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Final patho - no neuro and reproductive

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the followings are belong to lacrinal system? SATA

a)

Lacrimal glands

b)

Meibomian glands

c)

Accessory glands

d)

lacrimal sac and nasolacrimal duct

e)

lacrimal punctum

2.

T/F: Tears contain nutrients, enzymes, and immunoglobulins to support and protect the avascular cornea

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

3.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

—Conjunctivitis:

inflammation of the eyes lids

b)

Conjunctivitis: symptoms include photophobia, visual blurring, redness, edema, pain, and lacrimation

c)

Dry Eye Disease: chronic, bilateral desiccation of the conjunctiva and cornea due to an inadequate tear film

d)

Conjunctivitis: Treatment with omega 3 fatty acid dietary supplements

e)

Dry Eye Disease: symptoms include itching, burning, irritation, and photophobia.

4.

Which of the followings are the anterior segment of ocular structures? SATA

a)

Sclera

b)

Retina

c)

lens

d)

optic nerve

e)

Iris

5.

Which of the followings are FALSE about Aqueous Humor Dynamics? SATA

a)

Aqueous Humor (AH): •Derived from capillary plasma in the ciliary epithelial cells & released into the posterior chamber (AH inflow)

b)

Unconventional Pathway: Flows through trabecular meshwork (TM) into the Canal of Schlemm, eventually returning to the systemic circulation

c)

Unconventional Pathway accounts for the majority of AH outflow.

d)

Helps maintain intraocular pressure (IOP) and the eye’s shape

e)

Can not distribute any drugs

6.

Which of the followings about Intraocular Pressure (IOP) are True? SATA

a)

IOP is determined by the balance in aqueous humor (AH) production (inflow) and drainage (outflow)

b)

Normal IOP is 100- 130 mmHg

c)

Elevated IOP is usually due to increased resistance to outflow (TM dysfunction)

d)

IOP is used to diagnose of glaucoma

e)

IOP is a strong risk factor for the development of glaucoma

7.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

Glaucoma: characterized by progressive optic nerve damage at least partly due to increased IOP

b)

Surgery is only option treatment for glaucoma

c)

Cataract: congenital or degenerative opacity of the lens.

d)

Cataract: reatment is surgical removal and placement of an intraocular lens

e)

Uveitis: inflammation of the retina

8.

Which of the followings are FALSE? SATA

a)

Retina: Thin, transparent, highly-organized structure of neurons and blood vessels

b)

Choroid: —Highly vascular middle layer which supplies nutrients to interior structures of the eye and removes metabolic waste

c)

Retina: Forms the light-sensitive  outermost layer of tissue in the posterior segment for vision perception

d)

Sclera: Gives eye its white color

e)

Sclera: the innerrmost layer of the eye

9.

Which of the followings are True about the ear? SATA

a)

Vestibular: a part of inner ear and responsible for equilibrium

b)

The inner ear is composed of the oval window, the cochlea, the semicircular canals, and the vestibular

c)

The inner eye is also called labyrinth (a system of coiled membranous tubes filled with fluid)

d)

Ear contains auditory (outer, middle, inner) and Vestibular (equilibrium)

e)

The tympanic membrane is connected to the first of the ossicles (tiny bones), the malleus (hammer), followed by the incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup)

10.

Which of the followings are TRUE about Sensorineural?

a)

occurs when there is damage to the inner ear (cochlea), or to the nerve pathways     

    from the inner ear to the  brain

b)

can often be corrected medically or surgically

c)

reduces the ability to hear  faint sounds- even when speech is loud enough to

    hear, it may still be unclear or muffled

d)

can be caused by illnesses, genetic, exposure to loud noise, malformation of the inner

    ear, drug toxicity, head trauma

e)

most common type of temporary hearing loss

11.

Which of the followings are menifestations of dysfunction of vestibular system? SATA

a)

Headache

b)

Vertigo/dizziness

c)

Nystagmus

d)

Ataxia

e)

Nausea

12.

