90 and 100 passengers in total

d)

75 and 90 passengers in total

92.

Dublin bus currently operates three different grades of buses. The “VT”,”SG”, and “VG”. “VG” has capacity for;

a)

73 sitting and 15 standing

b)

53 sitting and 25 standing

c)

63 sitting and 35 standing

d)

83 sitting and 5 standing

93.

Seatbelt pre-tensioners (SBPT) are designed to ‘pin’ occupants of the motor vehicle firmly to their seat. These normally deploy in tandem with airbags and reduce slack in the seatbelt by up to;

a)

120 mm

b)

150 mm

c)

100 mm

d)

20 mm

94.

Many airbag systems are designed by the manufacturer to self-deploy when the internal temperature exceeds;

a)

150 degrees

b)

180 degrees

c)

300 degrees

d)

100 degrees

95.

Dublin bus currently operates three different grades of buses. The “VT”,”SG”, and “VG”. “SG” has capacity for;

a)

67 sitting and 28 standing

b)

77 sitting and 38 standing

c)

57 sitting and 18 standing

d)

67 sitting and 38 standing

96.

"Mass casualty incident” is defined as any incident involving __ to ___ patients.

a)

20 to 100

b)

15 to 50

c)

30 to 75

d)

10 to 100

97.

A "Multi-patient incident" is defined as any incident with fewer than ___ patients

a)

20

b)

15

c)

30

d)

10

98.

There are ___ steps in the procedure for MCI incidents

a)

3

b)

5

c)

4

d)

6

99.

Command Support 3 holds __ extra trauma kits, carrying sheets and EMS sector tabards.

a)

30

b)

50

c)

10

d)

25

100.

“Disaster” is defined as any incidents involving more than ___ patients

a)

48

b)

50

c)

96

d)

100

101.

How many areas/cordons are there in an MCI event?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

102.

The mass casualty POD is available within __ minutes.

a)

30

b)

15

c)

60

d)

90

103.

If the Garda Síochána have not already done so, warning signs should be erected approximately how many meters each side of the incident?

a)

200 to 400

b)

100 to 200

c)

50 to 100

d)

100

104.

High Visibility Vests to be worn are the following standard;

a)

Long sleeve grade 3 EN471

b)

Short sleeve grade 3 EN147

c)

Long sleeve grade 1 EN471

d)

Long sleeve grade 3 EN4174

105.

The PDA for incidents on roads will vary due to the differing nature of each incident. The PDA for a Chemical Incident is;

a)

3 Pumps - 1 ET - Chemical Incident Unit

1 District Officer - 1 Ambulance

1 District Officer as Safety Officer where deem necessary

b)

2 Pumps - 1 ET - Chemical Incident Unit

1 District Officer - 1 Ambulance

1 District Officer as Safety Officer where deem necessary

c)

Pumps - 1 ET - Chemical Pod

1 District Officer - 1 Ambulance

1 District Officer as Safety Officer where deem necessary

d)

3 Pumps - 1 ET - Chemical Incident Unit

1 District Officer

106.

Brigade radio equipment should not be used inside, or in the vicinity of, a vehicle if the airbag has not activated. A radio exclusion zone should be established of how many meters?

a)

10

b)

2

c)

5

d)

12

107.

Manufacturers of LARGE tyres advise that no one should approach within ____ metres if fire is endangering the tyres. A cordon should be maintained for ____ hours after the fire has been extinguished

a)

500 / 24

b)

100 / 12

c)

200 / 24

d)

50 / 48

108.

The PDA for incidents on roads will vary due to the differing nature of each incident. The PDA for a Chemical Spillage is;

a)

3 Pumps, 1 ET, Chemical Incident Unit, 1 Ambulance

1 District Officer, 1 District Officer as Safety Officer where deemed necessary

b)

2 Pumps, 1 ET, Chemical Incident Unit, 1 Ambulance

1 District Officer, 1 District Officer as Safety Officer where deemed necessary

c)

3 Pumps, 1 Ambulance, 1 District Officer, 1 District Officer as Safety Officer where deemed necessary

d)

3 Pumps, Chemical Incident Unit, 1 Ambulance

1 District Officer, 1 District Officer as Safety Officer where deemed necessary

109.

There is a possibility that a tyre on a HGV or very large vehicle may explode when it is involved in a fire or exposed to excessive heating. A hazard zone of what should be established for a HGV tyre on fire?

a)

30 metres at an angle of 45°

b)

30 metres at an angle of 90°

c)

45 metres at an angle of 60°

d)

45 metres at an angle of 30°

110.

Always watch approaching traffic when positioning signs. A car travelling at 112kph (70mph) travels

a)

31 metres in a second

b)

100 metres in a second

c)

70 metres in a second

d)

112 metres in a second

111.

