WorksheetsFinal patho - no neuro and reproductive
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 50mins
Which of the followings are belong to lacrinal system? SATA
Lacrimal glands
Meibomian glands
Accessory glands
lacrimal sac and nasolacrimal duct
lacrimal punctum
T/F: Tears contain nutrients, enzymes, and immunoglobulins to support and protect the avascular cornea
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the followings are true? SATA
Conjunctivitis:
inflammation of the eyes lids
Conjunctivitis: symptoms include photophobia, visual blurring, redness, edema, pain, and lacrimation
Dry Eye Disease: chronic, bilateral desiccation of the conjunctiva and cornea due to an inadequate tear film
Conjunctivitis: Treatment with omega 3 fatty acid dietary supplements
Dry Eye Disease: symptoms include itching, burning, irritation, and photophobia.
Which of the followings are the anterior segment of ocular structures? SATA
Sclera
Retina
lens
optic nerve
Iris
Which of the followings are FALSE about Aqueous Humor Dynamics? SATA
Aqueous Humor (AH): •Derived from capillary plasma in the ciliary epithelial cells & released into the posterior chamber (AH inflow)
Unconventional Pathway: Flows through trabecular meshwork (TM) into the Canal of Schlemm, eventually returning to the systemic circulation
Unconventional Pathway accounts for the majority of AH outflow.
Helps maintain intraocular pressure (IOP) and the eye’s shape
Can not distribute any drugs
Which of the followings about Intraocular Pressure (IOP) are True? SATA
IOP is determined by the balance in aqueous humor (AH) production (inflow) and drainage (outflow)
Normal IOP is 100- 130 mmHg
Elevated IOP is usually due to increased resistance to outflow (TM dysfunction)
IOP is used to diagnose of glaucoma
IOP is a strong risk factor for the development of glaucoma
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
Glaucoma: characterized by progressive optic nerve damage at least partly due to increased IOP
Surgery is only option treatment for glaucoma
Cataract: congenital or degenerative opacity of the lens.
Cataract: reatment is surgical removal and placement of an intraocular lens
Uveitis: inflammation of the retina
Which of the followings are FALSE? SATA
Retina: Thin, transparent, highly-organized structure of neurons and blood vessels
Choroid: Highly vascular middle layer which supplies nutrients to interior structures of the eye and removes metabolic waste
Retina: Forms the light-sensitive outermost layer of tissue in the posterior segment for vision perception
Sclera: Gives eye its white color
Sclera: the innerrmost layer of the eye
Which of the followings are True about the ear? SATA
Vestibular: a part of inner ear and responsible for equilibrium
The inner ear is composed of the oval window, the cochlea, the semicircular canals, and the vestibular
The inner eye is also called labyrinth (a system of coiled membranous tubes filled with fluid)
Ear contains auditory (outer, middle, inner) and Vestibular (equilibrium)
The tympanic membrane is connected to the first of the ossicles (tiny bones), the malleus (hammer), followed by the incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup)
Which of the followings are TRUE about Sensorineural?
occurs when there is damage to the inner ear (cochlea), or to the nerve pathways
from the inner ear to the brain
can often be corrected medically or surgically
reduces the ability to hear faint sounds- even when speech is loud enough to
hear, it may still be unclear or muffled
can be caused by illnesses, genetic, exposure to loud noise, malformation of the inner
ear, drug toxicity, head trauma
most common type of temporary hearing loss
Which of the followings are menifestations of dysfunction of vestibular system? SATA
Headache
Vertigo/dizziness
Nystagmus
Ataxia
Nausea
Which of the followings are the most common non-neuro auditory ailments? SATA
Otitis externa
Otitis media
inner ear infections
tinnitus
Tympanic membrane lesions
Extraocular Structures of the eye includes (SATA)
Orbit (eye socket)
Sclera
Eye lids
Retina
Lacrimal system
Which of the followings are True about Osteoporosis? SATA
Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease characterized by high bone mineral density (BMD)
Osteoporosis can occur as the result of a number of disorders, but is most often associated with the aging process
Those with the highest BMD are at most risk of fracture.