Which of the followings are the most common non-neuro auditory ailments? SATA

a)

Otitis externa

b)

Otitis media

c)

inner ear infections

d)

tinnitus

e)

Tympanic membrane lesions

13.

Extraocular Structures of the eye includes (SATA)

a)

—Orbit (eye socket)

b)

Sclera

c)

Eye lids

d)

Retina

e)

Lacrimal system

14.

Which of the followings are True about Osteoporosis? SATA

a)

Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease characterized by high bone mineral density (BMD)

b)

Osteoporosis can occur as the result of a number of disorders, but is most often associated with the aging process

c)

Those with the highest BMD are at most risk of fracture.

d)

Primary or idiopathic osteoporosis-the most common

e)

Secondary osteoporosis: caused by factors such as diseases, medications and other substances

15.

Which of the followings are related risk factor associated with osteoporosis?

a)

Aluminum-containing antacids

b)

Advanced age

c)

Female Gender

d)

Excessive alcohol intake

e)

Smoking

16.

Which of the followings are True about rheumatoid arthritis? SATA

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body’s immune system attacks the synovial membrane

b)

It causes chronic inflammation, along with joint pain, swelling and stiffness

c)

rheumatoid arthritis eventually can lead to joint damage and disability

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by degenerative changes of the articular cartilage, can affect any one of 200 or so synovial joints in the body, and can occur as a primary idiopathic disorder or as a secondary disorder

e)

The onset of the disease can occur at any age, but its peak incidence is between 50 and 75 years of age

17.

T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: autoimmune targeting of normal joint proteins leads to Release of cytokines, TNF, growth factors and interleukins which induce cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) expression

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

18.

T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: COX-2 increases Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) biosynthesis which leads to the formation of the immune complex

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOX)-derived leukotrienes activate the surrounding endothelium to stimulates pain pathways

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

T/F. Rheumatoid arthritis: Macrophages release collagenase and proteases while lymphocyte activity leads to stimulates pain pathways

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

21.

Which of the followings are True about osteoarthritis? SATA

a)

osteoarthritis an autoimmune disease in which the body’s immune system attacks the synovial membrane

b)

osteoarthritis is characterized by degenerative changes of the articular cartilage

c)

Age is one of the strongest risk factors for OA

d)

Women are more likely to have OA than men, and they tend to have more severe OA

e)

Osteoarthritis leads to joint pain, tenderness, stiffness and loss of flexibility

22.

Which of the followings are TRUE about gout? SATA

a)

Gout is a genetic disorder which results in high levels of uric acid in the blood

b)

Hyperuricemia always result in gout

c)

Primary gout, may be a consequence of enzyme defects that result in an overproduction of uric acid, inadequate elimination of uric acid by the kidney, or a combination of the two

d)

In secondary gout, hyperuricemia may be caused by increased breakdown of nucleic acids

e)

Gout is always preceded by hyperuricemia

23.

Which of the followings are FALSE? SATA

a)

In clinical manifestations, there are five stages of Gout

b)

In asymptomatic hyperuricemia stage, most cases of hyperuricemia always develop into gout

c)

Acute attack of Gout can not resolve spontaneously

d)

Chronic gout stage: Development of tophi (uric acid deposits in cartilage tissue, tendons and soft tissues)

e)

Chronic gout stage: Recurrent attacks of acute gout.

24.

The reticular layer is the thicker portion of the dermis that (SATA)

a)

Is a superficial layer that borders on the epidermis

b)

Has dense connective tissue along with tough collagen

c)

Contains large blood vessels to support skin cells

d)

Contains large blood vessels to support skin cells

e)

Contains the dermal papillae

25.