How many managerial levels are associated with emergency incidents?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

6

d)

1

112.

Gas tight suits protect against dusts, powders, aerosols / sprays and gases. Those in Operation in DFB include; (Choose 2)

a)

Disposable / limited life - EN 943-2:2002 (type 1)

b)

Reusable - EN 464:1994

c)

Disposable / limited life - EN 943-2:2002 (type 2)

d)

Reusable - EN 464:2004

113.

The PDA for a Haz-Mat incident is;

a)

1 D/O + 2 Water Tenders + 1 Emergency Tender + Haz Mat Response Pod (Driver from Delta 11) + Haz-Mat Recovery Unit where required, crewed from No12.

b)

2 D/O + 2 Water Tenders + 1 Emergency Tender + Haz Mat Response Pod (Driver from Delta 11) + Haz-Mat Recovery Unit where required, crewed from No12.

c)

1 D/O + 3 Water Tenders + 1 Emergency Tender + Haz Mat Response Pod (Driver from Delta 11) + Haz-Mat Recovery Unit where required, crewed from No12.

d)

T/O + 1 D/O + 2 Water Tenders + 1 Emergency Tender + Haz Mat Response Pod (Driver from Delta 11) + Haz-Mat Recovery Unit where required, crewed from No12.

114.

A biological agent is a micro-organism, including those that have been genetically modified, a cell culture and a human endoparasite, which may be able to provoke any infection, allergy or toxicity. Agents are classified into how many risk groups?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

115.

Where a case of Long-term absence has been established it is recommended a review takes place after 1 month. When should HR be notified?

a)

If absence continues into a second month

b)

After 2 months

c)

After 3 months

d)

Immediately

116.

Where a case of Long-term absence has been established it is recommended a review takes place after how long of continuous absence?

a)

1 month

b)

6 weeks

c)

8 weeks

d)

3 months

117.

Human Resources Department will generally only become involved in addressing a particular grievance where the first ____ stages of the process at local level have been exhausted

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

118.

How many stages exist in the Grievance procedure?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

119.

Following an appeal decision the right to a further and final internal appeal to the Executive Manager in the Human Resources Department must be made within;

a)

10 days addressed to Executive Manager, Human Resources Department

b)

14 days addressed to Executive Manager, Human Resources Department

c)

10 days addressed to Employee Relations Officer, Human Resources Department

d)

14 days addressed to Employee Relations Officer, Human Resources Department

120.

The complainant(s) should be informed in writing of the appeal decision of their grievance as soon as possible, and no later than ____ weeks after the appeal interview. This timeline may be altered in the event of further investigation being necessary, including follow up interviews where necessary.

a)

4

b)

2

c)

1

d)

6

121.

A complainant is an employee who makes a complaint to the employer.A group of employees may also make a complaint. However, representation in the process is restricted to how many employees?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

122.

The supervisor/manager dealing with the grievance invites the complainant(s) to an interview using the template memo (Appendix 2). This grievance interview should be arranged as soon as possible, and no later than;

a)

4 weeks

b)

2 weeks

c)

6 weeks

d)

1 week

123.

he complainant(s) should be informed in writing of the decision within ____ weeks of the grievance interview/s and the conclusion of any investigations. This timeline may be altered in the event of, for example, further investigation being necessary, including follow up interviews where necessary.

a)

4

b)

8

c)

6

d)

2

124.

The time period to make the appeal from the receipt by the complainant(s) of the grievance decision is how many days?

a)

10

b)

14

c)

28

d)

7

125.

A course director should request a copy of the course portfolio from the Training DC no later that __ days to the commencement of the course

a)

21

b)

14

c)

7

d)

28

126.

The course director is responsible to requisition the equipment required as specified in the course portfolio using document 8 - training equipment requisition form. This must be submitted __ days prior to the commencement of the course

a)

14

b)

7

c)

21

d)

28

127.

When new CPGs are released there is a time period that all practitioners must be upskilled. This is

a)

One year

b)

18 Months

c)

6 Months

d)

Two years

128.

To go heavy driving a FF must have how many months satisfactory service?

a)

30

b)

24

c)

36

d)

48

129.

The General Data Protection Regulations were created when?

a)

2016

b)

2018

c)

2014

d)

2017

130.

Where a GDPR retrieval or provision of requested information is particularly complex or is subject to a valid delay, the period may be extended by;

a)

2 further months

b)

2 further weeks

c)

1 further month

d)

6 further weeks

131.

Under GDPR employees have a right of access to their information. When requested information must be provided within a maximum or how long?

a)

1 month

b)

2 months

c)

3 months

d)

6 months