WorksheetsMaternal/Newborn & Reproduction
Total questions: 111
Worksheet time: 3hrs 2mins
Which portion of the uterus is most likely to rupture during childbirth?
a. Cervix
b. Isthmus
c. Corpus
d. Fundus
(a)
The nurse is collecting data from a client who is pregnant with twins. The client has a healthy 5-year-old child who was delivered at 38 weeks, and she tells the nurse that she does not have a history of any type of abortion or fetal demise. The nurse should document which as the GTPAL for this client?
G = 2, T = 1, P = 0, A = 0, L = 1
G = 1, T = 1, P = 0, A = 0, L = 0
G = 2, T = 1, P = 0, A = 1 L = 2
G = 2, T = 1, P = 2, A = 0, L = 1
The nurse is checking a client's record for probable signs of pregnancy. Which are the probable signs of pregnancy that the nurse should note? Select all that apply.
Ballottement
Chadwick's sign
Uterine enlargement
Braxton Hicks contractions
Hearing a fetal heartbeat
The client is undergoing an amniocentesis at 16 weeks' gestation to detect the presence of biochemical or chromosomal abnormalities. Which instructions should the nurse reinforce to the client?
The bladder must be full during the examination.
The bladder must be emptied prior to examination.
This test screens for neural tube defects & lung maturity
A 20 min electronic fetal monitoring strip will be obtained to evaluate fetal wellbeing and obtain a baseline to compare after procedure
While assisting with the measurement of fundal height, the client at 36 weeks' gestation states that she is feeling lightheaded. On the basis of the nurse's knowledge of pregnancy, the nurse determines that this is most likely a result of which reason?
Compression of the vena cava
Low iron
Amenorrhea
Fatigue
The nurse is talking to a pregnant client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection regarding care for the newborn after delivery. The client asks the nurse about the feeding options that are available. Which response should the nurse make to the client?
"You will need to bottle-feed your newborn."
"You will need to feed your newborn by nasogastric tube feeding."
"You will be able to breast-feed for 6 months and then will need to switch to bottle-feeding."
"You will be able to breast-feed for 9 months and then will need to switch to bottle-feeding."
A rubella titer result of a 1-day postpartum client is less than 1:8, and a rubella virus vaccine is prescribed to be administered before discharge. The nurse provides which information to the client about the vaccine? Select all that apply.
Pregnancy needs to be avoided for 1 to 3 months.
The vaccine is administered by the subcutaneous route.
Exposure to immunosuppressed individuals needs to be avoided.
A hypersensitivity reaction can occur if the client has an allergy to eggs.
Breast-feeding needs to be stopped for 3 months.
The nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The nurse rechecks the client's blood pressure and notes that it has dropped. To decrease the incidence of supine hypotension, the nurse should encourage the client to remain in which position?
Left lateral recumbent
Supine
Prone
Fowlers
The nurse is assigned to assist with caring for a client who has been admitted to the labor unit. The client is 9 cm dilated and is experiencing precipitous labor. Which is the priority nursing action?
Keep the client in a side-lying position.
Check the FHR
Administer pain medication
Turn client to supine position
A patient has undergone an amniocentesis for evaluation of fetal well-being. Which intervention would be included in the nurse’s plan of care after the procedure? Select all that apply.
Perform ultrasound to determine fetal positioning.
Observe the patient for possible uterine contractions.
Administer RhoGAM to the patient if she is Rh-negative.
Perform a mini catheterization to obtain a urine specimen to assess for bleeding.
The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what would be another tool useful in confirming the diagnosis?
A. Doppler blood flow analysis
B. Contraction stress test (CST)
C. Amniocentesis
D. Daily fetal movement counts
(a)
What is an appropriate indicator for performing a contraction stress test?
A. Increased fetal movement and small for gestational age.
B. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity.
C. Adolescent pregnancy and poor prenatal care.
D. History of preterm labor and intrauterine growth restriction.
(a)
A woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation is having a nonstress test. Which statement indicates her correct understanding of the test?
A. "I will need to have a full bladder for the test to be done accurately."
B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test because I may be nauseated."
