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OB exam 1

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is caring for a client in labor. The nurse determines that the client is beginning in the 2nd stage of labor when which of the following assessments is noted?

a)

The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid

b)

The contractions are regular

c)

The membranes have ruptured

d)

The cervix is dilated completely

2.

A nurse in the labor room is caring for a client in the active phases of labor. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. The most appropriate nursing action is to:

a)

Place the mother in the supine position

b)

Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns

c)

Administer oxygen via face mask

d)

Increase the rate of pitocin IV infusion

3.

A nurse is beginning to care for a client in labor. The physician has prescribed an IV infusion of Pitocin. The nurse ensures that which of the following is implemented before initiating the infusion?

a)

Placing the client on complete bed rest

b)

Continuous electronic fetal monitoring

c)

An IV infusion of antibiotics

d)

Placing a code cart at the client's bedside

4.

Normal baseline fetal heart rate ?

a)

110- 160

b)

90-110

c)

160-180

d)

<90

5.

fetal tachycardia

a)

>than 160bpm

b)

>180bpm

c)

>110bpm

d)

>200 bpm

6.

cause of early decelerations is

a)

Head compression

b)

Cord compression

c)

uteroplacental insufficiency

7.
In the diagram representing the menstrual cycle shown, when does ovulation take place?
a)
between day 6 and 11
b)
between day 17 and 20
c)
between day 1 and 5
d)
between day 12 and 16
8.

A nurse should recognize which of the following as a manifestation of sepsis in the neonate? (Select all that apply)

a)

lethargy

b)

tachypnea

c)

hypothermia

d)

sunken fontanel

e)

low serum glucose

9.

A 22 year old woman is 6 weeks postpartum. In the clinic, she admits to crying everyday, feeling overwhelmed, and sometimes thinking she may hurt the baby. What would be the priority nursing action at this time?

a)

advise the patient of community groups, and depression hotlines.

b)

counsel the mother that the "baby blues' are common at this time and assess her nutrition, rest and availability of help at home.

c)

contact the HCP to evaluate the patient before allowing her to leave the clinic

d)

advise the woman that she cannot use medication for depression because she is breastfeeding,.

10.

A client in preterm labor (31) weeks who is dilated to 4 cms has been started on Magnesium Sulfate and the contractions have stopped. If the clients labor can be stopped for the next 48 hours, which medication can the nurse anticipate a prescription for?

a)

Nulbuphine

b)

Betamethasone

c)

RH Immune globulin

d)

Dinoprostone vaginal insert

11.

the nurse is monitoring a client in preterm labor who is receiving Magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor for which adverse affects of this medication. Select all that apply.

a)

Flushing

b)

Hypertension

c)

Increased Urine output

d)

Depressed respiration's

e)

Extreme muscle weakness

12.

The nurse in a newborn nursery is monitoring a preterm infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of this syndrome. Select all that apply.

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Hypotension

d)

Retractions

e)

Audible grunts

13.

The postpartum nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia who is being breastfed. The nurse should provide which instruction to the mother?

a)

feed the newborn less frequently

b)

continue to breastfeed every 2-4 hours

c)

switch to bottle feeding the infant for the next 2 weeks

d)

stop breastfeeding and switch to bottle feeding permanently

14.

The nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate postpartum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which sign is noted, would be an early sign of excessive blood loss?

a)

a temperature of 100.4 (38 c)

b)

an increase in pulse rate from 88 to 102 bpm

c)

a blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mmHG

d)

an increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breaths/min

15.

The nurse is assessing the client in the fourth stage of labor and notes the fundus is firm, but that bleeding is excessive. Which should be the initial action?

a)

document the findings

b)

massage the fundus

c)

notify the HCP

d)

place the client in Trendelenburg

16.

On assessment of a postpartum client, the nurse notes that the uterus feels soft and boggy. The nurse should take which initial action?

a)

document the findings

b)

elevate the clients legs

c)

massage the fundus until its firm

d)

push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots

17.

