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Review Final Exam American Government

Total questions: 204

Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Direct democracy is

a)

a govt. with elections

b)

representatives who are directly elected

c)

rule by the many (as many people as possible)

d)

citizenship is widely extended

2.

Representative democracy is

a)

rule by the many

b)

rule by elected representatives

c)

rule by only one individual

3.

Concept of limited government was first introduced in the

a)

Magna Carta

b)

English Petition of Right

c)

English Bill of Rights

d)

U.S. Bill of Rights

4.

John Locke

a)

state of nature

b)

govt. by the consent of the governed

c)

wrote Leviathan

5.

A federal system

a)

has power at the central level only

b)

has power at the state/local level only

c)

has power shared between central and local govts.

6.

Which country has had the most influence on the U.S. political system?

a)

Russia

b)

Great Britain

c)

France

d)

Mexico

7.

English Petition of Right introduced the idea of

a)

natural rights

b)

due process of law

c)

monarchy

8.

Which constitutional amendment protects free speech?

a)

1st

b)

4th

c)

2nd

9.

Type of govt. in which a small group holds power

a)

autocracy

b)

democracy

c)

oligarchy

10.

Which idea is in the Declaration of Independence?

a)

people can change an abusive govt.

b)

only property owners have natural rights

c)

only God can chose our political leaders

11.

A Presidential system has

a)

an executive chosen by the legislature

b)

and executive chosen by the people

c)

and executive chosen by the courts

12.

A Parliamentary system has

a)

an executive chosen by the legislature

b)

an executive chosen by the people

c)

an executive chosen by the courts

13.

The most common style of government in the world is a (an)

a)

federal system

b)

confederate system

c)

unitary system

14.

A government ruled by a single individual is a (an)

a)

democracy

b)

republic

c)

autocracy

15.

A synonym for self-govt is

a)

autocracy

b)

sovereignty

c)

oligarchy

16.

Another word for representative govt is a

a)

democracy

b)

republic

c)

monarchy

17.

Montesquieu's main contribution was the concept of

a)

natural rights

b)

separation of powers

c)

state of nature

18.

When people give up some of their freedoms to allow other to govern them, a __________________ is formed.

a)

oligarchy

b)

constitution

c)

social contract

19.

When the states or local govt. levels have all key powers, the style of govt is called a

a)

confederate system

b)

federal system

c)

unitary system

20.

The author of the Declaration of Independence is

a)

Thomas Paine

b)

George Washington

c)

Benjamin Franklin

d)

Thomas Jefferson

21.

A confederate govt is rare because

a)

all power is in the hands of one person

b)

the central govt is weak and states have all key powers

c)

border disputes cause frequent problems

d)

different countries want to invade a confederacy

22.

Limited govt is

a)

an agreement between a govt and its citizens

b)

govt can limit what its citizens can and cannot do

c)

rules must be obeyed by the citizens

d)

govt must operate within the limits set forth by citizens

23.

Which philosopher had the most influence on the Framers of the U.S. Constitution?

a)

Hobbes

b)

Rousseau

c)

Montesquieu

d)

Locke

24.

Authoritarianism

a)

democracy

b)

Republic

c)

oligarchy

d)

autocracy

25.

Rousseau

a)

separation of powers

b)

social contract

c)

natural rights

d)

state of nature

26.

Key components of democracy

a)

free and fair elections

b)

universal suffrage

c)

govt power is limited

d)

all of these are correct

27.

Montesquieu

a)

social contract

b)

separation of powers

c)

natural rights

d)

state of nature

28.

Federal system has

a)

all power at the national level

b)

all power at the state level

c)

powers shared/divided among national and local units

d)

power divided between legislative, judicial, executive

29.

Articles of Confederation

a)

was too weak to deal with economic & political problems

b)

allowed national govt to make all key decisions

c)

imposed harsh taxes on its citizens

d)

is still our national Constitution

30.

Under the Articles of Confederation, govt had

a)

no legislative or judicial branch

b)

only a legislative and judicial branch

c)

only a legislative branch, where each state received 1 vote

d)

only an executive branch

31.

The first 10 Amendments

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

Article 1

c)

Preamble

d)

Article 2

32.

What is the best definition for Limited Government?

a)

The government's power is restricted

b)

Powers are separated into 3 branches

c)

Power is shared between the states and federal government

d)

The people have power

33.