C. "This test will help to determine whether the baby has Down syndrome or a neural tube defect."
D. "This test observes for fetal activity and an acceleration of the fetal heart rate to determine the well-being of the baby."
(a)
A 40-year-old woman with a high body mass index (BMI) is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool is appropriate to suggest to her at this time?
A. Biophysical profile
B. Amniocentesis
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
D. Transvaginal ultrasound
(a)
The multigravida mother with a history of rapid labor who is in active labor calls out to the nurse, “The baby is coming!” Which of the following would be the nurse’s first action?
A. Inspect the perineum.
B. Time the contractions.
C. Auscultate the fetal heart rate.
D. Contact the birth attendant.
(a)
What is the approximate time that the blastocyst spends traveling to the uterus for implantation?
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 weeks
(a)
While caring for a multigravida client in early labor in a birthing center, which of the following foods would be best if the client requests a snack?
A. Yogurt
B. Cereal with milk
C. Vegetable soup
D. Peanut butter cookies
(a)
You're assessing a patient's chart and find that the patient is 36 weeks pregnant. Where should you find the fundus of the uterus during your assessment of fundal height?
A. midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process
B. about 4 cm below the xiphoid process
C. at the xiphoid process
D. 5 cm above the umbilicus
(a)
Which of the following would be inappropriate to assess in a mother who’s breastfeeding?
A. The attachment of the baby to the breast.
B. The mother’s comfort level with positioning the baby.
C. Audible swallowing.
D. The baby’s lips smacking.
(a)
Your patient is 24 weeks pregnant, and you’re measuring the fundal height. Which finding below is a normal measurement for this patient?
A. 16 cm
B. 28 cm
C. 26 cm
D. 12 cm
(a)
A nursing student, who you are precepting during their OB rotation, asks you when the fundus of the uterus is no longer palpable. You answer:
A. at about 10 to 14 days
B. at about 7 days
C. at 6 weeks
D. 48 hours after the delivery of the baby.
(a)
A patient is 40 weeks pregnant, and you find the fundal height to be 4 cm below the xiphoid process. Your next nursing action is to:
A. Notify the MD immediately
B. Chart this as a normal finding
C. Place the patient on continuous fetal monitoring
D. Assess the baby’s heart rate with a Doppler
(a)
Which finding while measuring the fundal height of a patient who is 36 weeks pregnant would require immediate action?
A. The fundal height measures at 38 cm.
B. The patient complains of feeling lightheaded and dizzy.
C. The fundus of the uterus is at the xiphoid process.
D. The patient states she cannot sleep at night.
(a)
A 30 year old female is 25 weeks pregnant with twins. She has 5 living children. Four of the 5 children were born at 39 weeks gestation and one child was born at 27 weeks gestation. Two years ago she had a miscarriage at 10 weeks gestation. What is her GTPAL?
A. G=7, T=4, P=0, A=1, L=5
B. G=7, T=4, P=1, A=1, L=5
C. G=6, T=4, P=0, A=1, L=5
D. G=6, T=2, P=2, A=1, L=5
(a)
A 30 year old female is 20 weeks pregnant with twins. She has a 6 year-old who was born at 40 weeks gestation. She has no history of miscarriage or abortion. What is her GTPAL?*
A. G=1, T=0, P=1, A=3, L=0
B. G=2, T=1, P=0, A=0, L=1
C. G=2, T=1, P=2, A=0, L=1
D. G=1, T=1, P=0, A=0, L=1
(a)
A 29 year old female is currently 9 weeks pregnant. She has no living children. Two years ago she had 2 miscarriages at 10 and 12 weeks gestation. What is her GTPAL?*
A. G=3, T=0, P=0, A=2, L=0
B. G=3, T=1, P=2, A=0, L=0
C. G=3, T=1, P=2, A=0, L=4
D. G=3, T=0, P=1, A=2, L=2
(a)
Which category of pregnancy signs are subjective and can only be reported by the patient?
