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Year 10 final exam revision

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The atomic mass of an element tells you

a)

The number of protons and neutrons

b)

The number of protons and electrons

c)

The number of neutrons and electrons

d)

The number of neutrons only

2.

The atomic number tells you

a)

The number of electrons

b)

The number of protons

c)

The number of neutrons

d)

The number of nucleons

3.

Which statement best describes the following species: Al3+

a)

This is an aluminium cation. It has lost 3 electrons

b)

This is an aluminium cation. It has gained 3 electrons

c)

This is an aluminium anion. It has lost 3 electrons

d)

This is an aluminium anion. It has gained 3 electrons

4.

Which statement best describes the following species: O2-

a)

This is an oxygen anion. It is called oxygen

b)

This is an oxygen anion. It is called oxide

c)

This is an oxygen cation. It is called oxygen

d)

This is an oxygen cation. It is called oxide

5.

How would you name the following compound? MgS2

a)

Magnesium sulfur

b)

Dimagnesium sulfide

c)

Magnesium sulfide

d)

Magneside sulfide

6.

Kinetic energy is...

a)

energy of a moving object

b)

stored energy

c)

gravitational energy

d)

black holes

7.

Force is measured in...

a)

Kilograms (kg)

b)

Newtons (N)

c)

Joules (J)

d)

Midichlorians

8.

Velocity should be measured in...

a)

Meters per second (m/s)

b)

Kilometers per hour (km/h)

c)

Joules (J)

d)

Bransons (B)

9.

Acceleration should be measured in...

a)

Meters per second squared (m/s2)

b)

Meters per second (m/s)

c)

Newtons per second (N/s)

d)

Flame stickers

10.

Mass is measured in...

a)

Kilograms (kg)

b)

Newtons (N)

c)

Joules (J)

d)

Pounds (lbs)

11.

Newton's first law is best described by...

a)

Things that move stay moving, things that are stopped stay stopped.

b)

Things that are speeding up are accelerating.

c)

Things that are moving will eventually stop.

d)

A textbook on Physics.

12.

A good example of Newton's second law is...

a)

An increase in acceleration by reducing the weight of a vehicle.

b)

An increase in mass making it harder to move a vehicle.

c)

An increase in Force measured when mass of a vehicle decreases.

d)

A decrease in acceleration by increasing Force generated by a vehicle's engine.

13.

Newton's second law is best described by...

a)

Force = mass × acceleration

b)

Changing the force on an object changes the acceleration

c)

Changing the mass of an object will change it's acceleration

14.

Newton's third law is best described by...

a)

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.

b)

A reaction will occur every time I mix chemicals

c)

Every action requires force.

d)

Force = mass × acceleration

15.

A good example of Newton's third law is...

a)

A runner pushes down on the ground to generate a force sending them up and forwards.

b)

A runner pushes down on the ground so they can run real good.

c)

A kicked footy will apply an opposite force if it hits you.

d)

A kicked footy would eventually fly off into space without air resistance.

16.

Using f=ma, which would option would be used for finding mass?

a)

m=F÷a

b)

m=F×a

c)

m=F+a

d)

m=Fa

17.

Using f=ma, which would option would be used for finding acceleration?

a)

a=F÷m

b)

a=m÷F

c)

a=F×m

d)

m=Fa

18.

What is the name of a positively charged subatomic particle located in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Proton

b)

Electron

c)

Molecule

d)

Neutron

19.

What is the name of a neutral charged subatomic particle in an atom?

a)

Proton

b)

Electron

c)

Nucleus

d)

Neutron

20.

Is the chemical equation balanced?

a)

Yes.

b)

No.

21.

What is the name of the negatively charged subatomic particle in an atom?

a)

Molecule

b)

Electron

c)

Proton

d)

Subscript

22.

Atoms are made up of:

a)

nucleus, ions, periods.

b)

groups, elements, compounds.

c)

positives, negatives, neutrons.

d)

Protons, neutrons, electrons.