Which of the following is the best definition for Consent of the Governed?

a)

People have the power

b)

People must approve of government's actions

c)

Powers are separated between 3 branches of government

d)

Each branch has power over the other

34.

Which of the following is the best definition of Popular Sovereignty

a)

The people hold the power in the government

b)

Powers are divided and shared between the national government and the states

c)

Powers are divided between 3 branches of government

d)

The people must approve of the governments actions

35.

What is the best definition for Rule of Law

a)

People must approve of government's actions

b)

The people have the power

c)

The powers of government are limited

d)

Everyone must follow the law

36.

Which of the following is the best description of Separation of powers?

a)

People have the power

b)

Powers are divided between the national and state governments

c)

Powers are divided among 3 branches of government

d)

Branches have power over each other to keep each other from becoming too powerful

37.

Which of the following is the best definition for Federalism?

a)

Powers separated between 3 branches of government

b)

Powers given only to the Federal Governments

c)

Powers shared between the Federal government and the states

d)

People have the power.

38.

Which of the following is the best definition of Checks and Balances?

a)

Power divided between 3 branches of government

b)

Each branch has power over the other to keep them from becoming too powerful

c)

It has to do with money and scales

d)

Everyone must follow the law

39.

Which Principle of Government is best described in this passage?

a)

Federalism

b)

Consent of the Governed

c)

Limited Government

d)

Popular Sovereignty

40.

Which Constitutional Principle is best described in this passage ?

a)

Separation of Powers

b)

Checks and Balances

c)

Consent of the Governed

d)

Rule of Law

41.

Which principle of government is best described here?

a)

Rule of Law

b)

Limited Government

c)

Checks and Balances

d)

Popular Sovereignty

42.

Which principle of government is best described here?

a)

Rule of Law

b)

Limited Government

c)

Federalism

d)

Separation of Powers

43.

Which principle of government is best described here?

a)

Consent of the Governed

b)

Limited Government

c)

Checks and Balances

d)

Federalism

44.

Representative democracy

a)

rule by the people

b)

rule by a king

c)

rule by elected officials

d)

rule by a small group

45.

Shays' rebellion

a)

showed the weakness of the central govt under the Articles

b)

showed the strength of the central govt under the Articles

c)

showed the need for separation of powers

d)

showed the need for public education

46.

7th amendment

a)

no illegal search or seizure

b)

civil trial guaranteed for cases over $20

c)

right to trial by jury in criminal cases

d)

self-incrimination protection

47.

What concept goes with Marbury v. Madison?

a)

popular sovereignty

b)

rule of law

c)

checks & balances

d)

judicial review

48.

Supremacy clause means that

a)

Congress is supreme

b)

Constitution is supreme

c)

President is supreme

d)

States are supreme

49.

Who can propose a Constitutional amendment?

a)

Congress or the states

b)

the Courts or the Congress

c)

the President

d)

only the Congress

50.

Who can ratify a Constitutional Amendment?

a)

Congress or the states

b)

President

c)

the Courts

d)

only the states

51.

Federalists & Antifederalists debated over

a)

ratification of the Articles of Confederation

b)

ratification of the Declaration of Independence

c)

ratification of the U.S. Constitution

d)

ratification of the Preamble

52.

Great Compromise resulted in

a)

3/5 of slave population counted

b)

bicameral legislature

c)

a Constitutional Convention

d)

a judicial branch

53.

Example of an enumerated power

a)

coin money

b)

issue drivers licenses

c)

establish local governments

54.

Commerce clause

a)

allows the President to regulate trade

b)

allows the Courts to regulate trade

c)

allows the Congress to regulate trade

d)

allows the states to regulate trade

55.

Three-fifths Compromise

a)

set up a bicameral legislature

b)

guaranteed citizenship rights

c)

counted slaves for representation purposes

d)

created an executive branch

56.

Antifederalists opposed ratification because the Constitution did not have a

a)

legislative branch

b)

a federal system

c)

a bill of rights

d)

a taxation system

57.

Tenth Amendment

a)

powers reserved to the states

b)

rights reserved to the people

c)

right to bear arms

d)

freedom of speech

58.

6th amendment

a)

right to bear arms

b)

right to counsel

c)

no illegal search or seizure

d)

protection from self-incrimination

59.

2nd Amendment

a)

free speech

b)

no double jeopardy

c)

right to bear arms

d)

no quartering of troops

60.