A. Positive Signs
B. Probable Signs
C. Presumptive Signs
D. Proven Signs
(a)
Which of the following are NOT considered presumptive signs of pregnancy? Select all that apply:
Positive pregnancy test
Fatigue
Ballottement
Increased urination
Quickening
A 35-year-old female suspects she may be pregnant. The physician notes in chart that the lower uterine segment is soft. As the nurse you know this is known as:
A. Ballottement
B. Hegar’s Sign
C. Goodell’s Sign
D. Chadwick’s Sign
(a)
Which statement below correctly describes Chadwick’s Sign
A. “This sign is present when there is softening of the cervix.”
B. “Chadwick’s Sign is the rebounding of the fetus against the examiner fingers when the uterus is pushed during palpation.”
C. “This can be noted when the lower segment of the uterus softens.”
D. “Chadwick’s Sign occurs when there is a bluish color to the vulva, cervix and vagina.”
(a)
Select all the probable signs of pregnancy:
A. Enlarged uterus
B. Ultrasound detecting fetus
C. Goodell’s Sign
D. Braxton Hick’s contractions
E. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
Enlarged uterus
Ultrasound detecting fetus
Goodell’s Sign
Braxton Hick’s contractions
Fetal movement felt by the examiner
A 25-year-old female, who is 18 weeks pregnant, reports feeling fluttering in her lower abdomen. She states it feels like the baby is moving. This is known as:
A. Ballottement
B. Quickening
C. Hegar’s Sign
D. Goodell’s Sign
(a)
Gravidity is defined as (a) .*
A. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 20 weeks.
C. the number of times a woman has been pregnant regardless of the outcome.
D. the number of births regardless of the outcome.
Parity is defined as (a) .
A. the number of babies born at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 36 weeks.
C. the number of births at 20 weeks or less.
D. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.
A woman who has never given birth or completed a pregnancy at 20 weeks gestation or greater is termed as?
A. Primigravida
B. Nullipara
C. Nulligravida
D. Primipara
(a)
A patient says she has never been pregnant before. You would chart this as?
A. Nullipara
B. Primigravida
C. Nulligravida
D. Multigravida
(a)
A patient is currently 32 weeks pregnant. She reports being pregnant 2 other times before this current pregnancy, and had 2 live births at 39 and 40 weeks. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 3, para 2
B. Gravida 2, para 3
C. Gravida 2, para 2
D. Gravida 4, para 2
(a)
A 28-year-old female gives birth to twins at 38 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 1, para 1
B. Gravida 1, para 2
C. Gravida 2, para 2
D. Gravida 1, para 0
(a)
A 32-year-old is pregnant with twins at 32 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 2, para 2
B. Gravida 1, para 1
C. Gravida 2, para 0
D. Gravida 1, para 0
(a)
During a prenatal visit a patient tells you her last menstrual period was May 21, 2016. Based on the Naegele's Rule, when is the estimated due date of her baby?*
A. February 27, 2016
B. March 19. 2017
C. February 28, 2017
D. April 16, 2016
(a)
During a prenatal visit a patient tells you her last menstrual period was January 30, 2016. Based on the Naegele's Rule, when is the estimated due date of her baby?*
A. November 6, 2016
B. October 25. 2017
C. November 4, 2017
D. October 22, 2016
(a)
A patient with HIV is 6 weeks pregnant. What would you educate the patient about?
A. HIV can not be passed to the fetus
B. HIV is only passed through blood
C. Practice safe but total abstinence from sexual intercourse during the pregnancy is recommended
D. How breast feeding will help the newborn after birth
(a)
A patient tells you she has used bath salts and marijuana during the first 10 weeks of her pregnancy because she "didn't know she was pregnant". Which statement is correct about substance abuse during pregnancy?
A. Marijuana is found to be therapeutic for both mom and baby during pregnancy
B. It is okay to take over-the-counter medications because they don't require a prescription
C. Most substances do not cross the placenta so no harm should have been done to the baby
D. Substance abuse places the pregnancy at risk for fetal growth restriction and abruptio placentae
(a)
A patient is wanting to become pregnant and has underwent prenatal counsel and testing. Her rubella titer is lower than 1:8. She consents to receiving the rubella vaccine. What education will you provide to the patient?*
A. She must use an effective birth control method at the time of immunization and not become pregnant for 1-3 months.
B. It is okay to come into contact with people who are immunocompromised.
C. The patient's rubella titer is normal and therefore the vaccine is not needed.
D. Once she has a positive pregnancy test she is to call the office to schedule another appointment.
(a)
A patient is the third trimester of her pregnancy states she has been getting "terrible" leg cramps at night. Which statement is true about leg cramps during pregnancy?
