WorksheetsBY 121 Final Review pt. 3
Total questions: 45
Worksheet time: 23mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
DNA is built from two parallel strands of repeating units or “building blocks” called
a)
chromosomes
b)
nucleotides
c)
allozymes
d)
nucleosomes
e)
megabloks
2.
What forms the rungs of a DNA “ladder”?
a)
The sugar, deoxyribose
b)
A phosphate group
c)
A pair of nitrogenous bases
d)
A sugar-phosphate pair
e)
histone proteins
3.
What is Ribose?
a)
a cellular factory for making proteins
b)
a sugar found in nucleic acids
c)
an enzyme used in transcription and translation
d)
a phosphate group
e)
a hiding place for the key of time
4.
What is the function of DNA polymerase?
a)
It builds a new molecule of DNA using one strand as a template
b)
It unzips the DNA molecule, so the template can be read
c)
It makes an RNA copy of DNA for gene expression
d)
It builds nucleotides from sugars, phosphate groups, and bases
e)
It bundles DNA into chromosomes
5.
What is meant by “semiconservative” replication?
a)
Cells recycle (conserve) nucleotides from old DNA molecules to make new DNA
b)
Cells recycle (conserve) nucleotides from old RNA molecules to make new DNA
c)
To save resources, cells only copy the parts of DNA that have been used in the life of the cell
d)
After being used to make a new DNA molecule, the original DNA molecule reforms
e)
Each new DNA double helix contains one old strand and one new strand
6.
What does PCR stand for?
a)
Principle Components Research
b)
Polymerase Copy Reaction
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Polypeptide Chain Response
e)
Preliminary Cell Replication
7.
Choose the complementary strand for this template strand of DNA: ACG CAT GTG
a)
TGC GTA CAC
b)
CAT ACG TGT
c)
ACG CAT GTG
d)
GTG TAC GCA
e)
RNA
8.
In a DNA double helix, ______ _______ bonds connect each nucleotide along a single strand, while ______ _______ bonds connect the two strands together.
a)
weak covalent; strong hydrogen
b)
strong hydrogen; weak covalent
c)
strong covalent; weak hydrogen
d)
weak hydrogen; strong covalent
e)
weak covalent; weak hydrogen
9.
Which of the following is the best description of PCR?
a)
an artificial way to correct mutations in a gene
b)
a quick method of sequencing the nucleotides in a DNA molecule
c)
a genetic disorder preventing the proper function of DNA polymerase.
d)
an artificial way to edit the genome of an organism
e)
fast, artificial DNA replication
10.
The process by which DNA is used to synthesize a complementary strand of RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
polymerization
d)
RNA replication
e)
semiconservative replication
11.
A key difference between DNA and RNA is that RNA
a)
is single-stranded
b)
uses uracil in place of thymine
c)
uses ribose in place of deoxyribose
d)
all of the choices are true
e)
none of the choices are true
12.
What term is used for the expressed regions in an RNA transcript that are retained after non-coding regions are removed?
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
uracils
d)
mutations
e)
promoters
13.
In eukaryotes, RNA is modified before it leaves the nucleus as a mature mRNA molecule. Specifically, non-coding regions are spliced out of the RNA. These non-coding regions are called
a)
exons
b)
introns
c)
uracils
d)
UTRs
e)
promoters
14.
The process by which one gene can encode many different proteins, depending on which exons are removed and which are left in the mature mRNA, is due to
a)
gene expression
b)
post-transcriptional modifications
c)
gene emoting
d)
alternative genetics
e)
exonification
15.
The process by which mRNA is used to synthesize protein is called
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
polymerization
d)
RNA replication
e)
semiconservative replication
16.
These cytoplasmic structures help translate information from the language of mRNA (nitrogenous bases) to the language of proteins (amino acids).
a)
ribosomes
b)
cytoskeleton
c)
mitochondria
d)
codons
e)
DNA polymerase
17.
The molecules responsible for delivering amino acids to mRNA during protein synthesis are called
a)
ribosomes
b)
ligase
c)
uracil
d)
rRNA
e)
tRNA
18.
The three-nucleotide region of mRNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n)
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
exon
d)
codon
e)
anticodon
19.
Nearly every organism on Earth uses the same genetic code. Therefore, the code is said to be.
a)
redundant
b)
unambiguous
c)
ambiguous
d)
universal
e)
dispersal
20.
Gene expression can change in response to internal signals (from inside the body) or external cues in the environment. When the rate of gene expression is increased, it is said to be __________________.
a)
modulated
b)
repressed
c)
up-regulated
d)
down-regulated
e)
excited
21.
The word “evolution” in biology essentially means
a)
survival
b)
progress
c)
change over time
d)
mutation
e)
speciation
22.
Differential survival and reproduction among individuals of a population that vary in details of shared, inherited traits is referred to as
a)
ecological adaptation
b)
biogeography
c)
natural selection
d)
fitness
e)
comparative biology
23.