Primary or idiopathic osteoporosis-the most common
Secondary osteoporosis: caused by factors such as diseases, medications and other substances
Which of the followings are related risk factor associated with osteoporosis?
Aluminum-containing antacids
Advanced age
Female Gender
Excessive alcohol intake
Smoking
Which of the followings are True about rheumatoid arthritis? SATA
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body’s immune system attacks the synovial membrane
It causes chronic inflammation, along with joint pain, swelling and stiffness
rheumatoid arthritis eventually can lead to joint damage and disability
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by degenerative changes of the articular cartilage, can affect any one of 200 or so synovial joints in the body, and can occur as a primary idiopathic disorder or as a secondary disorder
The onset of the disease can occur at any age, but its peak incidence is between 50 and 75 years of age
T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: autoimmune targeting of normal joint proteins leads to Release of cytokines, TNF, growth factors and interleukins which induce cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) expression
TRUE
FALSE
T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: COX-2 increases Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) biosynthesis which leads to the formation of the immune complex
TRUE
FALSE
T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOX)-derived leukotrienes activate the surrounding endothelium to stimulates pain pathways
TRUE
FALSE
T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: Macrophages release collagenase and proteases while lymphocyte activity leads to stimulates pain pathways
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the followings are True about osteoarthritis? SATA
osteoarthritis an autoimmune disease in which the body’s immune system attacks the synovial membrane
osteoarthritis is characterized by degenerative changes of the articular cartilage
Age is one of the strongest risk factors for OA
Women are more likely to have OA than men, and they tend to have more severe OA
Osteoarthritis leads to joint pain, tenderness, stiffness and loss of flexibility
Which of the followings are TRUE about gout? SATA
Gout is a genetic disorder which results in high levels of uric acid in the blood
Hyperuricemia always result in gout
Primary gout, may be a consequence of enzyme defects that result in an overproduction of uric acid, inadequate elimination of uric acid by the kidney, or a combination of the two
In secondary gout, hyperuricemia may be caused by increased breakdown of nucleic acids
Gout is always preceded by hyperuricemia
Which of the followings are FALSE? SATA
In clinical manifestations, there are five stages of Gout
In asymptomatic hyperuricemia stage, most cases of hyperuricemia always develop into gout
Acute attack of Gout can not resolve spontaneously
Chronic gout stage: Development of tophi (uric acid deposits in cartilage tissue, tendons and soft tissues)
Chronic gout stage: Recurrent attacks of acute gout.
The reticular layer is the thicker portion of the dermis that (SATA)
Is a superficial layer that borders on the epidermis
Has dense connective tissue along with tough collagen
Contains large blood vessels to support skin cells
Contains large blood vessels to support skin cells
Contains the dermal papillae
Paronychia is an acute or chronic infection of the cuticle. Clinical manifestations include
Discolored nail plate with development of ridges with chronic infections
Accumulation of hyperkeratotic debris within the plate
Infection develops from the dorsal surface
Elevated levels of serum adrenal androgen dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS)
Low levels of estrogen causing decrease nail growth
The dermal appendages of the dermis include (SATA)
Nail
Hair
Eccrine sweat glands
Apocrine sweat glands
Sebaceous glands
The Langerhans cells migrate to the epidermis from the bone marrow and function as
A shield against UV radiation
Mechanoreceptors
A protectant from mechanical stress
A thermoregulator
Defense against environmental antigens
The skin covers the entire body and is comprised of (SATA)
Ceramic
Dermis
Epidermis
Graphite
Hypodermis
Whic of the followings are functions of hair EXCEPT
Regulate body temperature
Enhances sensation
Provide protection in various areas
Can contribute to re-growing damaged epidermis
Can contribute to re-growing damaged epidermis
A fungal or dermatophyte infection of the nail plate results in
Onychomycosis
Tenderness and swelling around the proximal or lateral nail folds
Painful inflammation of the cuticle
Paronychia
Abnormal growth and distribution of hair on the nail plate
Pemphigus is a rare autoimmune blistering disease of the skin that is
Associated with ovarian or adrenal disease
Caused by a fungal infection
Caused by circulating autoantibodies directed against cell surface adhesion molecules of the epidermis
Characterized by scales and plaques
Chronic, proliferative, and involves the scalp and nails
The types of cells that facilitate the functional characteristics of the epidermis include (SATA)
Langerhans cells
Melanocytes
Lunula
Merkel cells
Macrophages
Which of the followings regarding erythema multiforme is TRUE? (SATA)
Can present symptoms such as fever, headache, malaise, sore throat, and cough
Can result in blindness (corneal ulcerations)
Is characterized by inflammation of skin and mucous membranes
Is a single disease
Difficulty with eating and breathing may develop with severe manifestations
The skin is the body’s largest organ and functions (SATA)
Protect the body from dehydration
Stores water and fat
Regulates body temperature
Helps dispose of waste materials
Acts as a receptor for touch
T/F: Enteric plexus neurons regulate motility reflexes, blood flow, absorption, secretion and the immune response.