A. Avoiding regular exercise with help prevent tireness in the legs, therefore resting the legs will decrease leg cramps
B. Tell the patient to increase her intake of iron fortified foods because low irons levels can cause leg cramps
C. Dorsiflexing the foot will help the affected leg
D. A prenatal work up needs to be performed for this is not normal in the third trimester of pregnancy
(a)
Your patient is suffering from constipation and is 8 months pregnant. Which statement is incorrect when educating the patient about relief measures?
A. Taking a cap-ful of Ex-lax a day will help relieve constipation
B. Try to eat food rich is fiber such as beans, fruits, and vegetables along with sufficient fluid intake.
C. Exercise regularly
D. Constipation is experienced in the 2nd and 3rd trimester because of decreased intestinal motility
(a)
A patient in the early stages of pregnancy is suffering from "morning sickness". Which statement by the patient requires you to further educate the patient about this condition?
A. "I have been addicted to Mexican food and fried pickles lately."
B. "I eat frequently through out the day and they are small amounts".
C. "I have my saltines at my bedside to munch on before I get up".
D. "I know this morning sickness will pass and I should feel better in the 2nd trimester".
(a)
A patient is having an abdominal ultrasound to assess fetal gestational age and estimated date of delivery. Which statement is incorrect about this type of testing?
A. Before the abdominal ultrasound is performed the patient should empty bladder.
B. An abdominal ultrasound can outline and identify fetal and maternal structures.
C. Generally, at 20 weeks an abdominal ultrasound can be performed to assess fetal gender.
D. There are two types of ultrasounds that can be safely performed on a pregnant patient: abdominal and transvaginal
(a)
A patient who is 8 1/2 months pregnant tells you she has been counting her baby's kicks and is concerned because within a 4 hour period the baby has only kicked 32 times. What nursing intervention is correct?
A. Reassure the patient this kick count is normal.
B. Notify the MD of this finding.
C. Prep the patient for an abdominal ultrasound.
D. Assess the patient's urine for protein and glucose.
(a)
A patient is undergoing an amniocentesis. Which statement is correct about this procedure?
A. The patient is to be in the supine position.
B. The patient will be ordered a blood type and cross before the procedure.
C. It is performed at 30-32 weeks pregnancy.
D. It is normal for the patient to leak fluid at the needle insertion site for 2-4 days.
(a)
Which statement by the patient (who is 5'5 127 lbs) would cause you to re-educated the patient about nutrition during her pregnancy?
A. "I can expect to gain 50-60 lbs during my pregnancy"
B. "I will need to increase by calorie intake by 300 cal/day"
C. "I need to be sure to eat a lot foods with folic acid in them"
D. "I don't have to watch my sodium intake unless the MD specifies"
(a)
The (a) is responsible for secreting gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary gland
D. Posterior pituitary gland
A patient in her 14th week of pregnancy has presented with abdominal cramping and vaginal bleeding for the past 8 hours. She has passed several clots. What is the primary nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A. Knowledge deficit
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Anticipatory grieving
D. Pain
(a)
pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take castor oil for her constipation. How should the nurse respond?
A. “Yes, it produces no adverse effect.”
B. “No, it can initiate premature uterine contractions.”
C. “No, it can promote sodium retention.”
D. “No, it can lead to increased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.”
(a)
Which of the following would the nurse most likely expect to find when assessing a pregnant client with abruption placenta?
A. Excessive vaginal bleeding
B. Rigid, board-like abdomen
C. Tetanic uterine contractions
D. Premature rupture of membranes
(a)
A primigravida client at 25 weeks gestation visits the clinic and tells the nurse that her lower back aches when she arrives home from work. The nurse should suggest that the client perform:
A. Tailor sitting
B. Leg lifting
C. Shoulder circling
D. Squatting exercises
(a)
The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about 2 months and 1-week gestation. After explaining self-care measures for common discomforts of pregnancy, the nurse determines that the client understands the instructions when she says:
A. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few crackers before rising.”