23.

Is the chemical equation balanced?

a)

Yes.

b)

No.

24.

Over generations of time apart on different islands with different food sources, the separated populations of Galapagos finches accumulated genetic differences until each group had different beaks. This is an example of _____.

a)

natural selection

b)

genetic drift

c)

adaptation

d)

speciation

25.
What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?
a)
Their feathers 
b)
Genotypes 
c)
Their beaks
d)
Their body sizes
26.

Natural selection results in change in a population's _____________ traits over time.

a)

inherited

b)

acquired

27.

Brown mice survive and reproduce in their desert environment better than white mice because owls can see and eat the white mice more easily. In this situation, what part of the environment is doing the selecting?

a)

predator

b)

soil composition

c)

mouse fur color

d)

sexual preferences

28.

Individuals undergo evolution.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

30.

What is speciation?

a)

combining of two species to form one with different traits

b)

Intentional breeding designed to maintain a desired trait

c)

timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection

d)

A population splits and accumulates different genes in the new groups

31.

Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?

a)

People selectively breeding hamsters for size.

b)

Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.

c)

Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.

d)

Male birds of certain species inheriting colorful feathers that are more attractive to females.

32.

How does a species change over time?

a)

by adapting to the environment

b)

changes in the gene frequencies in a population

c)

acquiring new traits

d)

they do not change

33.

The forelimbs of mammals have similar anatomy because these groups descended from a recent common ancestor. Their bone structure is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

34.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

35.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
36.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
37.
Which layer is the youngest
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
38.
The opossum and kangaroo both incubate their young in a pouch. This provides evidence that they---
a)
are descended from a common ancestor
b)
Have very similar skeletal structures
c)
belong to the same species
d)
must range great distances to eat
39.
Which is not evidence for evolution?
a)
many animals have homologous structures due to common ancestry
b)
Many animals have vestigial structures from an ancestor
c)
We can observe changes in life forms by observing the fossil record
d)
All of these are evidence for evolution
40.

Similarities in bone arrangements, like those in the picture, support the hypothesis that...

a)

these organisms are not well adapted

b)

these organisms share a common ancestor

c)

these organisms all share the same DNA sequences

d)

these organisms are members of the same species

41.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
42.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
43.
What is the name of the force holding us to the Earth?
a)
Sun
b)
Star
c)
Gravity
d)
Titan
44.

What is the name of the galaxy in which Earth is located?

a)

Big Band

b)

Milky Way

c)

Mars

d)

Universe

45.

if the star and earth are moving toward each other, the star's light appears bluer → Blue shift

a)

True

b)

False

46.

If a star and the earth are moving away from each other, the star's light appears redder → Blue shift

a)

True

b)

False

47.

What is the component of the universe that is best described as a system of stars, gases, and dust held together by gravity.

a)

universe

b)

galaxy

c)

solar system

d)

planet

48.

What is an interstellar cloud of dust and gases where stars can form?

a)

universe

b)

solar system

c)

galaxy

d)

nebula

49.

What two elements mostly make up stars?

a)

Hydrogen and Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen and Helium

c)

Helium and Oxygen

d)

Hydrogen and Nitrogen

50.

Which of the following objects is the largest?

a)

star

b)

galaxy

c)

solar system

d)

planet

51.

According to the big bang theory, the universe began as an explosion and is still expanding. This theory is supported by observations that the stellar spectra of distant galaxies show a - (hint: which one is moving away?)

a)

a shift toward the red end of the spectrum

b)

a shift toward the blue end of the spectrum

c)

a shift toward the yellow end of the spectrum

d)

a shift toward the white end of the spectrum

52.

the universe began a tremendous expansion 13-15 billion years ago

a)

big bang theory

b)

red shift

c)

light abundance

d)

theory of life

53.
The light we see from objects in the sky are from the past
a)
True
b)
False
54.

Which statement is true?

a)

The galaxies are moving toward us.

b)

The galaxies are moving away from us.

c)

The universe remains static or unchanged in motion.

d)

None of the above

55.