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
saliva: secreted by 3 salivary glands: Submandibular gland, Sublingual gland, Parotid gland
Saliva is comprised mostly of water containing various amounts of mucus, sodium, bicarbonate, chloride, potassium, lipase and salivary amylase
ptyalin: enzyme that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth and stomach)
Only sympathetic divisions of ANS stimulate the glands to increase salivation
Lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter): prevents regurgitation
Which of the followings are FALSE? SATA
Upper esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter): prevents the entry of air into esophagus during respiration
Swallowing occurs in two phases: Oropharyngeal (involuntary) Esophageal (voluntary)
Repeated waves of primary peristalsis are required to clear the esophagus of food.
primary peristalsis: vagal motor nerves induce a wave of contraction that spreads along the esophagus at 3-5 cm/s
secondary peristalsis: Distension of the esophagus by the bolus can trigger another wave of contraction
Which of the followings are TRUE about stomach? SATA
Anatomic boundaries of the stomach: Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) and Pyloric sphincter
Parietal cells which secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
Chief cells which secrete gastrin.
Hormone pepsinogen from the G cells
Glands of the antrum secrete mucus
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
Gastric Emptying: the rate of gastric emptying depends on volume of gastric content, chemical composition and gastrin release
Volume of gastric content: large volumes of food increase gastric pressure, peristalsis and the rate of emptying
Chemical composition: fats and non-isotonic solutions delay gastric emptying
Gastrin release: enhances peristalsis
Gastric fluid composition: H+ and Cl ions.
Acid secretion can be stimulated by
Acetylcholine (ACh)
prostaglandins
Gastrin
Nitric oxide
Histamine
Acid secretion can be inhibited by? SATA
Histamine
Secretin
caffeine
Somatostatin
Nitric oxide
Breakdown of the mucosal barrier may be caused by? SATA
Aspirin and NSAIDs
Helicobacter pylori
Ethanol
Prostaglandins
nitric oxide
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
Small intestine includes: duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum
Digestion and absorption of most nutrients occur in the duodenum and jejunum, while that of bile salts takes place in the terminal ileum
The brush border contains several digestive enzymes such as secretin and cholecystokinin
The process of intestinal digestion is initiated in the stomach by actions of HCl and Gastrin
The process of intestinal digestion is continues in the proximal portion of the small intestine
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
large intestine includes: cecum, appendix, colon, rectum, anal canal
Mucosa of the large intestine has villi and does produce digestive enzymes.
Gastrin and cholecystokinin stimulate gastrocolic reflex
By the time the fecal mass enters the sigmoid colon, feces (or excrement) consists of food residue, unabsorbed GI secretions, shed epithelial cells and bacteria.
Movement of feces into the sigmoid colon and rectum stimulates the defecation reflex (rectosphincteric reflex).
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
The stomach is relatively sterile because HCl kills ingested pathogens or inhibits bacterial growth
Duodenum: contain bacteriodes, clostridia, anaerobic lactobacilli and coliform
Ileum to cecum: low concentration of aerobes, primarily streptococci, lactobacilli, staphylococci, enterobacteria and bacteriodes.
Intestinal bacteria: Synthesis of vitamins K and B
Intestinal bacteria: Metabolism of nitrogenous substances and drugs
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
Liver, gall bladder and exocrine pancreas secrete substances necessary for digestion
Bile is a bitter-tasting yellowish green fluid containing bile salts (conjugated bile acids), cholesterol, bilirubin (a pigment), electrolytes and water.
Primary function of gallbladder is to store and concentrate bile between meals
Contraction is achieved by: Cholecystokinin secreted by duodenal and jejunal mucosa in the presence of fat
Relaxation is achieved by: Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
Which of the following is FALSE? SATA
Aqueous secretions of the pancreas are isotonic and contain K+, H+, Na+, bicarbonate, Mg2+, Ca2+ and Cl-
Pancreatic enzymes hydrolyze: Proteins, Carbohydrates, and Fats
Endocrine pancreas secretes insulin, glucagon, somastostatin and pancreatic polypeptide.
Relaxation is achieved by Pancreatic polypeptide and Stimulation of sympathetic nerves
Bile salts are required for intestinal emulsification and digestion of fats
Which of the followings are TRUE about GERD? SATA
Gastrointestinal reflux disease (GERD) is the reflux of acid and pepsin from the stomach to the esophagus leading to esophagitis
Risk factors for GERD include: Drugs that relax the LES (anticholinergics, nitrates, calcium channel blockers, nicotine).
GERD may be a trigger for asthma or chronic cough.
Risk factors - Vomiting, coughing, lifting, bending or obesity increases abdominal pressure and can contribute to GERD
The severity of GERD-induced inflammation depends on the composition of gastric contents and the length of exposure
Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA
Long-term consequences of GERD is the appearance of precancerous lesions (e.g. Barrett’s esophagus) with progression to adenocarcinoma.
Clinical manifestations of GERD include: Heartburn from acid regurgitation
Clinical manifestations of GERD include: Chronic cough
Clinical manifestations of GERD include: Asthma attacks
Alcohol and acid-containing foods (such as citrus fruits and drinks) can cause discomfort during swallowing.
Risk factors for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) includes? SATA
Genetic
Helicobacter pylori
NSAIDs
Psychological stress
spicy food
Which of the followings are TRUE about Duodenal Ulcers? SATA
Duodenal ulcers are caused when acid and pepsin concentrations in the duodenum penetrate the mucosal barrier and leads to ulceration
Chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area
Pain begins right after eating (when stomach is full)
Bleeding from duodenal ulcers can hematemesis or melena (black tarry stool)
Pain is due to sensorineural stimulation by acid or muscle spasm, or both
Which of the followings are TRUE about Gastric Ulcers? SATA
ulcers of the stomach and usually occurs in patients aged 20-30 years
It is caused by H. Pylori
Defect is caused by abnormality that increases the mucosal barriers permeability to H+ ions
Pain occurs before eating
Gastric ulcers tend to be chronic and cause more anorexia, vomiting and weight loss than duodenal ulcers
Which of the followings are TRUE about nausea and vomiting? SATA
The vomiting center is found in the medulla oblongata and includes the reticular formation and nucleus tractus solitarius
Stimulation of the vomiting center can occur as side effects of several drugs
Stimulation of the vomiting center can occur indirectly via medulla oblongata
During vomiting, the duodenum and antrum of the stomach produce retrograde peristalsis while the body of the stomach and the esophagus relax
Nausea is a subjective experience that is associated with different conditions: Visceral pain, Labyrinthine stimulation (motion sickness), Use of opioids
Which of the followings are Metabolic consequences of vomiting? SATA
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Hypochloremia
Hypoglycemia
Metabolic acidosis
Stimulation ofchemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) leads to vomiting via activation of which of receptors?
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Serotonin (5-HT3)
Substance P
Opioids
T/F: Enteric nervous system (ENS): consists of neurons located exclusively in the GI tract and are controlled by local and ANS stimuli.
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the following are TRUE about the renal system? (SATA)
Renin: Regulation of blood pressure
Renal cortex: Is the inner part of each kidney that contains tubules and the collecting duct
Erythropoietin: Production of
erythrocytes
1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3: Metabolism of
calcium
Renal medulla: Contains all of the glomeruli, most of the proximal tubules, and some segments of
the distal tubule
Which of the following are true about renal system? SATA
Each kidney contains 2.1 million nephrons
Mesangial cells: Have phagocytic properties and release inflammatory cytokines and
growth factors.
Renal corpuscle: contain glomerulus, Bowman glomerular capsule and mesangial cells
Renal corpuscle is the functional unit of the kidney
Which of the followings are false about glomerulus? SATA
Glomerular endothelial cells membrane filters selected blood components and Composed of cells called podocytes
Glomerular endothelial cells regulate glomerular blood flow.
Glomerular filtration membrane Synthesize nitric oxide (a vasodilator)
Glomerular endothelial cells synthesize endothelin-1 (a vasoconstrictor)
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells - specialized cells are located around the
efferent arteriole
Which of the followings are true regarding to renal system? SATA
Juxtaglomerular apparatus Control of renal blood flow (RBF), glomerular filtration, and renin
secretion
If mean arterial pressure increase or vascular resistance
increases, then the renal blood flow decreases
Solute and water excretion is changes as arterial
pressure changes.
Autoregulation
helps maintenance of 80 to 180 mm Hg constant GFR
Myogenic mechanism (stretch) As arterial pressure increase, glomerular perfusion decreases (and vice versa) and arteriole relaxes
Which of the followings are true? SATA
Tubuloglomerular feedback: When sodium filtration increases, GFR decreases
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted from myocardial cells in the atria
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted from myocardial cells in the brain
C-type natriuretic peptide
is secreted from vascular endothelium and in the nephron.
and causes vasodilation.
Urodilatin is secreted by distal convoluted tubules and the collecting ducts.
and causes vasodilation, natriuretic, and diuretic effects
About the angiotensin II, select the correct statements
Stimulates the secretion of
aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
a potent vasodilator
Stimulates antidiuretic hormone
(ADH) secretion and thirst (hypothalamus and pituitary gland)
Increase NaCl reabsorption proximal tubule
Decrease plasma volume and decrease blood pressure
Which of the followings are false? SATA
Glomerulus is freely permeable to water and large colloids such as plasma proteins
Positive-charged particles permeate the membrane more readily than neutral- or
negative-charged particles
Tubular reabsorption
is the movement of fluid and solutes from peritubular lumen to the tubular
capillaries
Tubular secretion is the movement of fluid and solutes from tubular lumen to the peritubular
capillaries
Opposing forces Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Which of the followings are true? SATA
Proximal tubule: reabsorption of Na, H2O (need ADH) and secretion of H+
Loop of Henle: descending loop H2O reabsorption and Na diffuses out
Loop of Henle: Ascending loop Na reabsorption Na and H2O stay in
Distal tubule: reabsorption of Na, H2O and secretion of K, H+, some drugs
Collecting duct: reabsorption of H2O (doesn't need ADH)
Which of the followings are true? SATA
Proximal tubule: Na+H+ exchanger
Loop of Henle: Na+Cl- cotransporter
Distal tubule: Na+K+2Cl transporter
Collecting duct: epithelial Na+ channel
About Countercurrent exchange system, which of the following are true? SATA
Involves water, sodium, and chloride transport
Involves water, sodium, potassium and chloride transport
Contributes to the production of concentrated urine
Fluid flows in the opposite direction through parallel tubes
Fluid becomes more and more
dilute as it encounters the distal tubule
About tests of renal function, which of the following are true? SATA
Concept of clearance Permits an indirect measure of GFR, tubular secretion, tubular
reabsorption, and RBF
Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance is used to determine renal plasma flow and blood
flow
GFR Is the best estimate for the functioning of renal tissue
Plasma creatinine concentration: Normal value is 0.7 to 1.2 mg/dl AND Is most valuable for monitoring the progress of acute rather than chronic renal disease
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Is a better indicator for hydration status and good measure of GFR
Regarding Kidney stones, which of the followings are true? SATA
Kidney stones are also called renal hydronephrosis
Masses of crystals, protein, or mineral salts form in
the urinary tract and may obstruct the urinary tract
Male: Most prevalent rick factor
Treatment
including parenteral and/or oral analgesics for acute pain
Treatment including decrease fluid intake
Which of the followings are true? SATA
Dyssynergia: Overactive or hyperreflexive bladder function
Overactive: Symptom syndrome of urgency, with or without urge
incontinence; usually associated with frequency and nocturia
Treatment for Overactive bladder syndrome: antimuscarinic agents; botulinum toxin
therapy; surgery
Detrusor areflexia: Underactive, hypotonic, or atonic bladder
Renal transitional cell carcinoma is the most common renal tumors
Which of the following statements are true? SATA
Urinary tract infection (UTI) is the inflammation of the urinary epithelium in the urinary tract
Most
common pathogens cause UTI are Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Staphylococcus
saprophyticus
Cystitis: Inflammation of upper urinary tract
Pyelonephritis: Bladder inflammation
Clinical manifestations
including Frequency, dysuria, urgency, and low back and/or suprapubic pain
Which of the following statements are true? SATA
Acute pyelonephritis: Acute infection of the ureter, renal pelvis, and/or renal parenchyma
Chronic pyelonephritis: Inflammation and fibrosis in the interstitial spaces between the tubules, leading to chronic
kidney failure
Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis: Hematuria with red blood cell casts and Proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day with albumin
Acute glomerulonephritis: increased glomerular perfusion (glomerular blood flow)
Acute glomerulonephritis: increased
permeability to proteins and red blood cells
Which of the following statements are true? SATA
Clinical manifestations of chronic Glomerulonephritis: Proteinuria and Hypercholesterolemia
Diabetic nephropathy and lupus nephritis can lead to chronic glomerulonephritis
Nephritic Syndrome: Caused by increased permeability of the glomerular
filtration membrane
Clinical manifestations of Nephrotic Sediment: Blood is present in the
urine with red cell
casts, white cell casts,
and varying degrees of
protein, which is
usually not severe
Clinical manifestations of Nephritic Sediment: Contains massive
amounts of protein and
lipids and either tiny
amount of blood or no
blood.
Which of the following statements are true? SATA
Uremia: Syndrome of renal failure
Both azotemia and uremia:
Accumulation of nitrogenous
waste products in the blood
Signs and symptom of Azotemia: Fatigue, anorexia, nausea,
vomiting, pruritus, and
neurologic changes
Renal insufficiency or renal
failure, causing Uremia
Azotemia: Increased serum urea levels
and frequently increased
creatinine levels
Which of the following statement isfalse?
Acute Kidney Injury: Sudden decline in kidney function with a decrease in GFR
and accumulation of nitrogenous waste products
Chronic Kidney Disease: Progressive loss of renal function associated with systemic
diseases
Chronic Kidney Disease: Kidney damage: GFR less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2 for 3
months or more, irrespective of cause
Acute Kidney Injury types: prerenal, intrarenal and postrenal
Which of the followings are functions of pulmonary? (SATA)
Gaseous exchange
Delivery of nutrients to lung tissues
Acting as a blood reservoir for the left ventricle
Filtering system to remove clots, air and debris from the circulation
About the dorsal respiratory group (DRG), which of the following is FALSE?
A cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the medulla
A cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the pons
Receives afferent impulses from peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies (which detect PaCO2 and PaO2
Sends efferent impulses to the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles
Sets the basic automatic rhythm of respiration
Which of the following is not consist in the gas-exchange airways (acini) structure?
A. Alveolar ducts
Alveoli
Respiratory bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Lobar bronchi
Which of the following mechanisms are involved in the pathogenesis of COPD?
Vasodilation
Loss of elastic lung fibers and alveolar tissue
Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
Hypersecretion of mucus
Hypertrophy of submucosal glands
In the early asthmatic response in patients with the allergic form of the disease, inflammatory mediators released from mast cells are responsible for All of the following EXCEPT
Bronchospasm
A. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
Mucosal edema
Vasodilation
Increased capillary permeability
Obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by
Slow emptying of the lungs
.
Wheezing
Dyspnea
More force is required to expel a given volume of air
Less time is required to expel a given volume of air
Which of the following statements about neurons of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG) of the Respiratory Center are true?
DRG is almost inactive during normal, quiet respiration
DRG sends efferent impulses to the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles
DRG sets the basic automatic rhythm of respiration
E.
DRG is a cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the medulla
DRG receives afferent impulses from peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies (which detects PaCO2 & PaO2)
Which of the following represent anatomical structures of the pulmonary system? (SATA)
Pulmonary circulation
Gas-exchange airways
Conducting airways
Bronchial Circulation
Chest Wall and Pleura
Which of the following statements about emphysema are true? SATA
It is characterized by permanent enlargement of gas-exchange airways
It is characterized by an increase in the uptake of acetylcholine by the vagal nerves
Centriacinar emphysema occurs in smokers with chronic bronchitis
A major cause of secondary emphysema is the inhalation of cigarette smoke
Primary emphysema is linked to an inherited deficiency of the alpha1-antitrypsin enzyme
In emphysema, the destruction of alveoli due to breakdown in elastin within the septa is due to (SATA)
An imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases
Dopamine release
Oxidative stress
Antigen-antibody reactions
Apoptosis of lung structural cells
Which of the following statements about COPD are true? SATA
It can caused by an imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases
B.
It is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide
Most common cause of disease is smoking tobacco
It can be caused by exposure to occupational dusts and chemicals
It can caused by apoptosis of lung structural cells
1. Type I alveolar cells provide surfactant
2. Type II alveolar cells secrete structure
TRUE
FALSE
Lower airway structures are lined with ciliated mucosa which warms and humidifies inspired air to 100% and removes foreign particles from it as it passes into the lungs
TRUE
FALSE
Carina is very sensitive and when stimulated can cause coughing and airway narrowing
TRUE
FALSE
Bronchial walls have three layers:
A. Epithelial lining: contains single-celled mucus secreting goblet cells and ciliated cells.
B. Smooth muscle layer
C. Connective tissue layer: in large bronchi, the connective tissue layer also contains cartilage.
TRUE
FALSE
Bronchial walls have three layers:
A. Epithelial lining: contains single-celled mucus secreting goblet cells and ciliated cells.
B. Smooth muscle layer
C. Connective tissue layer: in large bronchi, the connective tissue layer also contains cartilage.
TRUE
FALSE
Upper airway contains the nasopharyngeal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx
TRUE
FALSE
Lower airway contains laryngopharynx, the larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchopulmonary segments, terminal bronchioles
TRUE
FALSE
Upper airway contains the nasopharyngeal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx
TRUE
FALSE
Lower airway contains laryngopharynx, the larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchopulmonary segments, terminal bronchioles
TRUE
FALSE
Gaseous exchange between alveoli is via the pores of Kohn
TRUE
FALSE
The pulmonary circulation has a lower pressure and resistance than the systemic circulation:
mean pulmonary artery pressure = 18 mmHg
mean aortic pressure = 90 mmHg.
TRUE
FALSE
1. Breathing is usually voluntary
2. Involuntary breathing is required for: Talking Singing Laughing Holding one’s breath.
TRUE
FALSE
Pattern of breathing can be influenced by emotional state and by disease
TRUE
FALSE
The peripheral chemoreceptors located near the Respiratory Center and Monitors pH, PaCO2 and PaO2.
TRUE
FALSE