Paronychia is an acute or chronic infection of the cuticle. Clinical manifestations include

a)

Discolored nail plate with development of ridges with chronic infections

b)

Accumulation of hyperkeratotic debris within the plate

c)

Infection develops from the dorsal surface

d)

Elevated levels of serum adrenal androgen dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS)

e)

Low levels of estrogen causing decrease nail growth

26.

The dermal appendages of the dermis include (SATA)

a)

Nail

b)

Hair

c)

Eccrine sweat glands

d)

Apocrine sweat glands

e)

Sebaceous glands

27.

The Langerhans cells migrate to the epidermis from the bone marrow and function as

a)

A shield against UV radiation

b)

Mechanoreceptors

c)

A protectant from mechanical stress

d)

A thermoregulator

e)

Defense against environmental antigens

28.

The skin covers the entire body and is comprised of (SATA)

a)

Ceramic

b)

Dermis

c)

Epidermis

d)

Graphite

e)

Hypodermis

29.

Whic of the followings are functions of hair EXCEPT

a)

Regulate body temperature

b)

Enhances sensation

c)

Provide protection in various areas

d)

Can contribute to re-growing damaged epidermis

e)

Can contribute to re-growing damaged epidermis

30.

A fungal or dermatophyte infection of the nail plate results in

a)

Onychomycosis

b)

Tenderness and swelling around the proximal or lateral nail folds

c)

Painful inflammation of the cuticle

d)

Paronychia

e)

Abnormal growth and distribution of hair on the nail plate

31.

Pemphigus is a rare autoimmune blistering disease of the skin that is

a)

Associated with ovarian or adrenal disease

b)

Caused by a fungal infection

c)

Caused by circulating autoantibodies directed against cell surface adhesion molecules of the epidermis

d)

Characterized by scales and plaques

e)

Chronic, proliferative, and involves the scalp and nails

32.

The types of cells that facilitate the functional characteristics of the epidermis include (SATA)

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

Melanocytes

c)

Lunula

d)

Merkel cells

e)

Macrophages

33.

Which of the followings regarding erythema multiforme is TRUE? (SATA)

a)

Can present symptoms such as fever, headache, malaise, sore throat, and cough

b)

Can result in blindness (corneal ulcerations)

c)

Is characterized by inflammation of skin and mucous membranes

d)

Is a single disease

e)

Difficulty with eating and breathing may develop with severe manifestations

34.

The skin is the body’s largest organ and functions (SATA)

a)

Protect the body from dehydration

b)

Stores water and fat

c)

Regulates body temperature

d)

Helps dispose of waste materials

e)

Acts as a receptor for touch

35.

T/F: Enteric plexus neurons regulate motility reflexes, blood flow, absorption, secretion and the immune response.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

saliva: secreted by 3 salivary glands: Submandibular gland, Sublingual gland, Parotid gland

b)

Saliva is comprised mostly of water containing various amounts of mucus, sodium, bicarbonate, chloride, potassium, lipase and salivary amylase

c)

ptyalin: enzyme that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth and stomach)

d)

Only sympathetic divisions of ANS stimulate the glands to increase salivation

e)

Lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter): prevents regurgitation

37.

Which of the followings are FALSE? SATA

a)

Upper esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter): prevents the entry of air into esophagus during respiration

b)

Swallowing occurs in two phases: Oropharyngeal (involuntary) Esophageal (voluntary)

c)

Repeated waves of primary peristalsis are required to clear the esophagus of food.

d)

primary peristalsis: vagal motor nerves induce a wave of contraction that spreads along the esophagus at 3-5 cm/s

e)

secondary peristalsis: Distension of the esophagus by the bolus can trigger another wave of contraction

38.