5th amendment

a)

no double jeopardy

b)

due process of law protection

c)

self-incrimination protection

d)

all of these

61.

Purpose of the Bill of Rights

a)

limit power of Federal government

b)

expand the power of Federal government

c)

limit power of States

d)

expand power of States

62.

According to the Supremacy Clause, what are the correct rankings?

a)

1) Constitution 2) State Laws 3) Federal Laws

b)

1) State Laws 2) Federal Laws 3) Constitution

c)

1) Federal Laws 2) Constitution 3) State Laws

d)

1) Constitution 2) Federal Laws 3) State Laws

63.

Concurrent Powers are

a)

powers that belong to the states.

b)

powers that belong to the legislative branch

c)

powers that belong to the legislative and the executive branches.

d)

powers that belong to the national govt and the states.

64.

Which of the following is an enumerated power of Congress?

a)

tax

b)

regulate commerce

c)

declare war

d)

all of these

65.

Constitutional clause that allows Congress to expand its specified powers

a)

supremacy clause

b)

commerce clause

c)

necessary and proper clause

d)

santa clause

66.

Which is an advantage of federalism?

a)

greater opportunities for political participation

b)

less confusion about overlapping powers

c)

state & national laws sometimes conflict

d)

change & progress are often slow

67.

Which is NOT a qualification to serve in the House of Representatives?

a)

must be at least 25

b)

must be a U.S. citizen for 7 years

c)

must live in the state you represent

d)

must be a natural born citizen

68.

How many Senators does each state have?

a)

it's based on a state's population

b)

it is set at 2 in the Constitution

c)

it is the same number as the seats in the House

d)

it is set by the Supreme Court

69.

Length of Senator's term

a)

2 years

b)

4 years

c)

6 years

d)

8 years

70.

Length of a term for a member of the House of Representatives

a)

2 years

b)

4 years

c)

6 years

d)

8 years

71.

Which is NOT a qualification to be in the Senate?

a)

be at least 30 years old

b)

must have a college degree

c)

must live in the state you represent

d)

be a U.S. citizen for at least 9 years

72.

17th Amendment

a)

Senators chosen directly by voters

b)

Senators chosen by state legislators

c)

Senators chosen by the President

d)

Senators chosen by the political parties

73.

How were Senators chosen BEFORE the 17th amendment?

a)

directly by the voters

b)

by the state legislatures

c)

by the House of Representatives

d)

by special state conventions

74.

Who has the power to impeach?

a)

Senate

b)

House

c)

both House & Senate

d)

Supreme Court

75.

Which is NOT a power of Congress?

a)

tax

b)

declare war

c)

regulate commerce

d)

act a commander in chief

76.

Candidate who is currently serving in that office and is seeking reelection

a)

party leader

b)

speaker of the house

c)

incumbent

d)

delegate

77.

Purpose of the "necessary and proper clause"

a)

empower Congress to pass laws

b)

limit Congressional powers

c)

limit state authority

d)

empower the President to make laws

78.

House of Representatives power

a)

ratify treaties

b)

conduct trial for impeached officials

c)

impeach officials

d)

confirm nominees to the Supreme Court

79.

How many TOTAL Senators do we have?

a)

2

b)

100

c)

435

d)

535

80.

Which section of the Constitution talks about the Legislative Branch?

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article IV

81.

How many total Representatives are there?

a)

50

b)

100

c)

435

d)

535

82.

A tax bill must start in which house?

a)

Senate

b)

House of Representatives

83.

Who is the President of the Senate?

a)

Majority Leader

b)

Minority Leader

c)

Vice President

d)

President

84.

Who is the leader of the House of Representatives?

a)

Vice President

b)

President

c)

Speaker of the House

d)

Majority Leader

85.

Congress can pass bills over a presidential veto with ______ vote.

a)

1/2

b)

2/3

c)

3/4

d)

5/6

86.

Bicameral means

a)

1 house.

b)

2 houses.

c)

3 houses.

d)

4 houses.

87.

Who approves presidential appointments, like ambassadors, judges, and cabinet members?

a)

Senate

b)

House of Representatives

88.

A Conference Committee

a)

holds hearings on new legislation

b)

decides to end a Senate filibuster

c)

resolves differences in bills passed by the House & Senate

d)

oversees actions of the executive branch

89.

Who conducts an impeachment trial?

a)

House

b)

Senate

c)

Supreme Court

d)

state legislators

90.

For a bill to become law, it must

a)

pass the Senate

b)

pass the House

c)

pass both the House and the Senate

d)

pass the Supreme Court

91.

After the census, changes in population may cause a

a)

presidential districting

b)

reapportionment

c)

lobbying

d)

conference committee

92.

Lobbying is most closely associate with

a)

interest groups

b)

mass media

c)

state courts

d)

conference committees

93.

One example of a legislative check over the executive branch is

a)

veto

b)

overriding President's veto with 2/3 vote of both houses

c)

declare war

d)

appointment of federal judges

94.

After a bill is introduced in either the House or the Senate, it is then

a)

debated on the house or senate floor.

b)

debated in a joint committee.

c)

sent to the Supreme Court.

d)

submitted to a committee, then subcommittee for debate and changes.

95.

Because of the seniority system in Congress,

a)

members graduate on time.

b)

members with the longest service are usually selected for leadership positions and committee chairmanships

c)

members with the longest service are most likely to become presidential candidates.

d)

members with the longest service are subject to term limits.

96.

One positive effect of lobbyists is that

a)

they may provide valuable information on a topic to educate a member of Congress.

b)

they may unfairly influence the Supreme Court.

c)

they may use bribery to get their candidates to vote for their programs.

d)

they many have more influence over legislators than the average citizen.

97.

One negative effect that lobbyists may have is that

a)

they may provide valuable information on a topic to educate a member of Congress.

b)

They may call attention to an issue that otherwise might be overlooked.

c)

They may influence the Supreme Court.

d)

they may have more influence on legislators that the average citizen.

98.

Which of the following is not a formal qualification for the Presidency?

a)

be at least 35

b)

own property

c)

natural born citizen

d)

14 year U.S. resident

99.

Who is the leader of the executive branch of the national government?

a)

President

b)

Governor

c)

Mayor

100.

The governor of Virginia endorses a candidate from the 25th district in the state senate. Which role is the governor fulfilling?

a)

Chief Legislator

b)

Chief of State

c)

Party of Chief

101.

Which branch of government is responsible for making sure laws are carried out?

a)

Judicial

b)

Executive

c)

State

d)

Legislative

102.

Who becomes President if the President dies?

a)

Vice President

b)

Speaker of the House

c)

President Pro Tempore

d)

Secretary of State

103.
In case the President is disabled, the way the Vice President becomes President is determined by the...
a)
25th Amendment
b)
Original Constitution
c)
Congress
d)
Supreme Court
104.

According to the Presidential Succession Act of 1947, which of these officers follows the Vice President in line of presidential succession?

a)

Speaker of the House

b)

President pro tempore of the Senate

c)

Secretary of State

d)

Secretary of Treasury

105.
The one formal duty assigned to the Vice President by the Constitution is to...
a)
call cabinet meetings.
b)
choose the Secretary of State.
c)
preside over the Senate.
d)
preside over the House
106.
According to the Constitution the president must...
a)
be a man who owns property
b)
be at least 35 years of age
c)
have held one major public office
d)
have lived in the U.S. for at least 20 years
107.
The president's term last for _____________ years.
a)
4
b)
c)
3
108.

The __________ appoints Cabinet members, ______________.

a)

President; with Senate approval

b)

President; with House approval

c)

Senate; with President's approval

d)

President; with Vice President's approval

109.

Amendment that changed the date that the President was to take office from March 4 to January 20

a)

12th amendment

b)

20th amendment

c)

22nd amendment

d)

25th amendment

110.

Requires President & VP to run on the same party ticket

a)

12th amendment

b)

23rd amendment

c)

22nd amendment

d)

20th amendment

111.

Granted 3 electoral votes to residents in Washington DC in presidential elections

a)

12th amendment

b)

20th amendment

c)

23rd amendment

d)

22nd amendment

112.

All of the following are powers of the President EXCEPT

a)

to grant pardons for federal crimes

b)

to declare a law unconstitutional

c)

to commission officers in the armed forces

d)

to appoint cabinet secretaries

113.

Example of an informal qualification for President

a)

be at least 35

b)

natural born citizen

c)

U.S. resident for 14 years

d)

background in politics/law

114.

To remove a President from office,

a)

House votes for impeachment, Senate conducts the trial & reaches a guilty verdict

b)

House and Senate vote for impeachment, Supreme Court reaches a guilty verdict

c)

House & Senate vote for impeachment, and 3/4 of the states vote for a guilty verdict

d)

Joint session of Congress vote to impeach, and then reach a guilty verdict

115.

If the President orders Navy Seal Team 6 to capture a terrorist in a secret mission, he is acting as

a)

Commander in Chief

b)

Head of State

c)

Chief Diplomat

d)

Chief Agenda Setter

116.

If the President sends a Tweet criticizing NFL players for refusing to stand for the National Anthem, he is acting as

a)

Commander in Chief

b)

Head of State

c)

Party Leader

d)

Chief Agenda Setter

117.

If the President is negotiating a treaty with the Prime Minister of Great Britain, his is acting as

a)

Commander in Chief

b)

Head of State

c)

Chief Diplomat

d)

Chief Agenda Setter

118.

If the President attends the funeral of a former U.S. Senator, he is acting as

a)

Head of State

b)

Commander in Chief

c)

Chief Diplomat

d)

Chief Agenda Setter

119.

Which is part of the Executive Office of the President?

a)

Department of State

b)

Office of Management and Budget

c)

U.S. Post Office

d)

Federal Reserve

120.

Which is an example of a Government Corporation?

a)

Department of Homeland Security

b)

Wells Fargo

c)

Office of Management and Budget

d)

U.S. Post Office

121.

Which is an example of an Independent Regulatory Agency?

a)

Department of Defense

b)

Federal Reserve

c)

White House Office (West Wing)

d)

Federal Bureau of Investigation

122.

If the President is incapacitated, which amendment may be invoked?

a)

25th

b)

12th

c)

22nd

d)

20th

123.

Agency that advises the President in foreign policy

a)

Dept. of Energy

b)

Dept. of Homeland Security

c)

Department of Defense

d)

Department of State

124.

Which foreign policy tool is the President using in the development of a nuclear non-proliferation treaty?

a)

diplomacy & treaty

b)

foreign aid

c)

military intervention

d)

humanitarian aid

125.

Which foreign policy tool is the President using in the distribution of $13 billion to post-WW2 Europe?

a)

treaty

b)

economic aid

c)

sanction

d)

military aid

126.

How do independent regulatory agencies differ from other executive agencies?

a)

An independent regulatory agency charges fees for public services, while other executive agencies are prohibited from charging fees.

b)

An independent regulatory agency controls the actions of Congress, while other executive agencies only control the actions of the president.

c)

An independent regulatory agency monitors and controls the actions of the general public, while other executive agencies have no authority to influence the public.

d)

An independent regulatory agency controls certain aspects of the economy and operates independently of the 3 branches of government, while other executive agencies are under direct control of the president.

127.

What is the difference between an independent regulatory agency such as the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and a government corporation such as the U.S. Postal Service?

a)

The USPS regulates the amount of packages sent across the United States, while the EPA charges businesses fees for operating.

b)

The EPA controls environmental conditions to protect the public's best interest, while the USPS charges a fee to provide a public service.

c)

The EPA charges cities and states fees for collecting their litter, while the USPS charges fees for transporting elected officials across the globe.

d)

The USPS regulates business activity to protect the consumers' interests, while the EPA regulates the amount of forest land that is cut each year.

128.

Which of the following federal government organizations are known as "watchdogs" because of their ability to regulate segments of the economy and protect consumers?

a)

the Cabinet

b)

government corporations

c)

congressional commissions

d)

independent regulatory agencies

129.

Which interest group would support a Republican candidate?

a)

National Rifle Association

b)

NAACP

c)

Greenpeace

d)

National Abortion Rights

130.

Which would a liberal support?

a)

death penalty

b)

more environmental protections

c)

fewer restrictions on guns

d)

stricter immigration laws

131.

Which would a conservative support?

a)

gun ownership

b)

more spending on poverty prevention

c)

higher taxes

d)

abortion rights

132.

Independent expenditure

a)

a person who does not favor any political party

b)

an organization that supports candidates but is not associated with the actual candidate

c)

a committee that gives candidates an identifiable party label on the election ballot

d)

a spending bill that is prepared by Congress independently of the President

133.

Which is not allowed under the 1st amendment?

a)

refusing to stand for the Pledge

b)

burning an American flag

c)

participating in a peaceful protest

d)

throwing firebombs into store windows to protest police brutality

134.

Naturalization

a)

process of registering to vote

b)

having U.S. citizenship by birth

c)

rejecting U.S. citizenship and moving to a foreign country

d)

the process of becoming a U.S. citizen for foreign-born individuals

135.

Requirements to become a U.S. citizen EXCEPT

a)

be at least 18

b)

own property in the U.S.

c)

pass a basic civics test

d)

speak, write, read basic English

136.

Which interest group would vote for Democrats?

a)

NAACP

b)

National Right to Life

c)

National Rifle Association

d)

Citizens for Trump

137.

How does the media use election polls?

a)

to educate the public about the issues

b)

to decide which candidates are most likely to win

c)

to educate the public about government

d)

to investigate candidates' finances

138.

Gerrymandering

a)

a state changes from an open primary to a closed primary system

b)

state voting districts drawn by an independent commission

c)

state legislature drawn districts that provide for fair representation of all interests

d)

state legislature drawn districts that favor 1 political party over another

139.

Who draws Congressional districts

a)

state legislatures

b)

U.S. district courts

c)

the U.S. Senate

d)

the U.S. House of Representatives

140.

To win the Presidency, a candidate must receive

a)

majority of the popular vote

b)

majority of the electoral vote

c)

majority of the popular vote and the majority of the electoral vote

d)

majority votes cast by people in large states

141.

Citizens United v. FEC

a)

individual contributions to PACs may be restricted

b)

PAC money contributed to presidential candidates may be restricted

c)

Any contribution of PAC money to candidates is unconstitutional

d)

PACs who operate independently of candidates have no spending limits

142.

Function of a PAC

a)

contribute money to candidates for election

b)

regulate and enforce campaign finance laws

c)

oversee activities of the electoral college

d)

organize local get out the vote campaigns

143.

If a candidate receives 51% of a state's popular vote,

a)

They receive 51% of the state's electoral vote

b)

They win the national election

c)

They receive all of the state's electoral vote, except in Maine and Nebraska

d)

The election will be determined in the House of Representatives

144.

Private organization that works to affect public policy in order to benefit its members

a)

mandate

b)

interest group

c)

mass media

d)

cats

145.

Primaries and caucuses are different from a general election in that

a)

Primary / caucus voters select the candidate to represent the party

b)

General election voters select the candidate to represent the party

c)

Primary/caucus voters and general election voters are the same; some states name their elections differently

d)

Primary/caucus voters use absentee ballots, while general election voters vote in person

146.

Examples of voluntary political participation

a)

military draft

b)

paying taxes

c)

voting

d)

jury duty

147.

Examples of involuntary political participation

a)

discussing politics

b)

registering to vote

c)

donating money to a political cause

d)

registration for selective service

148.

Pledge of Allegiance

a)

a daily prayer

b)

a legal contract

c)

the national anthem

d)

expression of loyalty and respect to the nation

149.

Which major political party believes that the government should provide a "safety net" of government programs, so that its citizens' basic needs are met?

a)

Constitution Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Republican Party

d)

Libertarian Party

150.

Which political party wants the LEAST amount of government involvement in public life?

a)

Green Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Republican Party

d)

Libertarian Party

151.

What is the purpose of a political party's platform?

a)

to tell Americans what to believe

b)

to outline and make clear their views on important issues

c)

to help candidates who don't understand the issues

d)

to make it easy for opposing parties to adopt their views

152.

How do Political Action Committees (PACs) influence government?

a)

advising the President

b)

staffing Congressional offices

c)

financially supporting causes and campaigns

d)

sending written summaries of cases to the Supreme Court

153.

What would be the most accurate source to find information about candidates' views during an election?

a)

a private interest group's website

b)

a record of the candidates' voting history on issues-related legislation

c)

a TV commercial sponsored by a political party

d)

a newspaper editorial

154.

In 2020, your mom wants to run for President. She is 42 years old and has a high school diploma. She was born in Canada, but became a naturalized U.S. citizen ten years ago. Your Civics teacher says your mom isn't qualified to run for President. Why isn't your mom qualified to run for President?

a)

She isn't a natural-born citizen of the U.S.

b)

She's too old.

c)

She doesn't have a college degree.

d)

She has no government experience.

155.

BEST description for the key role of a political party

a)

organize voters around common interests so political candidates can be elected to represent those voters

b)

manage the election process in each state and make sure the process is fair for all voters

c)

communicate to voters about when elections will be held

d)

represent a single issue on the ballot that concerns a group of voters

156.

Why did the 2 party system develop in the U.S.?

a)

The Constitution established it.

b)

Conflicts in the Constitution created opposing viewpoints

c)

Leaders and voters agreed on allowing the 2 parties to exist.

d)

Both houses of Congress voted on and approved these 2 parties.

157.

What is the purpose of a primary or a caucus?

a)

for like-minded individuals to select their state's choice for party candidates

b)

for political candidates to raise as much money as possible in 1 year's time

c)

for state officials to decide what issues will appear on the ballots in state & local elections.

d)

for each state to decide the number of delegates that will officially serve as electors in the electoral college

158.

Why did the Founders establish the Electoral College?

a)

to establish a government for the wealthy

b)

they believed the common people should have no part of the election process

c)

they believed the common people would not know enough to make an informed decision

d)

they felt the Electoral College should automatically approve the decisions of the people

159.

One difference between a criminal case and a civil case is that

a)

only a judge decides the outcome of a criminal case.

b)

the jury must be unanimous in a civil case,

c)

the defendant is not provided a court appointed lawyer in a civil case.

d)

only a judge decides the outcome of a civil case.

160.

Who has the burden of proof in a civil case?

a)

the state

b)

the defendant

c)

the plaintiff

d)

the judge

161.

Who has the burden of proof in a criminal case?

a)

the defendant

b)

the judge

c)

the state/prosecutor

d)

the plaintiff

162.

What is the standard of proof in a criminal case?

a)

beyond a reasonable doubt

b)

innocent until proven guilty

c)

preponderance of evidence

d)

rule of law

163.

What is the standard of proof in a civil case?

a)

innocent until proven guilty

b)

beyond a reasonable doubt

c)

preponderance of evidence

d)

trial by jury of your peers

164.

What is the correct sequence?

a)

trial, arrest, plea bargain, indictment

b)

arrest, arraignment, bail is set, plea bargain

c)

plea bargain, indictment, arrest, arraignment

d)

indictment, arraignment, arrest, plea bargain

165.

A grand jury

a)

determines if there is enough evidence to indict

b)

only hears appeals

c)

is a jury larger than 12 people

d)

gives the verdict of guilt or innocence

166.

Which is an example of a property crime?

a)

stolen laptop

b)

murder

c)

assault & battery

d)

domestic abuse

167.

Which is an example of a personal crime?

a)

stolen laptop

b)

shoplifting

c)

assault & battery

168.

1st case of judicial review

a)

Plessy v. Ferguson

b)

Dred Scott v. Sanford

c)

Brown v. Board of Education

d)

Marbury v. Madison

169.

Judicial review is

a)

declaring a law unconstitutional

b)

courts review of an impeachment proceeding

c)

an appeal from a lower court

d)

Senate hearings on a President's judicial nominee

170.

Federal judges are selected by ____________________, and confirmed by ________________________________.

a)

House of Representatives; Senate

b)

Senate; House of Representatives

c)

an election; Senate

d)

President; Senate

171.

The term of office for a federal judge or Supreme Court justice is set

a)

as a life term in the U.S. Constitution

b)

by the President who appoints them

c)

at 4 years.

d)

at 10 years.

172.

What is the "Rule of Four"?

a)

the number of Supreme Court justices needed to agree to hear a case

b)

the number of Supreme Court justices needed to convict an impeached President.

c)

the limit on the number of Constitutional amendments.

d)

the number of years in a President's term.

173.

How does a case reach the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

from local courts

b)

from federal appeals courts or state supreme courts

c)

only from federal appeals courts

d)

only from state supreme courts

174.

4th amendment

a)

protection from self-incrimination

b)

no illegal search or seizure

c)

freedom of speech

d)

right to an attorney in criminal cases

175.

5th amendment

a)

no illegal search or seizure

b)

protection from self-incrimination

c)

right to bear arms

d)

right to an attorney in criminal cases

176.

6th amendment

a)

right to an attorney in criminal cases

b)

freedom of speech

c)

right to bear arms

d)

no illegal search or seizure

177.
This case created separate but equal facilities and encouraged segregation
a)
Brown vs. Board of Education
b)
Plessy vs. Ferguson
c)
Dred Scott v. Sandford
d)
Korematsu v. U.S.
178.
This case ended segregation in public schools
a)
Plessy vs. Ferguson
b)
Brown vs. Board of Education
c)
New Jersey v. T.L.O.
d)
Bethel School District v. Fraser
179.
This case said the courts had to provide lawyers for those who can't afford one
a)
Mapp v. Ohio
b)
Terry v. Ohio
c)
Gideon vs. Wainwright
d)
Miranda v. Arizona
180.
This decision allowed for women to have abortions
a)
Roe vs. Wade
b)
Griswold v. Connecticut
c)
Mapp v. Ohio
d)
New Jersey v. T.L.O.
181.
This court case gave everyone the right to legal counsel in a criminal case
a)
Griswold v. Connecticut
b)
Gideon v. Wainright
c)
Miranda v. Arizona
d)
Marbury v. Madison
182.
Which court case stated that suspects must be read their rights when arrested or anything said is inadmissible in court.
a)
Plessy v Ferguson
b)
Texas v Johnson
c)
Tinker v Des Moines
d)
Miranda v. Arizona
183.
Which court case expressed that all individuals have the right to an attorney for any criminal charge?
a)
Lemon v Kurtman
b)
Gideon v Wainwright
c)
US v Nixon
d)
Brown v Board of Ed
184.
Which court case is important in protecting the 4th Amendment right to "unreasonable search and seizures"? 
a)
Mapp v Ohio
b)
Gideon v Wainwright
c)
US v Nixon
d)
Brown v Board of Ed
185.

What is the role of the judicial branch?

a)

to make laws

b)

to enforce laws

c)

to interpret laws

d)

to impeach a president

186.

Judicial philosophy in which justices create and influence law from the bench

a)

judicial review

b)

judicial activism

c)

judicial restraint

d)

constitutional interpretation

187.

Philosophy proposing that judges should interpret the Constitution to reflect what the framers intended and what its words literally say.

a)

judicial activism

b)

precedent

c)

judicial restraint

d)

original juridiction

188.

A serious crime

a)

Misdemeanor

b)

Felony

c)

Violation

d)

Running out of food at Thanksgiving

189.

Amendment that lowered the voting age from 21 to 18

a)

26th

b)

22nd

c)

15th

d)

19th

190.

Executive leader of a state government

a)

mayor

b)

president

c)

governor

d)

principal

191.

Executive leader of a local government

a)

governor

b)

mayor

c)

president

d)

principal

192.

How are the powers of local governments determined in Georgia?

a)

by the governor

b)

by the president

c)

by the Georgia Constitution

d)

by the U.S. Constitution

193.

Examples of services provided by state & local govts.

a)

defense & urbanization

b)

education & public safety

c)

defense & education

d)

border security & foreign policy

194.

Remove a local or state official before the end of their term

a)

impeachment

b)

recall

c)

initiative

d)

referendum

195.

Place on the ballot by the state legislature for a "yes" or "no" vote

a)

referendum

b)

impeachment

c)

initiative

d)

lottery

196.

Placed on the ballot by the people through a petition process for a "yes" or "no" vote

a)

initiative

b)

referendum

c)

impeachment

d)

lottery

197.

Right to vote for women

a)

15th amendment

b)

19th amendment

c)

26th amendment

d)

25th amendment

198.

Right to vote regardless of race

a)

15th amendment

b)

19th amendment

c)

26th amendment

d)

13th amendment

199.

What part of the U.S. Constitution has been used by the Supreme Court to incorporate the Bill of Rights to the state and local level?

a)

the supremacy clause of Article 6

b)

the due process clause of the 14th amendment

c)

the necessary and proper clause of Article 1

d)

the reserved powers clause of the 10th amendment

200.

Constitutional amendment that guarantees the rights of all Americans to have equal treatment under the law

a)

13th

b)

14th

c)

15th

d)

19th

201.

Rights preserved by the Bill of Rights

a)

civil rights

b)

civil liberties

c)

civil laws

d)

civil disobedience

202.

The equal application of the law to all Americans

a)

civil liberties

b)

civil defense

c)

civil rights

d)

civil behavior

203.

Main source of income for local governments

a)

sales tax

b)

property tax

c)

income tax

d)

wealth tax

204.

Property taxes provide funding for

a)

schools, fire depts, local police

b)

military protection & border security

c)

national healthcare & welfare programs