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AUBF MODULE 6 QUIZ

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When urine sediment is viewed, stains and various microscopic techniques are used to:

1. enhance the observation of fine detail.

2. confirm the identity of suspected components.

3. differentiate formed elements that look alike.

4. facilitate the visualization of low-refractile

components

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct.

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct.

2.

The microscopic identification of hemosiderin is enhanced when the urine sediment is stained with

a)

Gram stain

b)

Hansel stain

c)

Prussian blue stain

d)

Sudan III stain

3.

When the laboratorian performs the microscopic examination of urine sediment, which of the following are enumerated using low-power magnification?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Casts

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Renal tubular cells

4.

A urine sediment could have which of the following formed elements and still be considered “normal”?

a)

Two or fewer hyaline casts

b)

Five to 10 red blood cells

c)

A few bacteria

d)

A few yeast cells

5.

Which of the following statements about red blood cells in urine is true?

a)

Red blood cells crenate in hypotonic urine

b)

Red blood cell remnants are called “ghost cells.”

c)

Alkaline and hypotonic urine promotes red blood cell disintegration

d)

Dysmorphic red blood cells often are associated with renal tubular disease

6.

Hemoglobin is a protein and will

a)

not react in the protein reagent strip test.

b)

interfere with the protein reagent strip test, producing erroneous results

c)

always contribute to the protein reagent strip result, regardless of the amount of hemoglobin present.

d)

contribute to the protein reagent strip result only when large concentrations of hemoglobin are present

7.

Which urinary sediment component(s) when observed microscopically can resemble red blood cells?

1. Yeasts

2. Air bubbles

3. Oil droplets

4. Calcium oxalate crystals

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

8.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of neutrophils found in the urine sediment?

a)

They are approximately 10 to 14 µm in diameter

b)

They form “ghost cells” in hypotonic urine.

c)

They shrink in hypertonic urine but do not crenate.

d)

As they disintegrate, vacuoles and blebs form and their nuclei fuse.

9.

Which statement regarding lymphocytes found in urine sediment is correct?

a)

They are not normally present in the urine.

b)

They produce a positive leukocyte esterase test.

c)

Their number is increased in patients with drug hypersensitivity.

d)

Their number is increased in patients experiencing kidney transplant rejection.

10.

Urinary casts are formed in

a)

the distal and collecting tubules

b)

the distal tubules and the loops of Henle.

c)

the proximal and distal tubules

d)

the proximal tubules and the loops of Henle.

11.

Urinary casts are formed with a core matrix of

a)

albumin

b)

Bence Jones protein

c)

transferrin

d)

uromodulin

12.

Which of the following does not contribute to the size, shape, or length of a urinary cast?

a)

The concentration of protein in the core matrix of the cast

b)

The configuration of the tubule in which the cast is formed

c)

The diameter of the tubular lumen in which the cast is formed

d)

The duration of time the cast is allowed to form in the tubule

13.

All of the following enhance urinary cast formation except

a)

an alkaline pH

b)

urinary stasis

c)

an increase in the solute concentration of the ultrafiltrate

d)

an increase in the quantity of plasma proteins in the ultrafiltrate

14.

When the laboratorian is using brightfield microscopy, a urinary cast that appears homogeneous with well-defined edges, blunt ends, and cracks is most likely a

a)

fatty cast

b)

granular cast

c)

hyaline cast

d)

waxy cast

15.

All of the following can be found incorporated into a cast matrix except

a)

bacteria

b)

crystals

c)

transitional epithelial cells

d)

white blood cells

16.

Which of the following urinary casts are diagnostic of glomerular or renal tubular damage?

a)

Bacterial casts

b)

Red blood cell casts

c)

Renal tubular cell casts

d)

White blood cell casts

17.

Which of the following characteristics best differentiates waxy casts from fibers that may contaminate urine sediment?

a)

Waxy casts do not polarize light; fibers do.

b)

Waxy casts are more refractile than fibers.

c)

Waxy casts have rounded ends; fibers do not.

d)

Waxy casts are thicker at their margins; fibers are thicker in the middle

18.

Which of the following does not affect the formation of urinary crystals within nephrons?

a)

The pH of the ultrafiltrate

b)

The diameter of the tubular lumen

c)

The flow of urine through the tubules

d)

The concentration of solutes in the ultrafiltrate

19.

Microscopic Description: Colorless “coffin lid” form

a)

Ammonium biurate

b)

Amorphous phosphates

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Triple phosphate

e)

Cholesterol

20.

Microscopic Description: Colorless hexagonal plates

a)

Cystine

b)

Amorphous phosphates

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Triple phosphate

e)

Cholesterol

21.

Microscopic Description: Colorless “envelope” form

a)

Cystine

b)

Amorphous phosphates

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Triple phosphate

e)

Cholesterol

22.

Microscopic Description: Colorless rectangular plates

with notched corners

a)

Cystine

b)

Amorphous phosphates

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Triple phosphate

e)

Cholesterol

23.

Microscopic Description: Yellow-brown “thorny apple”

form

a)

Amorphous urates

b)

Amorphous phosphates

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Ammonium biurate

e)

Cholesterol

24.

Microscopic Description: Colorless to yellow; diamond-shaped or rhombic, can form layer

a)

Amorphous urates

b)

Uric acid

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Ammonium biurate

e)

Sulfonamides

25.

Microscopic Description: Yellow-brown sheaves of

wheat

a)

Amorphous urates

b)

Uric acid

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Ammonium biurate

e)

Sulfonamides

26.

Which of the following crystals, when found in the urine sediment, most likely indicates an abnormal metabolic condition

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Sulfonamides

c)

Triple phosphate

d)

Uric acid

27.

During the microscopic examination of a urine sediment, cystine crystals are found. The laboratorian should perform which of the following before reporting the presence of these crystals?

1. Perform a confirmatory chemical test

2. Ensure that the urine specimen has an acid

pH

3. Assess the number of crystals per high-power

field

4. Check the current medications that the

patient is taking

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

28.

Mucous threads can be difficult to differentiate from

a)

fibers

b)

hyaline casts

c)

pigmented casts

d)

waxy casts

29.

Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of yeast in the urine sediments

a)

Motility

b)

Budding forms

c)

Hyphae formation

d)

Colorless ovoid forms

30.

Fat can be found in the urine sediment in all of the following forms except

a)

within casts

b)

within cells

c)

as free-floating globules

d)

within hemosiderin granules

31.

Which of the following statements regarding the characteristics of urinary fat is true?

a)

Cholesterol droplets stain with Sudan III stain

b)

Triglyceride or neutral fat stains with Oil Red O stain

c)

Cholesterol droplets do not form a Maltese cross pattern under polarized light

d)

Triglycerides and neutral fat are anisotropic and form a Maltese cross pattern under polarized light

32.

Which of the following statements regarding the microscopic examination of urine sediment is false?

a)

If large numbers of leukocytes are present microscopically, then bacteria are present

b)

If urinary fat is present microscopically, then the chemical test for protein should be positive

c)

If large numbers of casts are present microscopically, then the chemical test for protein should be positive

d)

If large numbers of red blood cells are present microscopically, then the chemical test for blood should be positive

33.

The following are initial results obtained during a routine urinalysis. Which results should be investigated further?

a)

Negative protein; 2 to 5 waxy casts

b)

Cloudy, brown urine; 2 to 5 red blood cell

c)

Urine pH 7.5; ammonium biurate crystals

d)

Clear, colorless urine; specific gravity 1.010

34.

The following are initial results obtained during a routine urinalysis. Which results should be investigated further?

a)

Negative protein; 0 to 2 hyaline casts

b)

Urine pH 6.0; calcium oxalate crystals

c)

Cloudy, yellow urine; specific gravity 1.050

d)

Amber urine with yellow foam; negative bilirubin by reagent strip; positive Ictotest

35.

Which of the following when found in the urine sediment from a female patient is not considered a vaginal contaminant?

a)

Fat

b)

Clue cells

c)

Spermatozoa

d)

Trichomonads

36.

Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to:

a)

Provide results as soon as possible

b)

Predict the type of urinary casts present

c)

Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis

d)

Decrease the need for polarized microscopy

37.

Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include all

of the following except:

a)

Preparation of the urine sediment

b)

Amount of sediment analyzed

c)

Method of reporting

d)

Identification of formed elements

38.

All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic results except:

a)

Braking the centrifuge

b)

Failing to mix the specimen

c)

Dilute alkaline urine

d)

Using midstream clean-catch specimens

39.

The two factors that determine relative centrifugal force are:

a)

Radius of rotor head and rpm

b)

Radius of rotor head and time of centrifugation

c)

Diameter of rotor head and rpm

d)

RPM and time of centrifugation

40.