The nurse is planning care for a postpartum client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hours ago. the client required an episiotomy and has several hemorrhoids. What is the priority nursing consideration for this client?

a)

client pain level

b)

inadequate urinary output

c)

client perception of body changes

d)

potential for imbalanced body fluid volume

18.

Colostrum _______?

a)

is produced by hormones

b)

is early breastmilk

c)

helps fight infections

d)

all of the above

19.

The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a newborn infant. When assessing the infant’s head, the nurse notes that the ears are low-set. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Document the findings.

b)

Arrange for hearing testing.

c)

Notify the health care provider.

d)

Cover the ears with gauze pads.

20.

A client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) delivers a newborn infant. The nurse provides instructions to help the client with care of her infant. Which client statement indicates the need for further instruction?

a)

“I will be sure to wash my hands before and after bathroom use.”

b)

“I need to breast-feed, especially for the first 6 weeks postpartum.”

c)

“Support groups are available to assist me with understanding my diagnosis of HIV."

d)

“My newborn infant should be on antiviral medications for the first 6 weeks after delivery.”

21.

During a routine prenatal visit, a client complains of gums that bleed easily with brushing. The nurse performs an assessment and teaches the client about proper nutrition to minimize this problem. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the proper nutrition to minimize this problem?

a)

“I will drink 8 oz of water with each meal.”

b)

“I will eat 3 servings of cracked wheat bread each day.”

c)

“I will eat 2 saltine crackers before I get up each morning.”

d)

“I will eat fresh fruits and vegetables for snacks and for dessert each day.”

22.

Client is 1 day post op abd surgery for ovarian cancer. Client is receiving IV RL 100ml/h and continuous epidural morphine for pain. Foley output has decreased to <20ml/h in the past 2 hours. Post op Hematocrit is 36% (0.36), and the hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120 g/L). Which action should the nurse carry out first?

a)

Assess vital signs

b)

increase the IV rate to 125 ml/h

c)

Notify the health care provider

d)

Perform a bladder scan

23.
Which type of contraception is the most effective?
a)
Condoms
b)
Birth Control
c)
Abstinence
d)
Sterilization
24.

Which of these contraceptives are hormonal methods?

a)

condom

b)

copper IUD

c)

implant

d)

patch

e)

diaphragm

25.

What is true about an IUD (copper or hormonal)?

a)

it is a flexible T-shaped coil

b)

it is a barrier for the sperm cells

c)

has to be inserted by a doctor

d)

can stay inside the uterus for up to 5 years

e)

has to be used with a gel and is placed before the cervix

26.

What are the main side effects of any hormonal contraceptive?

a)

menstruation is more painful

b)

bleeding apart from menstruation can occur

c)

headaches and nausea

d)

increased risk of thrombosis or other cardiovascular issues

e)

stomach and intestinal issues

27.

How do hormonal contraceptives (usually) work?

a)

preventing the ripening of the egg cells in the ovaries

b)

creating a barrier so that the sperm cell do not enter the uterus

c)

inhibiting the sperms' ability to "swim"

d)

reducing the inner lining of the uterus; egg cell cannot nest

e)

thicken the cervical mucus

28.
Vasectomy is a preferred method of contraception for some couples.  The result of this procedure will result in the male producing
a)
no semen
b)
no sperm
c)
semen containing no sperm
d)
semen containing no seminal fluid
29.
1.  Which of the following statements about contraceptive methods is CORRECT?
a)
Natural methods of contraception try to estimate the time of ovulation
b)
The diaphragm helps to prevent transmission of STDs 
c)
Spermicidal jellies act to prevent implantation
d)
The morning after pill is oestrogen only
30.

Abbreviate HPV -

a)

Human Papillo Virus.

b)

Human Papilloma Virus

c)

Herpes Papillo Virus

d)

Herpes Papilloma Virus

31.

__________ involves taking a sample of amniotic fluid.

a)

ICSI

b)

ART

c)

Amniocentesis

d)

Chorionic villus sampling

32.