Which of the followings are TRUE about stomach? SATA

a)

Anatomic boundaries of the stomach: Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) and Pyloric sphincter

b)

Parietal cells which secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

c)

Chief cells which secrete gastrin.

d)

Hormone pepsinogen from the G cells

e)

Glands of the antrum secrete mucus

39.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

Gastric Emptying: the rate of gastric emptying depends on volume of gastric content, chemical composition and gastrin release

b)

Volume of gastric content: large volumes of food increase gastric pressure, peristalsis and the rate of emptying

c)

Chemical composition: fats and non-isotonic solutions delay gastric emptying

d)

Gastrin release: enhances peristalsis

e)

Gastric fluid composition: H+ and Cl ions.

40.

Acid secretion can be stimulated by

a)

Acetylcholine (ACh)

b)

prostaglandins

c)

Gastrin

d)

Nitric oxide

e)

Histamine

41.

Acid secretion can be inhibited by? SATA

a)

Histamine

b)

Secretin

c)

caffeine

d)

Somatostatin

e)

Nitric oxide

42.

Breakdown of the mucosal barrier may be caused by? SATA

a)

Aspirin and NSAIDs

b)

Helicobacter pylori

c)

Ethanol

d)

Prostaglandins

e)

nitric oxide

43.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

Small intestine includes: duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum

b)

Digestion and absorption of most nutrients occur in the duodenum and jejunum, while that of bile salts takes place in the terminal ileum

c)

The brush border contains several digestive enzymes such as secretin and cholecystokinin

d)

The process of intestinal digestion is initiated in the stomach by actions of HCl and Gastrin

e)

The process of intestinal digestion is continues in the proximal portion of the small intestine

44.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

large intestine includes: cecum, appendix, colon, rectum, anal canal

b)

Mucosa of the large intestine has villi and does produce digestive enzymes.

c)

Gastrin and cholecystokinin stimulate gastrocolic reflex

d)

By the time the fecal mass enters the sigmoid colon, feces (or excrement) consists of food residue, unabsorbed GI secretions, shed epithelial cells and bacteria.

e)

Movement of feces into the sigmoid colon and rectum stimulates the defecation reflex (rectosphincteric reflex).

45.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

The stomach is relatively sterile because HCl kills ingested pathogens or inhibits bacterial growth

b)

Duodenum: contain bacteriodes, clostridia, anaerobic lactobacilli and coliform

c)

Ileum to cecum: low concentration of aerobes, primarily streptococci, lactobacilli, staphylococci, enterobacteria and bacteriodes.

d)

Intestinal bacteria: Synthesis of vitamins K and B

e)

Intestinal bacteria: Metabolism of nitrogenous substances and drugs

46.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

Liver, gall bladder and exocrine pancreas secrete substances necessary for digestion

b)

Bile is a bitter-tasting yellowish green fluid containing bile salts (conjugated bile acids), cholesterol, bilirubin (a pigment), electrolytes and water.

c)

Primary function of gallbladder is to store and concentrate bile between meals

d)

Contraction is achieved by: Cholecystokinin secreted by duodenal and jejunal mucosa in the presence of fat

e)

Relaxation is achieved by: Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

47.

Which of the following is FALSE? SATA

a)

Aqueous secretions of the pancreas are isotonic and contain K+, H+, Na+, bicarbonate, Mg2+, Ca2+ and Cl-

b)

Pancreatic enzymes hydrolyze: Proteins, Carbohydrates, and Fats

c)

Endocrine pancreas secretes insulin, glucagon, somastostatin and pancreatic polypeptide.

d)

Relaxation is achieved by Pancreatic polypeptide and Stimulation of sympathetic nerves

e)

Bile salts are required for intestinal emulsification and digestion of fats

48.

Which of the followings are TRUE about GERD? SATA

a)

Gastrointestinal reflux disease (GERD) is the reflux of acid and pepsin from the stomach to the esophagus leading to esophagitis

b)

Risk factors for GERD include: Drugs that relax the LES (anticholinergics, nitrates, calcium channel blockers, nicotine).

c)

GERD may be a trigger for asthma or chronic cough.

d)

Risk factors - Vomiting, coughing, lifting, bending or obesity increases abdominal pressure and can contribute to GERD

e)

The severity of GERD-induced inflammation depends on the composition of gastric contents and the length of exposure

49.