The study of patterns in the geographic distribution of species is called
a)
diversity
b)
biogeography
c)
ecology
d)
natural history
e)
environmentalism
24.
Some organisms have structures with no apparent function, although they resemble functional structures in other organisms. For example, snakes have the remnants of bones for legs (but no legs), and humans have a tailbone (but no tail). Such structures are referred to as
a)
trace fossils
b)
vestigial
c)
artificial
d)
variable
e)
mutations
25.
The similarity between the bones in the arm of a human and the bones in the wing of a bat are due to their inheritance from a common ancestor. Such structures are said to be
a)
analogous
b)
homologous
c)
mutations
d)
uniformitarity
e)
coevolution
26.
A trait that enhances an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce in a particular environment is called an
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
fitness trait
d)
adaptive trait
e)
reproductive trait
27.
This is a process in the breeding of animals and the cultivation of plants by which the breeder chooses to perpetuate only those forms having certain desirable traits.
a)
genetic drift
b)
phylogenetics
c)
Darwinian selection
d)
artificial selection
e)
agriculture
28.
Which of the following is not true of natural selection?
a)
Individuals with advantageous traits for a particular environment reproduce at a higher rate than do individuals with less useful traits
b)
The environment “chooses” or selects the winners
c)
Selection always favors the strongest, most physically fit individuals
d)
Over time, advantageous traits become more common
29.
Approximately 250 million years ago, all of the landmasses on Earth formed one giant continent called
a)
Atlantis
b)
Rhovanion
c)
Gaia
d)
Pangaea
e)
Kuniumi
30.
Birds and insects both have wings for flying through the air. In this example, wings are
a)
vestigial
b)
homologous
c)
adaptive
d)
artificially selected
e)
modified forelimbs
31.
The ultimate source of new alleles in populations is
a)
genetic drift
b)
gene flow
c)
inheritance
d)
mutation
e)
natural selection
32.
The collection of all of the genes in one population is referred to as the
a)
gene pool
b)
genotype
c)
phenotype
d)
genome
e)
gene library
33.
Which of the following could bring about a change in the allele frequencies (i.e., evolution) in a population?
a)
mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
genetic drift
d)
natural selection
e)
all of these
34.
The mode of selection in which traits at one end of a range of variation become more common is called
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
directional selection
c)
disruptive selection
d)
artificial selection
e)
driving selection
35.
The four different blood types (A, B, AB, and O) are determined by three different alleles for a single gene. Which of the following terms best describes this occurrence of multiple alleles in a population?
a)
phenotypic plasticity
b)
independent assortment
c)
polymorphism
d)
dimorphism
e)
population genetics
36.
For a gene with two alleles (A and a), if the frequency of A is 0.2, what is the frequency of a?
a)
0.2
b)
0.8
c)
0.08
d)
99.8
e)
Need more information to determine
37.
If a population remains in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the genotype frequency for heterozygotes is 60% in generation 1, what will the frequency of heterozygotes be after 100 generations?
a)
0.25
b)
0.5
c)
0.6
d)
1
e)
It's impossible to know
38.
The mode of selection that favors an intermediate phenotype and eliminates extreme forms is called
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
directional selection
c)
disruptive selection
d)
artificial selection
e)
driving selection
39.
In a population of 1000 penguins, 500 are heterozygous (Aa) for a particular gene. What is the frequency of the heterozygotes?
a)
0.5
b)
0.25
c)
0.75
d)
5
e)
Need additional information to determine
40.
After studying a population of opossums over a period of 100 years, we determine that the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a particular gene. In other words, allele and genotype frequencies have changed over the 100 years. If so, which of the following statements is also true?
a)
A mutation must have occurred
b)
Natural selection must have occurred
c)
The population is evolving
d)
The population is not evolving
e)
Gene flow must have occurred
41.
What is the determining factor in the Biological Species Concept? In other words, what is used to assess whether two organisms are members of the same species?
a)
genetic similarity
b)
behavioral similarity
c)
ecological similarity
d)
ability to interbreed
e)
whether they are built out of the same type of cells
42.
This is the general term for the process by which one species changes over time to form two or more new species as the result of genetic divergence.
a)
selection
b)
mutation
c)
drift
d)
speciation
e)
gene flow
43.
From a biological perspective, why is sexual reproduction considered to be costly?
a)
Time and energy must be invested to find or attract a mate
b)
Advantageous gene combinations in one parent may be lost in the offspring
c)
Each parent only passes 50 percent of their genetic material to offspring
d)
For all of these reasons
e)
For none of these reasons
44.
This refers to speciation due to populations that are reproductively isolated by minor differences in habitat.
a)
polyploidy
b)
ecological isolation
c)
sympatric speciation
d)
gene flow
e)
drift
45.
This refers to speciation in the absence of geographic isolation. In other words, speciation occurred between populations living in the same area.
a)
parapatric speciation
b)
ecological isolation
c)
sympatric speciation
d)
gene flow
e)
drift
100 %