Surgery is carried out to cut the Fallopian

tubes and the two ends are then tied to

prevent the ovum from meeting the sperms.

a)

vasectomy

b)

IUCD

c)

Ligation

d)

implant

33.
What do you call the passageway of the nutrients for and waste from the unborn baby?
a)
placenta
b)
oviduct
c)
amniotic sac
d)
zygote
34.
How many days does it normally take for a menstrual cycle to take place?
a)
25 days
b)
28 days
c)
35 days
d)
38 days
35.

HPV can cause genital warts, or cancer.

a)

true

b)

false

36.

STD’s are transmitted via the following bodily fluids, except

a)

semen

b)

pre-ejaculatory fluid

c)

tears

d)

breast milk

37.

Painful urination, skin rash, yellowing of skin or painful sex are common signs and symptoms of:

a)

Genital herpes

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Syphilis

38.

Causes blisters on the skin and genitals. The blisters may disappear temporarily but may appear occasionally, especially as a result of stress.

a)

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

b)

Genital herpes

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

Lymphogranuloma venereum (Chlamydia)

39.

The following are bacterial infections, except:

a)

gonorrhea

b)

trichmoniasis

c)

chlamaydia

40.

All of these infections are cause by bacteria EXCEPT:

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Syphillis

d)

Crabs

41.

Which of these STI's are caused by bacteria--check ALL that apply!

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Yeast Infections

d)

Trichomoniasis

42.

The bacterium Treponema pallidum causes

a)

Trench foot

b)

Syphillis

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

Chlamydia

43.

The bacterium Neisseria gonorrheae causes:

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Syphilis

d)

Herpes

44.

Most bacterial STI's

a)

only infect the vagina or urethra

b)

can only be contracted once in your lifetime

c)

cannot be passed to babies during childbirth

d)

are curable with antibiotics

45.

Which STI can often give a green or yellow discharge?

a)

Herpes

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Gonorrhoea

d)

Pubic lice

46.

Which contraception’s can also prevent STIs?

a)

The pill

b)

IUD

c)

Condom

d)

implant

47.

Which contraceptive doesn’t rely on memory and effort?

a)

Condoms

b)

The pill

c)

IUD

d)

Implant

48.

Which STI should you have immunity from if you have had the HPV vaccine?

a)

genital herpes

b)

gential warts

c)

chlamydia

d)

gonorrhoea

49.

This virus affects the immune system, specifically CD4 and T-helper cells. It is spread through physical contact or exchange of bodily fluids.

a)

T4 bacteriophage

b)

Ebola

c)

Varicella Zoster

d)

Epstein Barr

e)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

50.

The Gardisil vaccine is used to help guard against the cervical cancer that this virus is known to cause. This virus primarily effects the reproductive system.

a)

Dengue

b)

West Nile

c)

Rotavirus

d)

Human Papillomavirus

e)

Poliovirus

51.

Ovulation typically occurs on what day of the cycle?

a)

1

b)

14

c)

20

d)

7

52.

Which hormone controls the development of male secondary sexual charecteristics.

a)

testosterone

b)

oestrogen

c)

testes

d)

ovaries

53.

Which changes occur at puberty to boys and girls

a)

Pubic hair grows

b)

Underarm hair grows

c)

Sexual organs grow and develop

d)

All are correct

54.

Children between the ages ___________ & __________ years are called adolescents?

a)

10 & 18 years

b)

11 & 19 years

c)

12 & 17 years

d)

None of the above

55.

The onset of puberty and maturity of reproductive organs are controlled by _______________.

a)

Estrogen

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Hormones

56.

What is the function of amniotic fluid?

a)

acts as cushion to support and protect from mechanical shock

b)

to connect the foetus and the placenta

c)

to form a sac and enclosed the foetus

d)

to allow exchange of substances between the foetus and the mother

57.

Human Pregnancy is divided into three major time periods. Each time period represents one-third of the total pregnancy. What are these time periods called?

a)

Trimesters

b)

Semesters

c)

Zygotes

58.

The fetus and the mother exchange materials between them such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste. This exchange of materials happens using the...

a)

Placenta & Umbilical Cord

b)

Uterus & Umbilical Cord

c)

Vagina & Placenta

59.

What is the major change that occurs during the final "fetal" stage of development?

a)

The fetus grows in size

b)

The fetus begins to form new organs

c)

The fetus's cells differentiate into specific cells

60.

Placenta previa is a medical condition that occurs in some pregnant women. Women with this condition are often placed on bed rest, which prohibits them from any strenuous activity that may cause the blood vessels in the placenta to rupture. If not diagnosed, placenta previa can be a very dangerous condition because the placenta is

a)

the primary source of oxygen for the mother

b)

where the fetus obtains milk from the mother

c)

where nutrients and wastes are exchanged

d)

the primary source of estrogen and

progesterone in the mother

61.

What is the ball of cells called once it has implanted into the wall of the uterus?

a)

fetus

b)

zygote

c)

baby

d)

embryo

62.

Around 8 - 10 weeks when all organs are in place and it looks more human it is called a

a)

fetus

b)

zygote

c)

baby

d)

embryo

63.

What is it called when an egg is released from the ovary into the oviduct?

a)

ovulation

b)

ejaculation

c)

fertilisation

d)

implantation

64.

What is it called when the embryo burries into the wall of the uterus?

a)

ovulation

b)

ejaculation

c)

fertilisation

d)

implantation

65.

What is the gestation period of humans?

a)

30 - 32 weeks

b)

20 - 22 weeks

c)

50 -52 weeks

d)

38 - 40 weeks

66.

What carries substances between the placenta and the fetus?

a)

cord

b)

amniotic sac

c)

amniotic fluid

d)

placenta

67.

What holds the fluid that the fetus develops and grows in?

a)

cord

b)

amniotic sac

c)

amniotic fluid

d)

placenta

68.
What is the first organ that begins to function in the developing embryo?
a)
the lungs
b)
the limbs
c)
the brain
d)
the heart
69.
Pregnancy is divided into three_________.
a)
Trimesters
b)
Periods
c)
Months
70.
Which is the correct order?
a)
embryo, fetus, zygote
b)
fetus, zygote, embryo
c)
embryo, zygote, fetus
d)
zygote, embryo, fetus
71.
During the third month of pregnancy, all ______ are present.
a)
lungs
b)
organs
c)
hairs
d)
intestines
72.

Name the hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy.

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

hCG

d)

FSH

73.

The picture represents one stage during the human developing process. A function of structure A is to

a)

remove nutrients from the fetus

b)

provide the fetus with metabolic wastes

c)

remove all toxins from the blood of the mother

d)

provide the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in fetus

74.

White substance that appears around the baby body

a)

white cream

b)

white water

c)

vernix caseosa

d)

white juice

75.

Which baby part leaves first during birth?

a)

legs

b)

arms

c)

head

d)

stomach

76.

How many stages of childbirth are there?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

19

77.

How dilated does the cervix get during labor?

a)

10 inches

b)

10 feet

c)

10 Centiliters

d)

10 Centimeters

78.

How many steps of the first stage of childbirth are there?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

2

d)

5

79.

How much does the cervix dilate to in early labor?

a)

4 Centimeters

b)

2 Centimeters

c)

10 Centimeters

d)

6 Centimeters

80.

When does the second stage of childbirth end?

a)

When the cervix dilates 10 centimeters

b)

When the baby starts to walk

c)

When the baby leaves the vagina

d)

When the placenta is delivered

81.

What is another term for the placenta?

a)

Midbirth

b)

Beforebirth

c)

Postbirth

d)

Afterbirth

82.

Substances that may harm the developing fetus and result in the formation of birth defects

a)

tobacco

b)

alcohol

c)

drugs

d)

all teratogens

83.

Which nutrient helps normal development of bones and teeth?

a)

calcium

b)

iron

c)

omega 3 fatty acids

d)

folic acid

84.

Which of the following is not a function of the placenta?

a)

excretory organ

b)

respiratory organ

c)

endocrine organ

d)

barrier to alcohol

85.

The structure known as the "bag of waters" is the

a)

placenta

b)

amniotic sac

c)

yolk sac

d)

chorion

86.

What does a home pregnancy test check for?

a)

hormone levels HCG

b)

oxytocin

c)

serotonin

d)

bile

87.
What is the term that describes the position of the baby when it is not upside down and head first?
a)
natural birth
b)
bottoms up birth
c)
breeched birth
d)
alternate birth
88.
Which diagnostic treatment draws fluid from the amniotic sac and tests it for birth defects?
a)
ultrasound
b)
amniotic X-ray
c)
abdominal scan
d)
amniocentesis
89.
What term describes when the baby is taken out of the uterus by making an incision in the lower abdomen?
a)
Caesar's sectioning
b)
Miscarriage
c)
Caesarian section
d)
Breeched birth
90.
Which of the following can occur if a mother uses toxic substances during her pregnancy?
a)
The child could have behavioral problems.
b)
She could give birth to a stillborn baby.
c)
She could increase her risk of having a miscarriage.
d)
all of the above
91.

Medical care received during pregnancy.

a)

prenatal care

b)

obstetrician

c)

certified nurse midwife

d)

trimester

92.

Some signs and symptoms of pregnancy include (choose all that apply):

a)

A heavy period

b)

Sore & enlarged breasts

c)

Increased urination

d)

Nausea

93.
An Ectopic Pregnancy is 
a)
a pregnancy that occurs in the uterus
b)
a pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus (typically Fallopian tube)
c)
a procedure in which the baby is surgically removed
d)
when the baby is born before 3 weeks
94.

During childbirth 'crowning' refers to _______________

a)

The baby passing out of the birth canal

b)

The baby's head appearing at the opening of the birth canal

c)

The delivery of the placenta

d)

The beginning of contractions

95.

During the __________________ stage of labour the baby is delivered

a)

first

b)

second

c)

third

d)

final

96.

the opening (1 cm--3cm--10cm) of the cervix is called...

a)

dialation

b)

effacement

c)

contraction

d)

epidural

97.

The thinning (25%--50%--100%) of the cervix.

a)

dialation

b)

effacement

c)

contraction

d)

fontanels

98.

The stage of labor where contractions begin coming consistently. They are usually spaced from 10 to 20 minutes apart. Body is effacing and dilating.

a)

Pre Labor

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 2

d)

Stage 3

99.

This stage of labor the most painful part. The cervix fully dilates/effaces to10 cm--Baby "drops" down into the birth canal.

a)

Pre labor

b)

transition

c)

stage 2

d)

stage 3

100.

The stage begins with the baby crowing and ends with it being delivered.

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

after birth

101.

This stage is when the after birth is delivered.

a)

stage 1

b)

transition

c)

stage 2

d)

stage 3

102.

This hormone is responsible for ensuring the endometrium remains thick and nutrient rich

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

Testosterone

103.

During early pregnancy, this structure releases progesterone.

a)

Corpus Luteum

b)

Uterus

c)

Placenta

d)

Adrenal Gland

104.

During which week do all limbs and essential organs form during pregnancy?

a)

week 5

b)

week 6

c)

week 7

d)

week 8

105.

Stage 2 of labor and delivery include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Thinning of the cervix

b)

Baby exits uterus and enters birthing canal (vagina)

c)

Baby exits head first

d)

Baby exits the vagina

106.

Prenatal care is important throughout the pregnancy, but which trimester is most important?

a)

1st Trimester

b)

2nd Trimester

c)

3rd Trimester

d)

4th Trimester

107.

How many centimeters dilated must the cervix be before Stage 2 of labor & delivery can take place

a)

1cm

b)

3cm

c)

8cm

d)

10cm

108.

A women is having difficulty with the progression of her labor. She is not having strong enough contractions. Which of the following hormones could we give her to induce contractions?

a)

estrogen

b)

testosterone

c)

progesterone

d)

oxytocin

109.

Sushi with raw fish is ok to eat while pregnant.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Sus