Which of the followings are TRUE? SATA

a)

Long-term consequences of GERD is the appearance of precancerous lesions (e.g. Barrett’s esophagus) with progression to adenocarcinoma.

b)

Clinical manifestations of GERD include: Heartburn from acid regurgitation

c)

Clinical manifestations of GERD include: Chronic cough

d)

Clinical manifestations of GERD include: Asthma attacks

e)

Alcohol and acid-containing foods (such as citrus fruits and drinks) can cause discomfort during swallowing.

50.

Risk factors for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) includes? SATA

a)

Genetic

b)

Helicobacter pylori

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Psychological stress

e)

spicy food

51.

Which of the followings are TRUE about Duodenal Ulcers? SATA

a)

Duodenal ulcers are caused when acid and pepsin concentrations in the duodenum penetrate the mucosal barrier and leads to ulceration

b)

Chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area

c)

Pain begins right after eating (when stomach is full)

d)

Bleeding from duodenal ulcers can hematemesis or melena (black tarry stool)

e)

Pain is due to sensorineural stimulation by acid or muscle spasm, or both

52.

Which of the followings are TRUE about Gastric Ulcers? SATA

a)

ulcers of the stomach and usually occurs in patients aged 20-30 years

b)

It is caused by H. Pylori

c)

Defect is caused by abnormality that increases the mucosal barriers permeability to H+ ions

d)

Pain occurs before eating

e)

Gastric ulcers tend to be chronic and cause more anorexia, vomiting and weight loss than duodenal ulcers

53.

Which of the followings are TRUE about nausea and vomiting? SATA

a)

The vomiting center is found in the medulla oblongata and includes the reticular formation and nucleus tractus solitarius

b)

Stimulation of the vomiting center can occur as side effects of several drugs

c)

Stimulation of the vomiting center can occur indirectly via medulla oblongata

d)

During vomiting, the duodenum and antrum of the stomach produce retrograde peristalsis while the body of the stomach and the esophagus relax

e)

Nausea is a subjective experience that is associated with different conditions: Visceral pain, Labyrinthine stimulation (motion sickness), Use of opioids

54.

Which of the followings are Metabolic consequences of vomiting? SATA

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypochloremia

d)

Hypoglycemia

e)

Metabolic acidosis

55.

Stimulation ofchemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) leads to vomiting via activation of which of receptors?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Serotonin (5-HT3)

d)

Substance P

e)

Opioids

56.

T/F: Enteric nervous system (ENS): consists of neurons located exclusively in the GI tract and are controlled by local and ANS stimuli.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

57.

Which of the following are TRUE about the renal system? (SATA)

a)

Renin: Regulation of blood pressure

b)

Renal cortex: Is the inner part of each kidney that contains tubules and the collecting duct

c)

Erythropoietin: Production of

erythrocytes

d)

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3: Metabolism of

calcium

e)

Renal medulla: Contains all of the glomeruli, most of the proximal tubules, and some segments of

the distal tubule

58.

Which of the following are true about renal system? SATA

a)

Each kidney contains 2.1 million nephrons

b)

Mesangial cells: Have phagocytic properties and release inflammatory cytokines and

growth factors.

c)

Renal corpuscle: contain glomerulus, Bowman glomerular capsule and mesangial cells

d)

Renal corpuscle is the functional unit of the kidney

59.

Which of the followings are false about glomerulus? SATA

a)

Glomerular endothelial cells membrane filters selected blood components and Composed of cells called podocytes

b)

Glomerular endothelial cells regulate glomerular blood flow.

c)

Glomerular filtration membrane Synthesize nitric oxide (a vasodilator)

d)

Glomerular endothelial cells synthesize endothelin-1 (a vasoconstrictor)

e)

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells - specialized cells are located around the

efferent arteriole

60.