B. “If I start to leak colostrum, I should cleanse my nipples with soap and water.”
C. “If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear nylon underwear.”
D. “Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack on the area.”
(a)
A client at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for a routine ultrasound prior to amniocentesis. After teaching the client about the purpose of the ultrasound, which of the following client statements would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client needs further instruction?
A. The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta.
B. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord.
C. The test will determine where to insert the needle.
D. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid.
(a)
Which of the following findings in a woman would be consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration?
A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. And the presence of striae gravidarum.
B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency.
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening.
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement.
(a)
It is important that nurses include a discussion about teratogens in their prenatal discussions to help prevent deformities or abnormalities. Teratogens may include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Multivitamin supplement
Certain medications
Alcohol
Infections
When discussing the various risks to the mother and infant, the nurse should include that which of the following is the leading cause of cognitive impairment in the United States?
a. Maternal drug addiction
b. Pregnancy category X medications
c. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
d. Genetic anomalies
(a)
The nurse caring for a pregnant woman knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the woman reports that she has been sleeping:
A. In a side-lying position.
B. On her back with a pillow under her knees.
C. With the head of the bed elevated.
D. On her abdomen.
(a)
A woman at 35 weeks of gestation has had an amniocentesis. The results reveal that surface-active phospholipids are present in the amniotic fluid. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates that:
A. The fetus is at risk for Down syndrome.
B. The woman is at high risk for developing preterm labor.
C. The lungs are mature.
D. Meconium is present in the amniotic fluid
(a)
In reviewing the history of a woman who wants to become pregnant, which medication profile would indicate a potential concern relative to toxic exposure? (Select all that apply.)
A. Tylenol OTC occasionally for a headache; twice last week
B. Anticonvulsant for seizure disorder
C. Lithium for bipolar disorder
D. Coumadin for atrial fibrillation
E. Multivitamins once a day
Tylenol OTC occasionally for a headache; twice last week
Anticonvulsant for seizure disorder
Lithium for bipolar disorder
Coumadin for atrial fibrillation
Multivitamins once a day
A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity according to the GTPAL system?
A. 2-0-0-1-1
B. 2-1-0-1-0
C. 3-1-0-1-0
D. 3-0-1-1-0
(a)
Over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy tests usually rely on which technology to test for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
A. Radioimmunoassay
B. Radioreceptor assay
C. Latex agglutination test
D. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
(a)
A nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:
A. A positive pregnancy test result.
B. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife.
C. Braxton Hicks contractions.
D. Quickening.
(a)
During a client's physical examination, the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as:
A. Hegar sign.
B. McDonald sign.
C. Chadwick sign.
D. Goodell sign.
(a)
Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester?
A. Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2)
B. Increased pulse rate
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production
(a)
A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a:
A. Primipara
B. Primigravida
C. Multipara
D. Nulligravida
(a)
Which presumptive sign (felt by woman) or probable sign (observed by the examiner) of pregnancy is not matched with another possible cause(s)?
A. Amenorrhea—stress, endocrine problems
B. Quickening—gas, peristalsis
C. Goodell sign—cervical polyps
D. Chadwick sign—pelvic congestion
(a)
In order to reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their blood pressure, maternity nurses should be aware that:
A. A blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high.
B. Shifting the client's position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit.
C. The systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant.
D. Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy.
(a)
Which hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (HGB) results represent the lowest acceptable values for a woman in the third trimester of pregnancy?