The bases on the complementary sequence of the DNA strand are....

a)

CCGATACAG

b)

CCGATAGAG

c)

CCGTATGAG

d)

CCGATTGAG

56.

How many chromosomes do humans inherit from their parents?

a)

21

b)

22

c)

26

d)

23

57.

What is the difference between an allele and a gene

a)

There is no difference, they’re the same

b)

An allele is part of a gene

c)

An allele is the variant form of a gene

d)

A gene is part of an allele

58.

A gene locus is....

a)

the location of a mutation in DNA

b)

only located on the 21st chromosome

c)

the position of a gene on a chromosome

d)

the plural version of loci

59.

During meiosis the crossing over process....

a)

Is where chromosomes cross over to the next phase

b)

Allows the exchange of genetic information

c)

Primarily happens during metaphase I

d)

Primarily happens during interphase

60.

True or False: The recessive allele is only expressed in the absence of the dominant allele.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

What is the name for the genetic makeup of a cell or an organism?

a)

Phenotype

b)

Gene

c)

chromosome

d)

Genotype

62.

In autosomal inheritance....

a)

The trait in question is carried on one of the sex chromosomes

b)

The trait in question is carried on the 23rd pair of chromosomes

c)

The trait in question is carried on the non-sex chromosomes

d)

The trait in question is only carried on the 10th chromosome

63.

The alleles on these chromosomes are.....

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Homozygous

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Heterozygous recessive

64.

Quinn’s father has a brown eyes and a Bb genotype. Quinn’s mother has blue eyes and bb genotype. What is the likely chance of Quinn having blue eyes?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

0%

65.

Genotype or Phenotype: Black hair

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

66.

Are recessive traits shown with capital or lowercase letters?

a)

Uppercase (Capital)

b)

Lowercase

67.

What type of "square" helps us solve genetic problems?

a)

Carpenter Square

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Mendel Square

d)

Genetic Square

68.

Females-XX; MalesXY. A couple has 4 girls. What is the chance the next child will be a boy?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

69.

Where in a cell is DNA located?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Nucleus

d)

E.R

70.

Which of the following is homozygous dominant?

a)

yy

b)

Y

c)

YY

d)

Yy

71.

An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.

a)

hidden allele

b)

dominant allele

c)

recessive allele

d)

present allele

72.

An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

73.

What is the relationship between DNA and chromosomes?

a)

Chromosomes are made of DNA

b)

DNA is made of chromosomes

c)

DNA and chromosomes are the same thing.

d)

All of the above are correct

74.

Put in order smallest to largest:

a)

Chromosome - DNA - Gene

b)

Gene - DNA - Chromosome

c)

Chromosome - Gene - DNA

d)

DNA - Gene - Chromosome

75.

In mussels, the allele for brown colouring (B) is dominant, and the allele for blue colouring (b) is recessive.

Which parental genotypes would produce 100% blue offspring?

a)

Bb + Bb

b)

bb + bb

c)

BB + BB

d)

BB + Bb

76.

What is one advantage of sexual reproduction

a)

offspring are stronger

b)

offspring are born instead of hatched from an egg

c)

offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information

d)

creates clones

77.

The process of Mitosis is responsible for

a)

Cell division

b)

Growth and repair of cells

c)

Creating 2 identical body cells

d)

All of the above

78.

What Shape is DNA

a)

H

b)

Double Helix

c)

Star

d)

Grid

79.

What is the name given to a picture of chromosomes

a)

Carrot

b)

Karyotype

c)

Jean

d)

Genes

80.

Mutations are always harmful

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Natural Selection relies on:

a)

Variation, Competition and Heredity

b)

Variety

c)

Variation and Evolution

82.

Natural Selection is the process whereby organisms that have better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring

a)

False

b)

True