Which of the followings are true regarding to renal system? SATA

a)

Juxtaglomerular apparatus Control of renal blood flow (RBF), glomerular filtration, and renin

secretion

b)

If mean arterial pressure increase or vascular resistance

increases, then the renal blood flow decreases

c)

Solute and water excretion is changes as arterial

pressure changes.

d)

Autoregulation

helps maintenance of 80 to 180 mm Hg constant GFR

e)

Myogenic mechanism (stretch) As arterial pressure increase, glomerular perfusion decreases (and vice versa) and arteriole relaxes

61.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

Tubuloglomerular feedback: When sodium filtration increases, GFR decreases

b)

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted from myocardial cells in the atria

c)

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted from myocardial cells in the brain

d)

C-type natriuretic peptide

is secreted from vascular endothelium and in the nephron.

and causes vasodilation.

e)

Urodilatin is secreted by distal convoluted tubules and the collecting ducts.

and causes vasodilation, natriuretic, and diuretic effects

62.

About the angiotensin II, select the correct statements

a)

Stimulates the secretion of

aldosterone by the adrenal cortex

b)

a potent vasodilator

c)

Stimulates antidiuretic hormone

(ADH) secretion and thirst (hypothalamus and pituitary gland)

d)

Increase NaCl reabsorption proximal tubule

e)

Decrease plasma volume and decrease blood pressure

63.

Which of the followings are false? SATA

a)

Glomerulus is freely permeable to water and large colloids such as plasma proteins

b)

Positive-charged particles permeate the membrane more readily than neutral- or

negative-charged particles

c)

Tubular reabsorption

is the movement of fluid and solutes from peritubular lumen to the tubular

capillaries

d)

Tubular secretion is the movement of fluid and solutes from tubular lumen to the peritubular

capillaries

e)

Opposing forces Capillary hydrostatic pressure

64.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

Proximal tubule: reabsorption of Na, H2O (need ADH) and secretion of H+

b)

Loop of Henle: descending loop H2O reabsorption and Na diffuses out

c)

Loop of Henle: Ascending loop Na reabsorption Na and H2O stay in

d)

Distal tubule: reabsorption of Na, H2O and secretion of K, H+, some drugs

e)

Collecting duct: reabsorption of H2O (doesn't need ADH)

65.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

Proximal tubule: Na+H+ exchanger

b)

Loop of Henle: Na+Cl- cotransporter

c)

Distal tubule: Na+K+2Cl transporter

d)

Collecting duct: epithelial Na+ channel

66.

About Countercurrent exchange system, which of the following are true? SATA

a)

Involves water, sodium, and chloride transport

b)

Involves water, sodium, potassium and chloride transport

c)

Contributes to the production of concentrated urine

d)

Fluid flows in the opposite direction through parallel tubes

e)

Fluid becomes more and more

dilute as it encounters the distal tubule

67.

About tests of renal function, which of the following are true? SATA

a)

Concept of clearance Permits an indirect measure of GFR, tubular secretion, tubular

reabsorption, and RBF

b)

Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance is used to determine renal plasma flow and blood

flow

c)

GFR Is the best estimate for the functioning of renal tissue

d)

Plasma creatinine concentration: Normal value is 0.7 to 1.2 mg/dl AND Is most valuable for monitoring the progress of acute rather than chronic renal disease

e)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Is a better indicator for hydration status and good measure of GFR

68.

Regarding Kidney stones, which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

Kidney stones are also called renal hydronephrosis

b)

Masses of crystals, protein, or mineral salts form in

the urinary tract and may obstruct the urinary tract

c)

Male: Most prevalent rick factor

d)

Treatment

including parenteral and/or oral analgesics for acute pain

e)

Treatment including decrease fluid intake

69.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

Dyssynergia: Overactive or hyperreflexive bladder function

b)

Overactive: Symptom syndrome of urgency, with or without urge

incontinence; usually associated with frequency and nocturia

c)

Treatment for Overactive bladder syndrome: antimuscarinic agents; botulinum toxin

therapy; surgery

d)

Detrusor areflexia: Underactive, hypotonic, or atonic bladder

e)

Renal transitional cell carcinoma is the most common renal tumors

70.