A. 38% HCT; 14 g/dL HGB
B. 35% HCT; 13 g/dL HGB
C. 33% HCT; 11 g/dL HGB
D. 32% HCT; 10.5 g/dL HGB
(a)
A pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation jogs three or four times per week. She is concerned about the effect of exercise on the fetus. The nurse should tell her:
A. "You don't need to modify your exercising any time during your pregnancy."
B. "Stop exercising, because it will harm the fetus."
C. "You may find that you need to modify your exercise to walking later in your pregnancy, around the seventh month."
D. "Jogging is too hard on your joints; switch to walking now."
(a)
A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is informed by the nurse that a danger sign of pregnancy could be:
A. Constipation
B. Alteration in the pattern of fetal movement
C. Heart palpitations
D. Edema in the ankles and feet at the end of the day
(a)
A woman who is 14 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she always had a glass of wine with dinner before she became pregnant. She has abstained during her first trimester and would like to know whether it is safe for her to have a drink with dinner now. The nurse tells her:
A. "Because you're in your second trimester, there's no problem with having one drink with dinner."
B. "One drink every night is too much. One drink three times a week should be fine."
C. "Because you're in your second trimester, you can drink as much as you like."
D. "Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy."
(a)
What type of cultural concern is the most likely deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care?
A. Religion
B. Modesty
C. Ignorance
D. Belief that physicians are evil
(a)
In understanding and guiding a woman through her acceptance of pregnancy, a maternity nurse should be aware that:
A. Nonacceptance of the pregnancy very often equates to rejection of the child.
B. Mood swings are most likely the result of worries about finances and a changed lifestyle, as well as profound hormonal changes.
C. Ambivalent feelings during pregnancy are usually seen only in emotionally immature or very young mothers.
D. Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need not be addressed during pregnancy because they will resolve themselves naturally after birth.
(a)
With regard to medications, herbs, shots, and other substances normally encountered, the maternity nurse should be aware that during pregnancy:
A. Prescription and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that otherwise are harmless can be made hazardous by metabolic deficiencies of the fetus.
B. The greatest danger of drug-caused developmental deficits in the fetus is seen in the final trimester.
C. Killed-virus vaccines (e.g., tetanus) should not be given, but live-virus vaccines (e.g., measles) are permissible.
D. No convincing evidence exists that secondhand smoke is potentially dangerous to the fetus.
(a)
Which statement about multifetal pregnancy is not accurate?
A. The expectant mother often experiences anemia because the fetuses have a greater demand for iron.
B. Twin pregnancies come to term with the same frequency as single pregnancies.
C. The mother should be counseled to increase her nutritional intake and gain more weight.
D. Backache and varicose veins are often more pronounced.
(a)
A pregnant woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions regarding relief of leg cramps if she:
A. Wiggles and points her toes during the cramp.
B. Applies cold compresses to the affected leg.
C. Extends her leg and dorsiflexes her foot during the cramp.
D. Avoids weight bearing on the affected leg during the cramp.
(a)
A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should:
A. Drink a glass of water with a fat-free carbohydrate before getting out of bed in the morning.
B. Eat small, frequent meals (every 2 to 3 hours).
C. Increase her intake of high-fat foods to keep the stomach full and coated.
D. Limit fluid intake throughout the day.
(a)
A pregnant woman reports that she is still playing tennis at 32 weeks of gestation. The nurse would be most concerned regarding what this woman consumes during and after tennis matches. Which is the most important?
A. Several glasses of fluid
B. Extra protein sources, such as peanut butter
C. Salty foods to replace lost sodium
D. Easily digested sources of carbohydrate
(a)
Women with inadequate weight gain during pregnancy are at higher risk of giving birth to an infant with:
A. Spina bifida.
B. Intrauterine growth restriction.
C. Diabetes mellitus.
D. Down syndrome
(a)
Which minerals and vitamins are usually recommended to supplement a pregnant woman's diet?
A. Fat-soluble vitamins A and D
B. Water-soluble vitamins C and B6
C. Iron and folate
D. Calcium and zinc
(a)
When counseling a client about getting enough iron in her diet, the maternity nurse should tell her that:
A. Milk, coffee, and tea aid iron absorption if consumed at the same time as iron.
B. Iron absorption is inhibited by a diet rich in vitamin C.
C. Iron supplements are permissible for children in small doses.
D. Constipation is common with iron supplements.
(a)
A 22-year-old woman pregnant with a single fetus had a preconception body mass index (BMI) of 24. When she was seen in the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation, she had gained 1.8 kg (4 lbs) since conception. How would the nurse interpret this finding?