When using the glass slide and cover-slip method, which of the following might be missed if the cover slip is overflowed?

a)

Casts

b)

RBCs

c)

WBCs

d)

Bacteria

41.

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using

an objective power of

a)

4x

b)

10x

c)

40x

d)

100x

42.

Which of the following should be used to reduce light

intensity in bright-field microscopy?

a)

Centering screws

b)

Aperture diaphragm

c)

Rheostat

d)

Condenser aperture diaphragm

43.

Which of the following are not reported as number per hpf?

a)

RBCs

b)

WBCs

c)

Crystals

d)

Casts

44.

The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine sediments to do all of the following except:

a)

Increase visibility of sediment constituents

b)

Change the constituents’ refractive index

c)

Decrease precipitation of crystals

d)

Delineate constituent structures

45.

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by

a)

Prussian blue

b)

Toluidine blue

c)

Acetic acid

d)

Both Toluidine blue and Acetic Acid

46.

Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan III?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Neutral fats

c)

Triglycerides

d)

Triglycerides & Neutral fats

47.

Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing

light?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Neutral fats

c)

Triglycerides

d)

Cholesterol & Neutral fats

48.

The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Renal tubular cells

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocytes

49.

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:

a)

Hyposthenuric

b)

Hypersthenuric

c)

Highly acidic

d)

Highly alkaline

50.

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may

be accomplished by all of the following except

a)

Observation of budding in yeast cells

b)

Increased refractility of oil droplets

c)

Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

d)

Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

51.

A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of

a)

Glomerular bleeding

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Traumatic injury

d)

Coagulation disorders

52.

Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer-Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:

a)

Indicative of pyelonephritis

b)

Basophils

c)

Mononuclear leukocytes

d)

Glitter cells

53.

Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for:

a)

Yeast cells

b)

Squamous epithelial cells

c)

Pollen grains

d)

Renal tubular cells

54.

When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide

should be carefully checked for the presence of:

a)

RBCs

b)

Bacteria

c)

Hyaline casts

d)

Mucus

55.

Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the:

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Vagina

c)

Bladder

d)

Proximal convoluted tubule

56.

The largest cells in the urine sediment are

a)

Squamous epithelial cells

b)

Urothelial epithelial cells

c)

Cuboidal epithelial cells

d)

Columnar epithelial cells

57.

A clinically significant squamous epithelial cell is the:

a)

Cuboidal cell

b)

Clue cell

c)

Caudate cell

d)

Columnar cell

58.

Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except

a)

Spherical

b)

Caudate

c)

Convoluted

d)

Polyhedral

59.

Increased transitional cells are indicative of:

a)

Catheterization

b)

Malignancy

c)

Pyelonephritis

d)

Catheterization and Malignancy

60.

A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is:

a)

Elongated structure

b)

Centrally located nucleus

c)

Spherical appearance

d)

Eccentrically located nucleus

61.

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may

contain:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Hemosiderin granules

c)

Porphobilinogen

d)

Myoglobin

62.

The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:

a)

Histiocyte

b)

Urothelial cell

c)

Monocyte

d)

Renal tubular cell

63.

A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not stain with Sudan III. The structure:

a)

Contains cholesterol

b)

Is not an oval fat body

c)

Contains neutral fats

d)

Is contaminated with immersion oil

64.

The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with:

a)

Cystitis

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Pyelonephritis

d)

Liver disorders

65.

The primary component of urinary mucus is

a)

Bence Jones protein

b)

Microalbumin

c)

Uromodulin

d)

Orthostatic protein

66.

The majority of casts are formed in the:

a)

Proximal convoluted tubules

b)

Ascending loop of Henle

c)

Distal convoluted tubules

d)

Collecting ducts

67.

Cylindruria refers to the presence of

a)

Cylindrical renal tubular cells

b)

Mucus-resembling casts

c)

Hyaline and waxy casts

d)

All types of casts

68.

A person submitting a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except:

a)

Hyaline casts

b)

Granular casts

c)

RBC casts

d)

WBC casts

69.

Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except:

a)

Free-floating RBCs

b)

Intact RBCs in the cast

c)

Presence of a cast matrix

d)

A positive reagent strip blood reaction

70.

WBC casts are primarily associated with:

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Cystitis

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Viral infections

71.

The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular epithelial casts is primarily:

a)

Elongated

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Round

d)

Columnar

72.

When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily

a)

Embedded in a clear matrix

b)

Embedded in a granular matrix

c)

Attached to the surface of a matrix

d)

Stained by components of the urine filtrate

73.

The presence of fatty casts is associated with

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Crush injuries

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

All of the choices given

74.

Nonpathogenic granular casts contain:

a)

Cellular lysosomes

b)

Degenerated cells

c)

Protein aggregates

d)

Gram-positive cocci

75.

All of the following are true about waxy casts except they:

a)

Represent extreme urine stasis

b)

May have a brittle consistency

c)

Require staining to be visualized

d)

Contain degenerated granules

76.

Observation of broad casts represents:

a)

Destruction of tubular walls

b)

Dehydration and high fever

c)

Formation in the collecting ducts

d)

Destruction of tubular walls and formation in the collecting ducts

77.

All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except

a)

Protein concentration

b)

pH

c)

Solute concentration

d)

Temperature

78.

The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in a

urine specimen is:

a)

pH

b)

Solubility

c)

Staining

d)

Polarized microscopy

79.

Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all of the following except

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Leucine

c)

Cystine

d)

Tyrosine

80.

All of the following crystals routinely polarize except:

a)

Uric acid

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Radiographic dye

d)

Cystine

81.

Casts and fibers can usually be differentiated using:

a)

Solubility characteristics

b)

Patient history

c)

Polarized light

d)

Fluorescent light

82.

Type of Microscope: Forms halo of light around

object

a)

Bright-field

b)

Polarized

c)

Phase contrast

d)

Fluorescent

e)

Interference contrast

83.

Type of Microscope: Detects specific wavelengths

of light emitted from objects

a)

Bright-field

b)

Polarized

c)

Phase contrast

d)

Fluorescent

e)

Interference contrast

84.

Identify the image.

a)

Candida Albicans

b)

Trichomonas

c)

Enterobius

d)

E. nana

85.

Identify the image.

a)

RBCs

b)

Air Bubbles

c)

Yeast cells

d)

Oil

86.

Identify the image.

a)

RBCs

b)

Air Bubbles

c)

Yeast cells

d)

Oil

87.

Identify the image.

a)

RBCs

b)

Air Bubbles

c)

Yeast cells

d)

Oil

88.

Identify the type of cast in the image.

a)

Red Blood Cell Casts

b)

White Blood Cell Casts

c)

Fatty Casts

d)

Hyaline Casts

e)

Broad Casts

89.

Identify the type of cast in the image.

a)

Red Blood Cell Casts

b)

White Blood Cell Casts

c)

Fatty Casts

d)

Hyaline Casts

e)

Broad Casts

90.

Identify the type of cast in the image.

a)

Red Blood Cell Casts

b)

Waxy Casts

c)

Fatty Casts

d)

Hyaline Casts

e)

Broad Casts

91.

Identify the type of cast in the image.

a)

Granular Casts

b)

Waxy Casts

c)

Fatty Casts

d)

Hyaline Casts

e)

Broad Casts

92.

Identify the type of cast in the image.

a)

Granular casts

b)

Waxy Casts

c)

Fatty Casts

d)

Hyaline Casts

e)

Broad Casts

93.

Identify the type of cast in the image.

a)

Granular casts

b)

Waxy Casts

c)

Fatty Casts

d)

Hyaline Casts

e)

Broad Casts

94.

Identify the type of crystals present in the image.

a)

Cystine

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triple Phosphate

d)

Uric Acid

e)

Bilirubin

95.

Identify the type of crystals present in the image.

a)

Cystine

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triple Phosphate

d)

Uric Acid

e)

Calcium Oxalate

96.

Identify the type of crystals present in the image.

a)

Cystine

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triple Phosphate

d)

Uric Acid

e)

Calcium Oxalate

97.

Identify the type of crystals present in the image.

a)

Cystine

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triple Phosphate

d)

Uric Acid

e)

Calcium Oxalate

98.

Identify the type of crystals present in the image.

a)

Cystine

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triple Phosphate

d)

Uric Acid

e)

Calcium Oxalate

99.

Identify the type of crystals present in the image.

a)

Cystine

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triple Phosphate

d)

Uric Acid

e)

Calcium Oxalate

100.

Identify the type of epithelial cells.

a)

Squamous

b)

Transitional

c)

Renal Tubular