Which of the following statements are true? SATA

a)

Urinary tract infection (UTI) is the inflammation of the urinary epithelium in the urinary tract

b)

Most

common pathogens cause UTI are Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Staphylococcus

saprophyticus

c)

Cystitis: Inflammation of upper urinary tract

d)

Pyelonephritis: Bladder inflammation

e)

Clinical manifestations

including Frequency, dysuria, urgency, and low back and/or suprapubic pain

71.

Which of the following statements are true? SATA

a)

Acute pyelonephritis: Acute infection of the ureter, renal pelvis, and/or renal parenchyma

b)

Chronic pyelonephritis: Inflammation and fibrosis in the interstitial spaces between the tubules, leading to chronic

kidney failure

c)

Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis: Hematuria with red blood cell casts and Proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day with albumin

d)

Acute glomerulonephritis: increased glomerular perfusion (glomerular blood flow)

e)

Acute glomerulonephritis: increased

permeability to proteins and red blood cells

72.

Which of the following statements are true? SATA

a)

Clinical manifestations of chronic Glomerulonephritis: Proteinuria and Hypercholesterolemia

b)

Diabetic nephropathy and lupus nephritis can lead to chronic glomerulonephritis

c)

Nephritic Syndrome: Caused by increased permeability of the glomerular

filtration membrane

d)

Clinical manifestations of Nephrotic Sediment: Blood is present in the

urine with red cell

casts, white cell casts,

and varying degrees of

protein, which is

usually not severe

e)

Clinical manifestations of Nephritic Sediment: Contains massive

amounts of protein and

lipids and either tiny

amount of blood or no

blood.

73.

Which of the following statements are true? SATA

a)

Uremia: Syndrome of renal failure

b)

Both azotemia and uremia:

Accumulation of nitrogenous

waste products in the blood

c)

Signs and symptom of Azotemia: Fatigue, anorexia, nausea,

vomiting, pruritus, and

neurologic changes

d)

Renal insufficiency or renal

failure, causing Uremia

e)

Azotemia: Increased serum urea levels

and frequently increased

creatinine levels

74.

Which of the following statement isfalse?

a)

Acute Kidney Injury: Sudden decline in kidney function with a decrease in GFR

and accumulation of nitrogenous waste products

b)

Chronic Kidney Disease: Progressive loss of renal function associated with systemic

diseases

c)

Chronic Kidney Disease: Kidney damage: GFR less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2 for 3

months or more, irrespective of cause

d)

Acute Kidney Injury types: prerenal, intrarenal and postrenal

75.

Which of the followings are functions of pulmonary? (SATA)

a)

Gaseous exchange

b)

Delivery of nutrients to lung tissues

c)

Acting as a blood reservoir for the left ventricle

d)

Filtering system to remove clots, air and debris from the circulation

76.

About the dorsal respiratory group (DRG), which of the following is FALSE?

a)

A cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the medulla

b)

A cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the pons

c)

Receives afferent impulses from peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies (which detect PaCO2 and PaO2

d)

Sends efferent impulses to the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles

e)

Sets the basic automatic rhythm of respiration

77.

Which of the following is not consist in the gas-exchange airways (acini) structure?

a)

A.   Alveolar ducts

b)

Alveoli

c)

Respiratory bronchioles

d)

Segmental bronchi

e)

Lobar bronchi

78.

Which of the following mechanisms are involved in the pathogenesis of COPD?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Loss of elastic lung fibers and alveolar tissue

 

c)

Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

d)

Hypersecretion of mucus

e)

Hypertrophy of submucosal glands

79.

