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Economics - Kaun Banega CA

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Endogenous factors refer to _______________ causes.

a)

(a) Internal

b)

(b) External

c)

(c) Economic

d)

(d) Ecological

2.

The great depression of ____________ is still cited for the enormous misery & human sufferings it caused.

a)

(a) 1929 – 1930

b)

(b) 1929 – 1931

c)

(c) 1929 – 1932

d)

(d) 1929 – 1933

3.

Which of the following macroeconomic variables would you include in an index of leading economic indicators?

a)

(a) Employment

b)

(b) Inflation

c)

(c) Real interest rates

d)

(d) Residential investment

4.

According to trade cycles occur due to the onset of innovations.

a)

(a) Haw trey

b)

(b) ADAM Smith

c)

(c) JM Keynes

d)

(d) Schumpeter

5.

The most probable outcome of an increase in the money supply is

a)

(a) interest rates to rise, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rising

b)

(b) interest rates to rise, investment spending to fall, and aggregate demand to fall

c)

(c) interest rates to fall, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rising

d)

(d) the interest rate of all investment spending to fall and aggregate demand to fall

6.

Which Of The Following Statement Is Not Correct?

a)

(a) Under monopoly there is no difference between a firm and industry.

b)

(b) A monopolist may restrict the output and raise the price.

c)

(c) Commodities offered for sale under perfect competition will be heterogeneous.

d)

(d) Product differentiation is peculiar to monopolistic competition

7.

A firm having a kinked demand curve indicates that:

(i) If the firm reduces the price, competitive firms also reduce the price

(ii) If the firm increases the price, competitive firms also increases the price

(iii) If the firm reduces the price, competitive firms do reduce the price

(iv) If the firm increases the price, competitive firms do increase the price

a)

Only (i) above

b)

Both (i) and (iv) above

c)

Both (ii) and (iv) above

d)

Both (ii) and (iii) above

8.

When the price is less than the average variable cost at the profit-maximizing level of output, a firm should:

a)

(a) produce where marginal revenue equals marginal cost if it is operating in the short run.

b)

(b) produce where marginal revenue equals marginal cost if it is operating in the long run.

c)

(c) shutdown, since it will lose nothing in that case.

d)

(d) shutdown, since it cannot even cover its variable costs if it stays in business

9.

The monopolistic competition differs from perfect competition primarily because

a)

In monopolistic competition, firms can differentiate their products.

b)

In perfect competition, firms can differentiate their products.

c)

In monopolistic competition, entry into the industry is blocked.

d)

In monopolistic competition, there are relatively few barriers to entry

10.

A firm in a perfectly competitive market is a price taker. This designation as a price taker is based on the assumption that:

a)

The firm has some but not complete control over its product price

b)

There are so many buyers and sellers in the market that anyone buyer or seller cannot affect the market

c)

Each firm produces a homogeneous product

d)

There is an easy entry into or exit from the marketplace.

11.

In a competitive market, if price exceeds Average Variable Cost (AVC) but remains less than Average Cost (AC) at the equilibrium, the firm is:

a)

Making a profit

b)

Planning to quit

c)

Experiencing loss but should continue production

d)

Experiencing loss but should discontinue production.

12.

At price P1, the -firm in the figure would produce

a)

Zero output

b)

Q3

c)

Q5

d)

Q6

13.

In the above figure, curve E is the firm’s

a)

Marginal Cost Curve

b)

Average Cost Curve

c)

Demand Curve

d)

Marginal revenue Curve

14.

The time element was conceived by

a)

Adam Smith

b)

Alfred Marshall

c)

Pigou

d)

Lionel Robinson

15.

At which of the following points, does the Marginal Cost Curve meet the Average Variable Cost Curve?

a)

Shut Down Point

b)

Break-Even Point

c)

Equilibrium Point

d)

Profit Maximization Point

16.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

(a) Economic costs include the opportunity costs of the resources owned by the firm.

b)

(b) Accounting costs include only explicit costs.

c)

(c) Economic profit will always be less than accounting profit if resources owned and used by the firm have any opportunity costs.

d)

(d) Accounting profit is equal to total revenue less implicit costs.

17.

Average Revenue

a)

Money which a Firm realises by selling certain units of a commodity.

b)

Revenue earned per unit of output

c)

Change in Total Revenue (TR) resulting from the sale of an additional unit of the commodity.

d)

None of the above

18.

When a market is in equilibrium —

a)

No shortages exist

b)

Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied

c)

A price is established that clears the market.

d)

All of the above are correct.

19.

An Isoquant shows

a)

All the alternative combinations of two inputs can be produced by using a given set of outputs fully and in the best possible way.

b)

All the alternative combinations of two products among which a producer is indifferent because they yield the same profit.

c)

All the alternative combinations of two inputs yield the same total product.

d)

Both (b) and (c).

20.

In the long—run, the Firm will operate at the _____________ for any output level, by choosing the appropriate Plant Size.

a)

Optimum cost

b)

Minimum cost

c)

Maximum cost

d)

Nothing can be said

21.

Which one of the following is also known as the planning curve?

a)

Long-run average cost curve.

b)

Short-run average cost curve.

c)

The average variable cost curve

d)

The average total cost curve

22.

Marginal Costs are applicable in —

a)

Short—Run

b)

Long—Run

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

Neither (a) nor (b)

23.

Which of the following is a variable cost in the short run?

a)

(a) rent of the factory.

b)

(b) wages paid to the factory labour.

c)

(c) interest payments on borrowed financial capital.

d)

(d) payment on the lease for factory equipment

24.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

When the average cost is rising, the marginal cost must also be rising.

b)

When the average cost is rising, the marginal cost must be falling.

c)

When the average cost is rising, the marginal cost is above the average cost.

d)

When the average cost is falling, the marginal cost must be rising.

25.

Social Cost =

a)

Explicit Cost + Implicit Cost

b)

Private Cost + External Cost

c)

Private Cost + Internal Cost

d)

None of the above

26.

All variable costs are avoidable or discretionary in nature. This statement is ------

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Partially True

d)

Nothing can be said

27.

Identify the correct statement:

a)

The average product is at its maximum when the marginal product is equal to the average product.

b)

The law of increasing returns to scale relates to the effect of changes in factor proportions.

c)

Economies of scale arise only because of the indivisibilities of

factor proportions.

d)

Internal economies of scale can accrue when industry expands beyond optimum

28.

Which of the following statements is not true?

a)

Accumulation of capital depends solely on the income of individuals.

b)

Savings can be influenced by government policies.

c)

External economies go with size and internal economies with the location.

d)

The supply curve of labour is an upward sloping curve.

29.

To economists, the main difference between the short run and the long run is that:

a)

In the short run, all inputs are fixed, while in the long run inputs are variable.

b)

In the short run, the firm varies all of its inputs to and the

least-cost combination of inputs.

c)

In the short run, at least one of the firm’s input levels is

fixed.

d)

In the long run, the firm is making constrained decisions about how to use existing plants and equipment efficiently.

30.

Which of the following is the best definition of “production function”?

a)

Their relationship between market price and quantity supplied.

b)

The relationship between the firm’s total revenue and the cost of production.

c)

The relationship between the quantities of inputs needed to produce a given level of output.

d)

The relationship between the number of inputs and the firm’s marginal cost of production.

31.

Diseconomies of Scale refer to —

a)

Forces which reduce the Average Cost of producing a product as the Firm expands the Size of its Plant

b)

Forces which reduce the Marginal Cost of producing a product as the Firm expands the Size of its Plant

c)

Forces which increase the Average Cost of producing a product as the Firm expands the Size of its Plant

d)

Forces which increase the Marginal Cost of producing a product as the Firm the Size of its Plant

32.

In the long run all factors -

a)

Are Fixed

b)

Are Variable

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

None

33.

The law of variable proportions is drawn under all of the assumptions mentioned below except the assumption that:

a)

the technology is changing.

b)

there must be some inputs whose quantity is kept fixed

c)

we consider only physical inputs and not economically portability in monetary terms.

d)

the technology is given and stable.

34.

____________________ means a sustained increase in the stock of real capital of a country.

a)

Capital formation

b)

Savings

c)

Mobilizationofsavings

d)

Mobilization of capital

35.

The production function is a relationship between a given combination of inputs and:

a)

another combination that yields the same output.

b)

the highest resulting output.

c)

the increase in output generated by the one-unit increase in one output.

d)

all levels of output that can be generated by those inputs.

36.

Diminishing marginal returns implies:

a)

decreasing average variable costs.

b)

decreasing marginal costs.

c)

increasing marginal costs.

d)

decreasing average fixed costs.

37.

When the consumers have more & more unit of food, he is prepared to give up less & less units of clothing. It is due to ________________-

a)

Falling MRS

b)

Rising MRS

c)

Constant MRS

d)

None of these

38.

The substitution effect of fall in the price of the commodity will lead to :

a)

An upward movement in the indifference curve

b)

Download movement in indifference curve

c)

Movement from lower IC to a higher one

d)

None

39.

The slope of IC can be:

a)

Downward

b)

Upward

c)

Straight line

d)

Can be all above

40.

In the case of a right-angled indifference curve the goods are:

a)

Perfect complements

b)

Perfect substitutes

c)

Inferior goods

d)

Giffen good

41.

The concept of Consumer’s Surplus is based on the assumption that Marginal Utility of Money is

a)

Zero

b)

Negative

c)

Constant

d)

Any of the above

42.

A Buyer’s willingness to pay is that Buyer’s —

a)

The minimum amount he is willing to pay for a product.

b)

Producer Surplus

c)

Consumer Surplus.

d)

Maximum Amount he is willing to pay for a product.

43.

Which of the following is an assumption under Cardinal Approach to Utility Analysis?

a)

Measurability of Utility in monetary terms

b)

Change in Marginal Utility of Money

c)

Utility arises even at zero consumption

d)

All of the above

44.

A Rational Person does not act unless —

a)

The action is ethical.

b)

The action leads to Marginal Costs that exceed Marginal Benefits.

c)

The action produces Marginal Benefits that exceed Marginal Costs.

d)

The action makes money for the person

45.

Which of the following statement is not correct?

a)

Under monopoly, there is no difference between a firm and industry.

b)

A monopolist may restrict the output and raise the price.

c)

Commodities offered for sale under perfect competition will be heterogeneous.

d)

Product differentiation is peculiar to monopolistic competition

46.

Given the Market Demand, the burden of specific tax that will be borne by the Consumer (Buyer) depends on the —

a)

Price Elasticity of Supply

b)

Price Elasticity of Demand

c)

Consumer’s Ability

d)

Type of the Product

47.

If the Demand of a commodity is perfectly inelastic, an increase in Supply will result in —

a)

Decrease in both Price and Quantity at equilibrium

b)

Increase in both Price and Quantity at equilibrium

c)

Increase in Equilibrium Quantity, Equilibrium Price remaining constant

d)

Decrease in Equilibrium Price, Equilibrium Quantity remaining constant

48.

If the supply of a commodity is perfectly elastic, an increase in Demand will result in —

a)

Decrease in both Price and Quantity at equilibrium

b)

Increase in both Price and Quantity at equilibrium

c)

Increase in Equilibrium Quantity, Equilibrium Price remaining constant

d)

Increase in Equilibrium Price, Equilibrium Quantity remaining constant

49.

If the supply of bottled water decreases, other things remaining the same, the equilibrium price —— and the equilibrium quantity ————

a)

increases; decreases.

b)

decreases; increases.

c)

decreases; decreases.

d)

increases; increases.

50.

A decrease in the demand for cameras, other things remaining the same will.

a)

increase the number of cameras bought.

b)

decrease the price but increase the number of cameras bought.

c)

increase the price of cameras.

d)

decrease the price and decrease in the number of cameras bought.

51.

The elasticity of supply is defined as the responsiveness of quantity supplied of a good to change in ____.

a)

Price of concerned good

b)

Price of a substitute good

c)

Demand

d)

None

52.

In case of failure of rains, floods, fires, etc. the supply of agricultural commodities will

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain Constant

d)

Become Zero

53.

Which of the following is the determinant in the Law of Supply?

a)

Technology

b)

Price of related goods

c)

Price of the product

d)

None of these

54.

The concept of Elasticity of Demand was developed by —

a)

Alfred Marshall

b)

Edwin Cannon

c)

Paul Samuelson

d)

Fredric Bonham

55.

Two important factors which make difference in the Elasticity of Demand for different commodities are

a)

Preferences and Income

b)

Income and Expenditure

c)

Quantity and Price of the Commodity

d)

Tax Rates and Level of Income

56.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

With the help of statistical tools, the demand can be forecasted accurately.

b)

The more the number of substitutes of a commodity, the more elastic is the demand.

c)

Demand for butter is perfectly elastic.

d)

Gold jewellery will have a negative income elasticity

57.

What effect does an increase in the price of a product have on the Purchasing Power of the Consumer?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

No effect

d)

Decreases initially, but increases over a period of time

58.

If the demand curve is parallel to the x-axis, what will be the nature of elasticity?

a)

Perfectly elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

Elastic

d)

Highly elastic

59.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The Economy has unlimited resources and there is a need for choosing the most efficient alternative.

b)

Decisions are always taken under conditions of imperfect knowledge and uncertainty

c)

Decision making arises only if there is a choice available

d)

All of the above

60.

Which type of economy gives rise to the most efficient allocation of resources and capital in the

standard Micro— Economics framework?

a)

Free Market Economy

b)

Command Market Economy

c)

Controlled Market Economy

d)

Regulated Market Economy