A. This weight gain indicates possible gestational hypertension.
B. This weight gain indicates that the woman's infant is at risk for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
C. This weight gain cannot be evaluated until the woman has been observed for several more weeks.
D. The woman's weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy.
(a)
With regard to protein in the diet of pregnant women, nurses should be aware that:
A. Many protein-rich foods are also good sources of calcium, iron, and B vitamins.
B. Many women need to increase their protein intake during pregnancy.
C. As with carbohydrates and fat, no specific recommendations exist for the amount of protein in the diet.
D. High-protein supplements can be used without risk by women on macrobiotic diets
(a)
Which findings could be considered to be a barrier to a pregnant woman seeking prenatal care? (Select all that apply.)
Patient would prefer to be cared for by a midwife instead of a physician.
Economic cost of health care.
Patient's cultural beliefs do not include prenatal care as being valued.
Patient speaks several languages.
Patient had a bad experience the last time she went to a doctor for care.
Pica is a craving for nonfood items such as laundry starch, clay, or ice. What problem is associated with pica?
1- Excessive weight gain
2- Iron deficiency
3- Lead contamination
4- Diarrhea
(a)
The nurse teaches a pregnant patient the manifestations associated with complications while pregnant. Which statement indicates that additional patient teaching is needed?
1- "Pain with urination is expected during pregnancy."
2- "I should call the doctor if I have any vaginal bleeding."
3- "A sudden rush of fluid means that my membranes ruptured.
4- "I should not worry if I vomit once a day for the first 12 weeks."
(a)
A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo chorionic villi sampling (CVS) to rule out any birth defects. Ideally, when should this testing be completed?
1- 10 to 12 weeks of gestation
2- 7 to 9 weeks of gestation
3- 5 to 6 weeks of gestation
4- 4 to 5 weeks of gestation
(a)
A nurse explains to a pregnant woman the importance of consuming adequate iodine in her diet. Which of the following conditions can a deficiency in iodine lead to?
1- Goiter
2- Anemia
3- Diminished bone density
4- Hypercholesterolemia
(a)
A woman who has just found out that she is pregnant tells the nurse that she takes docusate sodium (colace). The nurse identifies this drug as a category C medication. Which information best reflects the nurse's understanding of this category?
1- Adequate studies in pregnant women have failed to show risk to the fetus
2- Animal studies have not shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but no adequate clinical studies have been done in pregnant women.
3- Animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but no adequate studies have been done in humans. Pregnancy risk is unknown.
4- Evidence of risk to the human fetus has been noted, but potential benefits of use for pregnant women may make its use acceptable despite potential risks.
5- Studies in animals and in humans show fetal abnormalities, or adverse reaction reports indicate evidence of fetal risk. Risks involved clearly outweigh potential benefits.
(a)
A pregnant client reports an increase in a thick, whitish vaginal discharge. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
1- "You should refrain from any sexual activity."
2- "You need to be assessed for a fungal infection."
3- "This discharge is normal during pregnancy."
4- "Use a local antifungal agents regularly."
(a)
The nurse is assessing a primipara's fundal height at 36 weeks' gestation and notes the fundus is now located at the xiphoid process of the sternum. The client asks if this is normal. Which response to the client would be best?
1- "By this time, the fundus should drop down lower because the baby is moving towards the pelvic inlet."
2- "At 36 weeks' gestation, the fundus is in the normal expected location."
3- "To be honest, the fundus should be lower since you have gained minimal weight."
4- "Just get prepared, the fundus might actually get a little higher until a few days before you go into labor."
(a)
A pregnant woman tells you that she wants to avoid saturated fat by using vegetable oil. What is another advantage of vegetable oil?
1- Aids fluid balance
2- Contains linoleic acid
3- Stimulates kidney function
4- Has a high potassium level
(a)
A client at 16 weeks' gestation is scheduled for prenatal testing. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate as the most likely screening test for congenital anomalies based on the current age of this pregnancy?
1- Cardiocentesis.
2- Amniocentesis.
3- Nuchal translucency testing.
4- Chorionic villi sampling.
(a)
A nurse is helping a patient prepare for ultrasound examination. Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
1- Have the patient drink several full glasses of water before the procedure
2- Have the woman void before the procedure
3- Have the father of the child leave the room to avoid x-ray exposure
4- Place a towel under her left buttock
(a)
A woman is in her early second trimester of pregnancy. The nurse would instruct the woman to return for a follow-up visit every:
1- 4 weeks.
2- 3 weeks.
3- 2 weeks.
4- 1 week.
(a)
The school nurse is presenting a lecture to adolescents to teach them how conception occurs. Which statement by the nurse would accurately describe this process?
1- "Human life begins with the union of two cells: the zygote and the sperm."
2- "At the time of conception, the ovum determines the sex of the baby."
3- "Conception usually occurs when the ovum is in the outer third of the fallopian tube."
4- "The ovum carries the Y chromosome, and the sperm carries an X or Y chromosome."
(a)
A pregnant woman has been diagnosed with pica since she eats lead pain chips for their sweetness. The nurse educating this woman should strongly encourage her to abandon this practice because it may have which consequence to the fetus?
1- neurological challenges
2- cataracts
3- fetal growth restriction
4- spontaneous abortion
(a)
A pregnant client reports chewing on ice throughout the day. Which laboratory value would the nurse evaluate?
1- serum iron level
2- serum potassium level
3- serum glucose Level
4- serum sodium level
(a)
The nurse is concerned that a pregnant patient is not adjusting emotionally to being pregnant. Which statement indicates that the patient may need additional counseling?
1- "I cannot wait to lose all of this excess weight."
2- "I need to get right back to work after delivery."
3- "My mother has been so helpful during this time."
4- "My dad has already purchased toys for the baby!"
(a)
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who is in labor. Which maternal physiologic responses should the nurse monitor for in the client as the client progresses through birth? Select all that apply.
increase in heart rate
increase in blood pressure
increase in respiratory rate
slight decrease in body temperature
increase in gastric emptying and pH
A 27-year-old client is in the first trimester of an unplanned pregnancy. She acknowledges that it would be best if she were to quit smoking now that she is pregnant, but states that it would be too difficult given her 13 pack-year history and circle of friends who also smoke. She asks the nurse, "Why exactly is it so important for me to quit? I know lots of smokers who have happy, healthy babies." What can the nurse tell the client about the potential effects of smoking in pregnancy?
1- "Smoking is unhealthy for anyone's heart, but your baby faces an especially high risk of heart trouble if you smoke while you're pregnant."
2- "Smoking during pregnancy places your baby at an increased risk of intellectual disability."
3- "Babies of women who smoke tend to weigh significantly less than other infants."
4- "Smoking during pregnancy means that your child will be born with a dependence on nicotine and will have to endure a period of withdrawal in his or her first days of life."
(a)
The nurse is describing pregnancy danger signs to a pregnant woman who is in her first trimester. Which danger sign might occur at this point in her pregnancy?
1- dyspnea
2- lower abdominal pressure
3- swelling of extremities
4- excessive vomiting
(a)
The nurse is assessing a pregnant client in her third trimester who is reporting a first-time occurrence of constipation. When asked why this is happening, what is the best response from the nurse?
1- There is not enough fiber in your diet.
2- The intestines are displaced by the growing fetus.
3- This shouldn't be happening.
4- hCG is delaying peristalsis.
(a)
A nurse is talking to a group of young couples who wish to conceive. One young woman asks the nurse if any tests predict fetal abnormalities. Which of the following tests should the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
MSAFP
CVS
Amniocentesis
CBC
Lipid panel
The nurse is explaining the latest laboratory results to a pregnant client who is in her third trimester. After letting the client know she is anemic, which heme iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage her to add to her diet?
1- Legumes
2- Dairy
3- Grains
4- Meats
(a)
A woman confides to the nurse that she has pica. What alternative could the nurse suggest to the client?
1. Replace laundry starch with salt.
2. Replace ice with frozen fruit pops.
3. Replace soap with cream cheese.
4. Replace soil with nuts.
(a)