In the early asthmatic response in patients with the allergic form of the disease, inflammatory mediators released from mast cells are responsible for All of the following EXCEPT

a)

Bronchospasm 

b)

A.   Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

c)

Mucosal edema

d)

Vasodilation

e)

Increased capillary permeability

80.

Obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by

a)

Slow emptying of the lungs

.  

b)

Wheezing

c)

Dyspnea

d)

More force is required to expel a given volume of air

e)

Less time is required to expel a given volume of air

81.

Which of the following statements about neurons of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG) of the Respiratory Center are true?

a)

DRG is almost inactive during normal, quiet respiration

b)

DRG sends efferent impulses to the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles

c)

DRG sets the basic automatic rhythm of respiration

E.   

d)

DRG is a cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the medulla

e)

DRG receives afferent impulses from peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies (which detects PaCO2 & PaO2)

82.

Which of the following represent anatomical structures of the pulmonary system? (SATA)

a)

Pulmonary circulation  

b)

Gas-exchange airways

c)

Conducting airways

d)

Bronchial Circulation

e)

Chest Wall and Pleura

83.

Which of the following statements about emphysema are true? SATA

a)

It is characterized by permanent enlargement of gas-exchange airways

b)

It is characterized by an increase in the uptake of acetylcholine by the vagal nerves

c)

Centriacinar emphysema occurs in smokers with chronic bronchitis

d)

A major cause of secondary emphysema is the inhalation of cigarette smoke

e)

Primary emphysema is linked to an inherited deficiency of the alpha1-antitrypsin enzyme

84.

In emphysema, the destruction of alveoli due to breakdown in elastin within the septa is due to (SATA)

a)

An imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases

b)

Dopamine release

c)

 

Oxidative stress

 

d)

Antigen-antibody reactions

e)

Apoptosis of lung structural cells

85.

Which of the following statements about COPD are true? SATA

a)

It can caused by an imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases

B.  

b)

  It is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide

c)

  

Most common cause of disease is smoking tobacco 

d)

It can be caused by exposure to occupational dusts and chemicals

e)

It can caused by apoptosis of lung structural cells

86.

1.    Type I alveolar cells provide surfactant

2.    Type II alveolar cells secrete structure

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

87.

Lower airway structures are lined with ciliated mucosa which warms and humidifies inspired air to 100% and removes foreign particles from it as it passes into the lungs

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

88.

Carina is very sensitive and when stimulated can cause coughing and airway narrowing

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

89.

Bronchial walls have three layers:

A. Epithelial lining: contains single-celled mucus secreting goblet cells and ciliated cells.

B. Smooth muscle layer

C. Connective tissue layer: in large bronchi, the connective tissue layer also contains cartilage.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

90.

Bronchial walls have three layers:

A. Epithelial lining: contains single-celled mucus secreting goblet cells and ciliated cells.

B. Smooth muscle layer

C. Connective tissue layer: in large bronchi, the connective tissue layer also contains cartilage.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

91.

Upper airway contains the nasopharyngeal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

92.

Lower airway contains laryngopharynx, the larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchopulmonary segments, terminal bronchioles

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

93.

Upper airway contains the nasopharyngeal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

94.

Lower airway contains laryngopharynx, the larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchopulmonary segments, terminal bronchioles

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

95.

Gaseous exchange between alveoli is via the pores of Kohn

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

96.

The pulmonary circulation has a lower pressure and resistance than the systemic circulation:

mean pulmonary artery pressure = 18 mmHg

mean aortic pressure = 90 mmHg.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

97.

1.    Breathing is usually voluntary

2.    Involuntary breathing is required for: – Talking – Singing – Laughing – Holding one’s breath.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

98.

Pattern of breathing can be influenced by emotional state and by disease

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

99.

The peripheral chemoreceptors located near the Respiratory Center and Monitors pH, PaCO2 and PaO2.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE